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Worksheets

Human Nutrition Final

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Too much flouride in the body can cause?

a)

Arthritis

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Moltted Teeth

d)

Microcytic Amenia

2.

What is the most effective way for a child to develop a strong skeleton

a)

To participate in fast, ground-based sports

b)

To maximize calcium intake and absorption

c)

To prevent goiters, which arise from calcium deficiency

d)

To maximize vitamin D absorption and storage

3.

As magnesium (Mg) intake increases:

a)

The fractional absorption of Mg declines

b)

Active transport becomes more important

c)

The proportion of Mg absorbed depends on other minerals

d)

The fractional absorption of Mg remains the same

4.

Aging results in ________ HCl production in the stomach, which results in ________ iron absorption.

a)

Decreased; greater

b)

Decreased; reduced

c)

Increased; reduced

d)

Increased; greater

5.

Why does selenium have an UL?

a)

Because it is difficult to know what the selenium concentration is in grain

b)

Because intakes at the UL provide additional benefits beyond the RDA

c)

Because toxic effects of selenium have been reported.

d)

Because there is no known symptoms of selenium toxicity

6.

What adverse effect can goitrogens have

a)

Decrease iodine uptake into the thyroid gland

b)

Increase PTH production, leading to osteoporosis

c)

Increase iodine levels, leading to goiter in adults

d)

Cause goiter in babies

7.

Which food would yield more iron absorption from a supplement?

a)

A spinach salad

b)

A high fiber English muffin with a cup of green tea

c)

Peanut-butter on brown bread with a glass of milk

d)

Orange juice

8.

The level of calcium in the blood is maintained within a narrow limit by two hormones; _____ lowers blood calcium and _____ raises blood calcium.

a)

Calcitonin; parathyroid hormone

b)

Parathyroid hormone; calcitonin

c)

Aldosterone; thyroid stimulating hormone

d)

Calcitonin; aldosterone

9.

According to accelerometer data collected in the Canadian Community Health Survey, what proportion of adult Canadians meet the recommendations of 150 minutes of MVPA per week?

a)

30%

b)

5%

c)

15%

d)

52%

10.

Exercise-associated hyponatremia is most often associated with

a)

People who continue to exercise for several hours

b)

People who consume to many sports drinks while exercising

c)

People who over drink water while exercising

d)

Both A and C occurring together.

11.

Which athlete in what type of sport might benefit MOST from creatine supplementation?

a)

Marathoner

b)

Archer

c)

Hockey player

d)

Fencer

12.

Which amino acid has been most linked to muscle protein synthesis?

a)

Arginine

b)

Leucine

c)

Isoleucine

d)

Mehionine

13.

Which beverage is recommended for short workouts of less than an hour?

a)

Water

b)

Exclusively sports drinks

c)

Half water, half sports drink

d)

Energy drink

14.

Running at a slow pace, and then sprinting involves which change?

a)

From anabolic metabolism to catabolic

b)

From anaerobic metabolism to aerobic

c)

From catabolic metabolism to anabolic

d)

From aerobic metabolism to anaerobic

15.

Which of the following amino acids combine to form creatine?

a)

Tryptophan, methionine, arginine

b)

Isoleucine, glycine, arginine

c)

Glycine, methionine, arginine

d)

Methionine, valine, arginine

16.

When someone trains strenuously for multiple hours a day, the proportion of energy from protein in their diet will

a)

Stay the same

b)

Increase

c)

Decrease

17.

Delilah is a national level high school cross country runner who consumes 2500 kcal/day. Her available energy (AE) calculates to be 41.8 kcal/kg body weight /day. Is her energy intake high enough?

a)

No

b)

Yes

c)

Not enough information to determine

18.

Protein in sports drink is likely to most benefit triathletes who consume a drink in which percent CHO during competition?

a)

8% CHO

b)

3% CHO

c)

10% CHO

d)

6% CHO

19.

You are jogging in the park, but gradually run faster and faster, then keep going. Which one of the following options best describes the substrate(s) used as fuel by your body as you become very out of breath?

a)

Only plasma glucose and muscle glycogen are used at this intensity

b)

The most energy will come from muscle glycogen, but blood glucose, free fatty acids and other lipids will also be used

c)

Energy will come nearly equally from plasma free fatty acids and glucose and muscle glycogen

d)

Mostly free fatty acids will be used, but some CHO

20.

This course will be delivered using a modified type of __________.

a)

Problem Based Learning (PBL)

b)

Case Based Learning (CBL)

c)

Team Based Learning (TBL)

d)

Flexible Based Learning (FBL)

21.

The "Test Drive a Diet" project in this course requires students to

a)

try an evidence-based scientific or environmental diet

b)

attain a healthier weight

c)

help someone else lose weight

d)

help someone else eat a healthier diet

22.

Nutrient density refers to _____________; ______________ is a more nutrient dense food than ______________.

a)

The amount of nutrients per energy in a food; bread, kale

b)

The amount of nutrients per energy in a food; broccoli, bread

c)

The amount of energy per volume of a food; kale, rice

d)

The amount of energy per weight of a food; a potato, carrot

23.

An essential nutrient is required for health

a)

and can be manufactured in the body from other constituents

b)

but should be consumed within a narrow range of amounts

c)

and can be acquired by either ingestion or made in the body

d)

and must be acquired via ingestion

24.

Malnutrition is a term that indicates which of the following?

a)

Poor nutrition due to lack of energy-containing food

b)

Poor nutrition due to either too much or too little energy ingestion

c)

Poor nutrition due to excessive ingestion of energy-containing food

25.

A food contains 5 g each of carbohydrate, protein, and lipid. How many kcals does it contain?

a)

65 kcal

b)

75 kcal

c)

85 kcal

d)

95 kcal

26.

A processed food is defined as a food that

a)

has more than five ingredients

b)

requires heating or cooking before it can be eaten

c)

has had preservatives added

d)

has been treated or changed from its natural state

27.

Which of the following research studies most likely had a single blind design?

a)

Researchers tested responses to aspartame versus a sweetener with a similar sweetness taste in school children

b)

The Canadian Community Health Survey asked adults how often they had consumed soy foods within the last year

c)

A pharmaceutical company tested the effects of a novel drug against that of the one currently most often prescribed; neither those running the experiment nor the subjects knew who was taking which medication

28.

Metabolic processes take place in the body to maintain a steady body temperature, heart rate, and blood glucose level. This steady state is called

a)

an anabolic process

b)

a catabolic process

c)

metabolism

d)

homeostasis

29.

The instrument used to measure the energy in a food is a _______________. Contrary to the results from the test, people usually derive a lot more energy from __________ than from ___________.

a)

bomb calorimeter; carbohydrate, protein

b)

bomb calorimeter; protein, carbohydrate

c)

HPLC; carbohydrate, protein

d)

Kjeldahl; carbohydrate, protein

30.

What is the basis for the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label?

a)

Nutritional value

b)

Contribution to total weight

c)

Contribution to total volume

d)

Alphabetical order

31.

The AMDR for carbohydrate ranges from:

a)

5 - 10%

b)

10 - 35 %

c)

45 - 65%

d)

20 - 35%

32.

The recommended EAR for a nutrient is the amount estimated to meet the needs of what % of individuals in the selected sex and life-stage group?

a)

98%

b)

33%

c)

50%

d)

75%

33.

A consensus of Canadian scientists agreed that the RDA for calcium for people aged 19-50 years is 1000 mg/day and the UL is 2500 mg/day. A person in that demographic should eat:

a)

Close to 2500 mg/d

b)

Always over 1000 but less than 2500 mg/d

c)

About 1000 mg but less than 2500 mg/d

d)

Up to 1000 mg/d

34.

If your daily intake of a vitamin does not meet the RDA,

a)

You may not be meeting your needs

b)

You necessarily have a poor diet

c)

You are safe if you meet at least half of the RDA

35.

Which is NOT legally required on a Nutrition Facts table?

a)

Grams of fat

b)

Kcalories from fibre

c)

Grams of protein

d)

Kcals per serving

36.

Similar foods from 2 different companies are labelled as follows: Good source of calcium; excellent source of calcium. Are these claims allowed? If so, do they mean the same thing?

a)

No, they are not allowed.

b)

Yes, they are allowed. They do not mean the same thing

c)

Yes, they are allowed. They might have the same amount of calcium because the sizes could be quite different.

37.

Susanne went to a drug store to buy a nutritional supplement. To ensure that her supplements have been approved for use in Canada, what should she look for?

a)

Risk information

b)

Contact information for manufacturer

c)

NHP number

d)

List of medical ingredients

38.

Which statement best describes Eating Well with Canada's Food Guide: First Nations, Inuit, and Metis?

a)

The First Nations, Inuit, and Metis food guide recognizes the cultural values of the aboriginal peoples by incorporating traditional foods, such as wild game fish, into the food guide.

b)

The First Nations, Inuits, and Metis Food Guide recognizes the cultural values of the aboriginal peoples by emphasizing the store-bought foods they typically buy.

c)

The First Nations, Inuits, and Metis Food Guide is available in several aboriginal languages but otherwise it is the same as Canada's Food guide.

39.

A person consumes 2000 kcalories and 80 grams of protein. How would you calculate the %kcal from protein?

a)

2000 / 80, then multiply by 4, then convert to a percentage

b)

2000 / 4, then multiply by 80, then convert to a percentage

c)

2000 / (80 X 4), then convert to a percentage

d)

(80 X 4) / 2000, then convert to a percentage

40.

What happens when the esophageal sphincter contracts?

a)

Food is prevented from re-entering the esophagus from the stomach

b)

Food flows from the esophagus into the stomach

c)

Food leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine

d)

Food is eliminated through the body through the anus

41.

Most fat-soluble nutrients are absorbed into the:

a)

Vascular system

b)

Lymphatic system

c)

Adrenal system

d)

Transit system

42.

What are the protein molecules that accelerate the rate of specific chemical reactions without being changed themselves?

a)

Hormones

b)

Chime

c)

Probiotics

d)

Enzymes

43.

The stomach wall is protected from the acidity of the gastric juice by:

a)

A viscous layer of mucus

b)

The bacteria Helicobacter pylori

c)

The enzyme pepsin

d)

The hormone gastrin

44.

For a patient who is unable to swallow and has stomach cancer, which feeding method is recommended?

a)

Total parenteral nutrition

b)

Antacid treatment

c)

Tube-feeding

d)

Epiglottal massage

45.

Which of the following anatomical structures is found in the third most distal location in the digestive tract?

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Ileocecal sphincter

c)

Sphincter of jedi

d)

Sphincter of Oddi

46.

The pancreas secretes fluid that contains digestive enzymes and:

a)

Bile

b)

Chime

c)

Bicarbonate ions

d)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

47.

What is the active protein-digesting enzyme secreted in the gastric juice?

a)

Peptic ulcer

b)

Pepsinogen

c)

Pepsin

d)

Parietal cells

48.

Which of the following is NOT one of the main processes that allow nutrients to be absorbed from the GI tract into circulation?

a)

Passive diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Active diffusion

d)

Active transport

49.

Which of the following is an example of probiotic ingestion?

a)

Eating yogurt which contains live bacteria

b)

Taking an antibiotic to clear up an infection

c)

Drinking alcohol with our meals to kill foodborne pathogens

d)

Pasteurization of our food supply

50.

Which of the following meals is likely to stay in the stomach the longest?

a)

Thick squash soup with bread, coffee with soy milk and honey

b)

Cheesburger, small French fries, small soft drink, ice cream

c)

Grilled chicken breast, mashed potato made with milk, green beans, skim milk

d)

Tuna sandwich on whole wheat, pickle, ice tea

51.

What is the composition of sucrose?

a)

One molecule of sucrose, a 6-carbon monosaccharide

b)

Two molecules of fructose

c)

Two molecules of glucose

d)

One molecule of fructose and one molecule of glucose

52.

Which of the following sequences represent a polysaccharide followed by a disaccharide followed by a monosaccharide?

a)

Starch, sucrose, fructose

b)

Glucose, maltose, lactose

c)

Sucrose, fructose, glycogen

d)

Galactose, glycogen, starch

53.

Which of the following is an example of an anabolic process?

a)

Splitting of maltose by brush border enzymes

b)

Gluconeogenesis

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Amino acid absorption

54.

Which best describes the chemical structure of glycogen?

a)

It is comprised of glucose molecules linked to form large and highly branched molecules

b)

It is comprised of glucose and galactose molecules linked to form large linear molecules

c)

It is comprised of amylose and amylopectin chains linked to form large and highly branched molecules

d)

It is comprised of glucose molecules linked to form large linear molecules

55.

Which of the following statements about type 1 diabetes is TRUE?

a)

The disease occurs when cells are no longer sensitive to insulin.

b)

The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin

c)

Obesity is a major risk factor for developing this disease

d)

Type 1 is the most common type of diabetes

56.

Which of the following statements about indigestible carbohydrates is TRUE?

a)

They can be a good source of prebiotics for microflora in the GI tract

b)

They do not interact with other substances in the gut

c)

They contribute more kcalories than simple carbohydrates

d)

They are a poor source of dietary fibre

57.

What is a well-documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake?

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Diverticular disease

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Dental carries

58.

Increasing levels of glucose in the blood results in the release of _________ from the __________

a)

Epinephrine from the adrenal glands

b)

Glucagon from the pancreas

c)

Insulin from the pancreas

d)

Glucagon from the liver

59.

How do the physiological effects of soluble and insoluble fibre differ?

a)

Both soluble and insoluble fibre decrease transit, but insoluble fibre forms viscous solutions in the gut, while soluble fibre does not

b)

Insoluble fibre decreases transit time, while soluble fibre increases transit time because it forms a viscous solution in the gut

c)

Both soluble and insoluble fibre increase transit time, but soluble fibre forms viscous solutions in the gut, while insoluble fibre does not

d)

Soluble fibre decreases transit time, while insoluble fibre increases transit time because it forms viscous solution in the gut

60.

How might intestinal inflammation result in lactose intolerance?

a)

Inflammation reduces the production of brush border enzyme, lactase, preventing the breakdown of lactose into glucose and galactose

b)

Inflammation reduces the effectiveness of the pancreatic enzyme amylase, preventing the breakdown of lactose into glucose and galactose

c)

Inflammation reduces the production of the brush border enzyme lactase, preventing the breakdown of lactose into glucose and fructose

d)

Inflammation reduces the production of the brush border enzyme maltase, preventing the breakdown of lactose into two glucose molecules

61.

How does dietary fibre help reduce blood-cholesterol levels?

a)

By binding cholesterol and bile acids in the GI tract

b)

By blocking reabsorption of bile acids in the GI tract

c)

By inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver

d)

All of the above

62.

Which of the following components is NOT part of an amino acid?

a)

A phosphate group

b)

An amino group

c)

An R group (side chain/functional group)

d)

An alpha-carbon

63.

Which statement best describes the protein intake of the Canadian population?

a)

It is an area of concern because it is less likely that the minimum recommendation of 10% of total energy intake

b)

More than half of Canadians' protein intake is from plant sources

c)

More than half of Canadian's protein intake is from animal sources

d)

It is not an area of concern as almost all Canadians consume more than the minimum amounts recommended

64.

Which of the following groups has the highest protein requirement (amount of protein required per unit of body weight)?

a)

People over 70 years old

b)

Adult men

c)

Adults who exercise

d)

Infants

65.

What is the function of the enzymes trypsin and chymotrypsin?

a)

Reduce the energy needed to transport amino acids out of the intestinal cells

b)

The rearrangement of the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

c)

The breaking of large polypeptides into smaller peptides

d)

The synthesis of non essential AAs

66.

What is the amino acid pool?

a)

Amino acids that are soluble in bodily fluids

b)

Amino acids used by the body for energy

c)

Amino acids that the body cannot synthesize and must be supplied by the diet

d)

Amino acids present in body tissues and fluids that are available for protein synthesis

67.

Which statement describes a situation with negative nitrogen balance?

a)

An individual is growing

b)

An individual is wasting as a result of protein-energy malnutrition

c)

Protein intake exceeds the body's protein requirements

d)

Total body nitrogen balance does not change for 30 days

68.

Severe PEM in adults can result in ________ and caused by ___________

a)

Kwashiorkor; alcoholism

b)

Kwashiorkor; AIDS

c)

Marasmus; alcoholism

d)

Diabetes; AIDS

69.

What happens when a protein is heated? When the heat is removed, it can/cannot return to its original shape.

a)

Denaturation; can

b)

Deamination; can

c)

Deamination; cannot

d)

Denaturation; cannot

70.

What is the waste product resulting from the conversion of an amino acid into glucose?

a)

Ketone bodies

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Urea

d)

ATP

71.

Hemoglobin is an example of what structure?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quarternary

72.

The major source of saturated fats in the Canadian diet is from:

a)

Eggs and egg-containing dishes

b)

Cheese

c)

Meat and meat-containing dishes

d)

Desserts with dairy content

73.

Which of the following fatty acids is most unlikely to be found in food?

a)

C21:4

b)

C22:4

c)

C18:3

d)

C16:0

74.

Which of the following is NOT true of trans fats?

a)

When produced by industry, they are also called PHOs

b)

Naturally occurring trans fats are found in dairy products

c)

Evidence shows that it contributes to CVD

d)

Trans fats decrease the shelf life of food

75.

The above fatty acid is (do your own counting):

a)

an essential fatty acid

b)

a MUFA

c)

in a cis configuration

d)

Both an essential fatty acid and a cis configuration

76.

What do the 3 structures above, from A to C, depict?

a)

phospholipid, cholesterol, triglyceride

b)

phospholipid, triglyceride, cholesterol

c)

triglyceride, cholesterol, phospholipid

d)

cholesterol, triglyceride, phospholipid

77.

Which of the above lipids is most soluble in both water and oil?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

All of them

78.

Which of the following is true about cholesterol in food?

a)

Some cholesterol can be derived from plants

b)

A small amount of dietary cholesterol is required because we cannot produce enough for hormonal synthesis

c)

Plant sterols have the same deleterious effects as cholesterol

d)

People who consume no animal-derived foods consume no cholesterol

79.

People who do not eat animal fat cannot make chylomicrons

a)

False

b)

True

c)

Only in some conditions.

80.

Which of the following foods provide EPA and DHA?

a)

Milk

b)

Mackerel

c)

Flaxseed

d)

Walnuts

81.

Which of the following statements is true about EPA and DHA?

a)

We can make enough of both EPA and DHA from ALA (alpha-linolenic acid) in our bodies.

b)

Dietary DHA is correlated with lower HDL levels in the blood

c)

People with obesity can decrease the fat in their livers by supplementing with DHA and EPA.

d)

They are long chain fatty acids with 2 and 3 double bonds.

82.

Where is Bile formed?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Liver

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Kidney

83.

Which of the following methods is the most accurate method for determining body composition?

a)

Bod Pod

b)

Duel energy x-ray absorptiometry

c)

Body Mass Index

d)

Underwater weighing

84.

As people age, which factor can result in an increase in body weight?

a)

A decrease in food intake

b)

An increase in exercise

c)

A decrease in BMR

d)

An increase in BMR

85.

A negative energy balance refers to

a)

An energy intake that is less than energy expenditure

b)

An energy intake that is greater than energy expenditure

c)

Neither of the above

86.

What macronutrient is thought to have the greatest effect of satiation?

a)

Fat

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

87.

A low basal metabolic rate (BMR) would:

a)

Mean that more calories would be needed to gain weight

b)

Mean that fewer calories are needed to gain weight

c)

Not affect the amount of calories needed to gain weight

88.

The distribution of fat in the body can be an indicator of health risk. Which of the following is associated with a higher risk of heart disease, diabetes, and stroke?

a)

A low hip to waist ratio

b)

Subcutaneous fat deposited in the hips

c)

Subcutaneous fat deposited in the thighs

d)

Visceral fat deposited in the torso

89.

Many B vitamins bind to and promote the activity of enzymes that are essential for the metabolism of energy-yielding nutrients. In this role B vitamins act as:

a)

Coenzymes

b)

Provitamins

c)

Hormones

d)

Cytokines

90.

An elevation is homocysteine has been associated with an increased risk of CVD. In clinical studies, which vitamins have been shown to decrease levels of homocysteine in the blood?

a)

Riboflavin, Vitamin E, and folate

b)

Vitamin B6, folate, vitamin B12

c)

Vitamin A, Vitamin E, and Vitamin C

d)

Pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and biotin

91.

Members of Grassy Narrows First Nation in Ontario continue to suffer from long term harm due to sever pollution of the water in which they fish. The pollutant is _________, which accumulates in _________ tissue of fish.

a)

PCBs; fat

b)

Methlymercury; muscle

c)

Methylmercury; fat

d)

Dioxin; muscle

92.

Krista loves seafood but has a toddler and is pregnant. To avoid mercury and POPs, the best of the following fish for her family to buy occasionally would be:

a)

Norwegian organic Atlantic Salmon (farmed)

b)

Nova Scotia Atlantic salmon (farmed)

c)

Swordfish (wild)

d)

Bluefin tuna (wild)

93.

At what life stage is hyperplastic obesity most likely to occur?

a)

Late in life

b)

Middle age

c)

Young adult

d)

Early childhood

94.

Why is folate important for rapidly-dividing cells?

a)

It is required for homocysteine synthesis

b)

It is required for DNA synthesis

c)

It is essential for lipid metabolism

d)

It enhances the transfer of hydroxyl groups between molecules

95.

What is a primary function of thiamine in the body?

a)

Facilitating production of energy from glucose

b)

Regulation of cell differentiation

c)

Increasing uptake of iron by hemoglobin

d)

Clot blood formation

96.

What is the relationship between niacin and protein?

a)

Niacin is required to synthesize several amino acids in the body

b)

Niacin reduces the absorption of protein

c)

Niacin can be synthesized from an amino acid

d)

Niacin is needed to synthesize tryptophan

97.

For which group is the vitamin B12 supplement least beneficial?

a)

Older adults with significantly reduced stomach acid

b)

People who do not consume any animal products

c)

People eating diets high in animal products

d)

Breastfed infants whose mothers are vegans

98.

Which of the following is NOT recognized as a major function of vitamin C in the body?

a)

Facilitating release of energy from glucose

b)

Formation of collagen

c)

Protection against damage from free radicals

d)

Improving the absorption of iron

99.

What is a common adverse reaction of high doses of niacin?

a)

Dermatitis

b)

Flushing of the skin

c)

Hives

d)

Blood thinning

100.

Dermatitis is the hallmark of which vitamic deficiency?

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Folate

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Niacin

101.

Vitamin E would be most plentiful in which three types of foods?

a)

Fruit, dairy, vegetables

b)

Milk, meat, grains

c)

Nuts, oils, seeds

d)

Grains, vegetables, meat

102.

Nina is a vegan who lives in Nunavut. What type of vitamin D supplement should she take?

a)

D2, which is ergocalciferol and comes from plants

b)

D2, which is cholecalciferol and comes from animals

c)

D3, which is ergocalciferol and comes from plants

d)

D3, which is cholecalciferol and comes from animals

103.

Which best describes the action of carotenoids in the body?

a)

They are carcinogens

b)

They are antioxidants

c)

They decrease blood glucose

d)

They decrease cholesterol absorption

104.

Vitamin B12 deficiency, which can be caused by the absence of intrinsic factor, results in what disease?

a)

Beriberi

b)

Scurvy

c)

Pellagra

d)

Pernicious anemia

105.

Which nutrient causes excretion of calcium?

a)

Magnesium

b)

Iron

c)

Zinc

d)

Sodium

106.

Too much fluoride in the body can cause:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Mottled teeth

c)

Microcytic anemia

d)

Hives and dermatitis

107.

The mineral MOST associated with wound healing is:

a)

Calcium

b)

Zinc

c)

Magnesium

d)

Cobalt

108.

What substance in whole grains and cereals can bind with minerals and render them unabsorbable?

a)

Phytate

b)

Cellulose

c)

Amylopectin

d)

Tryptophan

109.

Most fatty acids in food and in the body are bound to what molecule?

a)

Branched chain fatty acids

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Glycerol

d)

Cholesterol

110.

Arrange the following lipid-containing compounds from the smallest to largest: (1) VLDL, (2) LDL, (3) HDL

a)

2,3,1

b)

1,3,2

c)

3,2,1

d)

2,1,3

111.

What is the effect of high levels of HDLs in the blood?

a)

Higher risk of atherosclerosis

b)

Improved immune function

c)

Increased risk of colon cancer

d)

Reduced risk of heart disease

112.

What allows fat and water to mix by breaking large fat globules into smaller ones?

a)

Lecithin

b)

Cis fatty acids

c)

Chymotrypsin

d)

Pepsin

113.

What is the concequence of having your gallbladder removed?

a)

The liver stops producing bile

b)

The gallbladder stops producing bile

c)

Dietary fat is unable to be ingested

d)

The liver delivers small amounts of bile into the small intestine

114.

Which of the following is true about EPA and DHA?

a)

People with obesity can decrease the fat in their livers by supplementing with DHA and EPA

b)

They are long chain fatty acids with 3 and 4 double bonds, respectively

c)

Dietary DHA is correlated with lower HDL levels in the blood

d)

We can make enough of both EPA and DHA from ALA (alpha-linolenic acid).

115.

A netagive energy balance refers to

a)

An energy intake that is less than energy expenditure

b)

An energy intake that is greater than energy expenditure

c)

None of the above options

116.

When discussing diabetes, the beta-cells are cells in which organ?

a)

pancreas

b)

liver

c)

gallbladder

d)

hypothalamus

117.

Which of the following statements about insulin resistance is FALSE?

a)

As a result of insulin resistance, the pancreas must secrete more insulin to maintain normal blood glucose levels.

b)

Insulin resistance is the first step of a sequence if events leading to type 2 diabetes

c)

Induviduals with insulin resistance and a fully functional pancreas have very low blood insulin levels

d)

Insulin resistance refers ti a situation when tissue become less responsive to insulin

118.

For most young adults, rank the major components of energy expenditure from greatest to least

a)

REE, energy consumption, and protein metabolism

b)

REE, resting energy loss and TEF

c)

Age, physical activity and TEF

d)

REE, physical activity and TEF

119.

Bob is 2.0 m tall and weighs 85 kg. His BMI is in which range?

a)

Obese

b)

Overweight

c)

Normal

d)

Undeweight

120.

What causes the inflammation observed in obesity?

a)

Elevated secretion of glucagon

b)

Infiltration of adipose tissue by macraohages

c)

Synthesis of triglycerides in the liver

d)

Acute infection

121.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the insulin-resistant state?

a)

Excessive gluconeogenesis

b)

Elevated levels of blood glucose

c)

Decreased secretion of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)

d)

Elevated blood sugar

122.

Which statement best describes the fat intake of Canadian adults?

a)

Most fat intake comes from fast food snacks

b)

It has risen significantly in the last 25 years

c)

For the average Canadian, it exceeds the AMDR reccomendations

d)

It has declined as a proportion of energy (calories)

123.

Dr. Yoni Freedhoff wants Health Canada to change the recommendation in Canada's Food Guide to half of grain products each day be whole grain, with a recommendation that only whole grains be consumed. What is the basis for the current recommendation?

a)

Guidelines were based on what people already eat

b)

White but not whole wheat flour is fortified with folate

c)

White but not whole wheat flour is fortified with vitamin B12

d)

There is too much fibre in 100% whole grains

124.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

GERD results from occasional reflux of gastric material through the esophageal sphincter

b)

Heartburn results from an occasional reflux of gastric material through the sphincter of Oddi

c)

ERD results from chronic reflux of gastric material through the pyloric sphincter

d)

Heartburn results from an occasional reflux of gastric material through the esophageal sphincter

125.

Pepsin is an enzyme that is produced in the

a)

stomach to break down proteins

b)

Stomach to break down carbs

c)

duodenum to break down carbs

d)

duodenum to break down proteins

126.

What causes the release of the hormone gastrin?

a)

contraction of the gastroesophageal sphincter

b)

the presence of food in the stomach

c)

the presence of the bacteria helocobacter pylori in the stomach

d)

relaxation of the anal sphincter

127.

Which serious condition can affect any portion of the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Ulcerative colitis

b)

IBS

c)

Celiac disease

d)

Crohn's disease

128.

The absorption of what nutrient could be impaired if the gallbladder is not releasing enough bile?

a)

sucrose

b)

fat soluble vitamins

c)

starch

d)

amino acids

129.

Which of the following sequences represents a disaccharide followed by a monosaccharide followed by a polysaccharide?

a)

Sucrose fructose glycogen

b)

glucose maltose lactose

c)

starch sucrose fructose

d)

galactose glycogen starch

130.

Which of the following would not be expected to result in hypoglycemia?

a)

use of too much insulin by someone with diabetes

b)

oversecretion of insulin in response to the ingestion of glucose

c)

oversecretion of insulin in response to the ingestion of starch

d)

pancreatic tumours resulting in reduced secretion of insulin

131.

Which statement regarding positive nitrogen balance is correct?

a)

total body nitrogen balance does not change for 30 days

b)

an individual is wasting as a result of protein energy malnutrition

c)

an individual is growing

d)

higher protein level are consumed when out of training due to injury

132.

Which is a consequence of protein denaturation?

a)

decreased nutritional value of protein

b)

altered 3-D shape of the protein

c)

he peptide bonds are broken

d)

altered sequence of amino acids in protein

133.

What is a fatty acid that has only single bonds between carbon atoms called?

a)

saturated

b)

unsaturated

c)

monounsaturated

d)

polyunsaturated

134.

Which is not a dietary source of cholesterol?

a)

eggs

b)

butter

c)

fish

d)

margarine

135.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

both POPs and Hg accumulate in muscle but not fat

b)

POPs and Hg are in both fat and muscle

c)

POPs and not Hg are lipophilic but only Hg accumulates in muscle

d)

POPs and not Hg accumulate in muscle but only Hg is lipophilic

136.

Since vitamin A and carotenoids are bound to proteins in foods which enzyme is required for absorption?

a)

pepsin

b)

amylase

c)

bile

d)

lipase

137.

What statement about the processing of foods is true ?

a)

As the structure of the foods is broken down sodium is lost from the foods

b)

processing destroys minerals

c)

processing of grains causes the loss of magnesium, selenium and zinc

d)

Potassium is often added during food processing

138.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

More calcitonin is produced in response to low blood calcium

b)

Oxalates increase the absorption of fluoride from water

c)

Phytates in cereal enhance the absorption of iro

d)

The concentration of selenium in gran in Canada varies widely

139.

Which is not a symptoms of zinc deficiency?

a)

hair loss

b)

impaired reproduction

c)

anemia

d)

reduced immune function

140.

What is the primary function of iodine in the body?

a)

regulates metabolic rate as a component of thyroid hormones

b)

antioxidant to reduce the number of free radicals

c)

as a component of hemoglobin

d)

Functions in carbohydrate metabolism

141.

Which statement best distinguishes between the absorption of heme and non-heme iron?

a)

Non-heme iron is absorbed in the ferric form which is more soluble than ferrous form

b)

Both are equally well absorbed

c)

Heme iron is more readily absorbed into the muscosal cell than non-heme iron

d)

Heme iron is absorbed and binds to ferritin in the muscosal cell while non-heme iron is bound to transferrin

142.

Which of the following are required on a natural product label ?

a)

contraindications or adverse reactions if they exist for the product

b)

%daily value

c)

caloric content of the daily dose

d)

medicinal ingredients only and not non-medicinal

143.

What symptoms are common to both dehydration and water intoxication?

a)

dark urine

b)

mental confusion

c)

dry mouth

d)

hyponatremia

144.

As calcium intake increases...

a)

active transport becomes more important.

b)

fractional absorption of calcium declines.

c)

fractional absorption of calcium remains the same.

d)

more vitamin C is required.

145.

___________ is a component of glutathione peroxidase that helps destroy free radicals.

a)

Chromium

b)

Boron

c)

Selenium

d)

Nickel

146.

POPs but not Hg are lipophilic but only Hg accumulates in muscle.

a)

eggs

b)

almonds

c)

steak

d)

lobster

147.

From what are bile, vitamin D, and some hormones such as testosterone and estrogen derived?

a)

cholesterol

b)

trans fatty acids

c)

phospholipids

d)

eicosamoids

148.

What would be an effect be of a decrease in the ability of LDL receptors to bind to LDLs?

a)

an increase of LDL loss in the urine.

b)

increased HDLs levels in the blood.

c)

an increased risk of atherosclerosis.

d)

increased chylomicrons levels in the blood.

149.

Which part of the body stores over half of the body magnesium?

a)

skeleton

b)

kidneys and spleen

c)

liver

d)

muscles

150.

Which statement about processing food is TRUE?

a)

processing destroys minerals.

b)

as the structure of foods is broken down, sodium is lost from processed foods.

c)

the processing of grains causes the loss of magnesium, selenium and zinc.

d)

potassium is often added during food processing.

151.

Heavy metals are minerals that have negative effects on our health. Which of the following is common in water in Nova Scotia and longterm exposure of it increases the risk of cancer?

a)

lead

b)

chromium

c)

cadmium

d)

arsenic

152.

A resting blood pressureof 116/66 would be considered to be...?

a)

pre-hypertensive

b)

too low

c)

very healthy

d)

hypertensive

153.

What is the primary function of iodine in the body?

a)

an antioxidant, to reduce the number of free radicals

b)

as a component of hemoglobin

c)

as a cofactor in the immune system

d)

regulates metabolic rate as a component of thyroid hormones

154.

Shipwrecked, and without fresh water, you drank ocean water. You became dehydrated because...?

a)

your gastrointestinal tract absorbed more water from the body.

b)

your body fluids absorbed more water than usual from the gastrointestinal tract.

c)

you lack of protein intake caused edema.

155.

Canadians have a high intake of ____ and a low intake of ____.

a)

high: sodium, low: phosphorus

b)

high: sodium and chloride, low: potassium

c)

high: iron, low: potassium

d)

high: sodium, low: potassium and chloride

156.

What is the relationship between niacin and protein?

a)

niacin is required to synthesize several essential amino acids in the body.

b)

Niacin reduces the absorption of protein.

c)

niacin is needed to synthesize tryptophan

d)

niacin can be synthesized from amino acid.

157.

For which group is taking vitamin B12 supplements the LEAST beneficial?

a)

people who eat diets high in animal products.

b)

older adults with significantly reduced stomach acid.

c)

people who dont consume any animal products.

d)

breastfed infants whose mothers are vegans.

158.

The AMDR for protein ranges from...

a)

45-65 %

b)

20-35%

c)

5-10%

d)

10-35%

159.

In which situation for a nutrient most likely to be exceeded?

a)

when supplements are taken in excess of recommended doses.

b)

when larger quantities of food are consumed by athletes.

c)

when people are recovering from surgery and need more energy.

d)

when people eat a nutrient-dense diet.

160.

Which of the following options is true?

a)

DRIs are a set of ten recommendations for the proper intake of nutrients.

b)

DRIs include four values developed by the institute of Medicine.

c)

DRIs are established to ensure that your body is getting what it needs for good health

d)

DRIs can help ensure that you get the nutrients you need to fight disease.

161.

Which of the following values is the term used to describe the average daily intakr that is predicted to maintain energy balance in healthy adults?

a)

UL

b)

EER

c)

EAR

d)

RDA

162.

The new Canada Food Guide reccomends how many servings of fruit and vegetables per day?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

It depends on the age, sex, and size of the person.

d)

it does not male any serving reccomendations.

163.

Patrick consumes 4000 kcal/day with half of the kcal from carbohydrates. About how many grams of carbohydrates does he consume per day?

a)

400

b)

500

c)

1000

d)

2000

164.

Which of the following two factors MOST contribute to the development of Type 2 diabetes?

a)

(1) pancreatic beta-cell dysfunction and (2) a lack of responsiveness to insulin in muscle and liver tissue

b)

(1)beta-cell dysfunction in the liver and (2) insulin resistance

c)

(1) insulin resistance and (2) failure of beta-cells in the liver, muscle and adipose tissue

d)

(1) insulin resistance and (2) high blood pressure

165.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

Foods that have a Glycemic index of 70 or less compared to glucose are considered high Glycemic Index foods.

b)

The processing of food has no effect on its Glycemic Index.

c)

The rates of digestion and absorption of low Glycemic Index foods are slower than high Glycemic Index foods.

d)

High fibre and high Glycemic Index foods have thesame physiological properties.

166.

Which of the following is now a soluble fiber?

a)

Pectin

b)

Chitin

c)

Mucilage

d)

Gum Guar

167.

Which of the following best describes nonnutritive sweeteners?

a)

nonnutritive sweetners provide calories but not vitamins.

b)

nonnutritive sweetners are man made and more intensely sweet.

c)

nonnutritive sweetners occur in nature and contain no energy.

d)

nonnutritive sweetners are man made and contain essential nutrients.

168.

Complementary proteins are ?

a)

proteins that lack different essential amino acids.

b)

available at most booths in the supermarket.

c)

complete proteins that have a synergistic effect when consumed together.

d)

usally derived from animal sources.

169.

All of the following EXCEPT one will increase the consumption of phytochemicals. Which one?

a)

fish

b)

legumes

c)

nuts

d)

soybeans

170.

Children in developing countries are most likely to develop deficiency symptoms associated with which one of the following micronutrients?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Calcium

171.

Which of the following is NOT recognized as a major function of vitamin C in the body?

a)

formation of collagen

b)

facilitating release of energy from glucose

c)

protection against damage from free radicals

d)

improving the absoption of iron

172.

Which statement describes thr relationship of bone calcium to blood calcium?

a)

if dietary calcium is low, bone calcium is sacrificed to maintain blood calcium.

b)

if dietary calcium is low, both blood and bone levels will decline.

c)

If dietary calcium is low, blood calcium is supplied by the liver to maintain bone calcium.

d)

Blood levels of calcium are a good indicator of the calcium status of bone.

173.

Which two phytochemicals reduce the risk of macular degeneration?

a)

beta-cartone, lycopene

b)

lutein, zeaxanthin

c)

lycopene, alpha-carotene

d)

alpha-caotene, beta-crytoxanthin

174.

Why is folate important for rapidly-dividing cells?

a)

It is required for homocysteine synthesis

b)

Is enhances the transfer of hydroxyl groups between molecules

c)

It is required for DNA synthesis

d)

It is essential for lipid metabolism

175.

What is the relationship between niacin and protein?

a)

Niacin is required to synthesize several amino acids in the body

b)

Niacin reduces the absorption of protein

c)

Niacin us needed to synthesize trypophan

d)

Niacin can be synthesized from an amino acid

176.

Which of the following is NOT recognized as a major function of vitamin C in the body?

a)

Facilitating release of energy from glucose

b)

As a cofactor in cell division

c)

Formation of collagen

d)

Protecting against damage from free radicals

177.

Which of the following minerals is commonly found in high concentrations in hard water?

a)

Sodium

b)

Iron

c)

Magnesium

d)

Potassium

178.

Which element plays a major role in maintaining fluid balance, electrolyte balance, and cell integrity, and is critical to maintaining the heartbeat?

a)

Potassium

b)

Sodium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Iron

179.

Paula has been hiking fir several hours but forgot her fluids. Which hormone signals the kidney to reabsorb water back into the bloodstream?

a)

Absorption hormone (AH)

b)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

180.

Which of the following is the healthiest blood pressure?

a)

115/66 mm of mercury or less

b)

120/85 mm of mercury or less

c)

125/70 mm of mercury or less

d)

140/90 mm of mercury or less

181.

Which amino acids is the branched chain amino acid (BCAA) most correlated with greater muscle protein synthesis, especially in men who perform heavy resistance training?

a)

Valine

b)

Leucine

c)

Arginine

d)

Methionine

182.

In Dr.Mike Evans TED Talk, he depicted one treatment as superior to any others in terms of improving a myriad of health conditions. This treatment was:

a)

150 min or more per wk of moderate to vigorous exercise

b)

150+ min per wk of exercise + a Mediterranean diet

c)

A vegan-type diet

d)

A ketogenic diet

183.

Which food has a high nutrient density and is LOW in oxalate and phytate?

a)

Spinach

b)

Swiss Chard

c)

Beans

d)

Kale

184.

People with hypertension who can lower their blood pressure by reducing their intake of sodium are called:

a)

Inverse hypertensive

b)

Potassium sensitive

c)

Salt sensitive

d)

Essential hypertensive

185.

As calcium intake increases...

a)

Fractional absorption of calcium declines

b)

Active transport becomes more important

c)

Fractional absorption of calcium remains the same

d)

more iron is absorbed

186.

Which type of exercise can be predicted to have the most positive effect on the bones that are used for it?

a)

Swimming

b)

Practicing blocking in volleyball

c)

Light weight training

d)

One hour slow run

187.

Hemochromatosis is a fairly common hereditary disease caused by excessive retention of..?

a)

Zinc

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Iodine

188.

_____ is a component of glutathione peroxidase that helps to destroy free radicals?

a)

Iron

b)

Zinc

c)

Selenium

d)

Magnesium

189.

Some vitamins are lost in grain processing. Which nutrient typically NOT added during "enrichment" of flour?

a)

Vitamin B6

b)

Thiamin

c)

Niacin

d)

Riboflavin

190.

Niacin supplements

a)

are used in Canada since niacin deficiency is a public health concern

b)

decrease LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol

c)

provide an essential energy boost

d)

are associated with an increase of heart attacks

191.

Protein quality is best described as...?

a)

the freshness of meat determined by the biological activity of the actin and myosin filaments

b)

 the ratio of nonessential to essential amino acids present in a food

c)

how efficiently a protein in the diet can be used to make body proteins

d)

a measurement determined by comparing the amount of  nonessential amino acids in a food with that in a reference protein

192.

Which one of the following is secreted by the pancreas?

a)

bicarbonate

b)

bile

c)

Intrinsic Factor (IF)

d)

cholecystokinin (CCK)

193.

A key feature of the original DASH diet was:

a)

a very low salt content

b)

that it tested a collection of foods rather than one nutrient

c)

that it was a vegetarian diet

d)

a very low saturated fat content

194.

Which food would yield more iron absorption?

a)

A half grapefruit

b)

A spinach salad

c)

Bran cereal with soy milk

d)

Peanut-butter on brown bread with glass of milk

195.

Glucagon is produced by the ________ in the _________ and functions to ________ blood glucose level.

a)

alpha cells; pancreas; raise

b)

alpha cells; pancreas; lower

c)

beta cells; pancreas; raise

d)

beta cells; liver; lower

196.

What is NOT a major function of magnesium in the body?

a)

maintenance of bones

b)

cofactor for several hundred enzymes

c)

division of growing cells

d)

blood clotting

197.

Which of the following can result from severe, prolonged deficiency of protein and energy?

a)

maramus

b)

kidney stones

c)

phenylketonuria (PKU)

d)

all of the above

198.

Which of the following micronutrients is associated with a decrease in homocysteine?

a)

folate

b)

magnesium

c)

chromium

d)

Vitamin A

199.

Many B vitamins are essential for the metabolism of energy-yielding nutrients. They perform this function by binding to and promoting the activity of enzymes. In this role B vitamins act as:

a)

coenzymes

b)

hormones

c)

transport proteins

d)

provitamins

200.

Simon would like to create a sports drink that does not have the pH issue that the current sports drinks have. Compared to Gatorade, his sports drinks will have a pH that is:

a)

a bit higher

b)

considerably higher

c)

considerably lower

d)

a bit lower

201.

What is an amino acid pool

a)

amino acids presny in body tissues and fluids that are available for protein synthesis

b)

amino acids are soluble in bodily fluids

c)

amino acids that the body cannot synthesize and must be supplied by the diet

d)

amino acids used by the body for energy

202.

_____ is a vegetable low in oxalate

a)

spinach

b)

swiss chard

c)

kale

d)

beets

203.

Which vitamin is required for energy metabolism and if not present, the disease beriberi results?

a)

pantothenic acid

b)

thiamin

c)

niacin

d)

riboflavin

204.

What nutrient causes excretion of calcium?

a)

sodium

b)

iron

c)

potassium

d)

magnesium

205.

The MIND diet is constructed from teo diets that provide health benefits, those TWO foundation diets were:

a)

DASH and Mediterranean

b)

Mediterranean and Fodmap

c)

Mediterranean and Portfolio

d)

DASH and Portfolio