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Worksheets

MDCAT(Sunday grand test 1)

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organisms that use energy from the sun to make their own food are called

a)

A. carnivores

b)

B. consumers

c)

C. omnivores

d)

D. producers

2.

In which organelle does photosynthesis occur?

a)

A. Mitochondria

b)

B. Chloroplast

c)

C. Lysosome

d)

D. Nucleus

3.

Why is the presence of chlorophyll in plants important?

a)

A. It assembles the sugar

b)

B. It creates ATP to power the process

c)

C. It captures water to be used in the process

d)

D. It absorbs the solar energy needed to create the sugar

4.

After photosynthesis is finished inside of a plant, six molecules of oxygen have been produced, as well as a single molecule of C6H12O6, otherwise known as

a)

A. carbon dioxide

b)

B. water

c)

C. oxygen

d)

D. glucose

5.

During photosynthesis, different gases move in and out of plant cells. Which phrase best represents the net flow of gases involved in photosynthesis?

a)

A. Carbon dioxide moves in; oxygen moves out

b)

B. Oxygen moves in; carbon dioxide moves out

c)

C. Carbon dioxide moves in; nitrogen moves out

d)

D. Oxygen moves in; nitrogen moves out

6.

The figure to the right shows the current composition of the Earth’s atmosphere. What would be different about the composition before the evolution of photosynthetic organisms?

a)

A. The trace element section would have been smaller

b)

B. The nitrogen component of this graph would be larger

c)

C. The oxygen component of this graph would have been smaller

d)

D. The oxygen component of this graph would have been larger

7.

What will MOST LIKELY happen if a new producer is introduced into a food web?

a)

A. The omnivores will decrease

b)

B. The herbivores will increase

c)

C. The carnivores will decrease

d)

D. The decomposers will decrease

8.

Overall, photosynthesis is a reaction that

a)

A. absorbs energy, and is exothermic

b)

B. absorbs energy, and is endothermic

c)

C. releases energy, and is exothermic

d)

D. releases energy, and is endothermic

9.

In the food web to the right, what would be a direct impact of an increase in the amount of toads in the ecosystem?

a)

A. an increase in the population of squirrels

b)

B. a decrease in the population of owls

c)

C. an increase in the population of snakes

d)

D. a decrease in the rabbit population

10.

In food chains, the flow of energy is ALWAYS _________.

a)

A. one-way

b)

B. reversible

c)

C. two-way

d)

D. uncontrolled

11.

The following organisms make up a food chain: algae → fish → bear. If you were to place the bear into the trophic pyramid to the right, the bear would go on level _____ and have ________ amount of energy available to it.

a)

A. A; the least

b)

B. C; the least

c)

C. A; the greatest

d)

D. B; an intermediate

12.
The diagram shows an example of what kind of organism
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Decomposer
d)
Herbivore
13.
The diagram shows an example of what kind of organism
a)
Autotroph
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Decomposer
d)
Herbivore
14.
The animals in this image are examples of _________________________ .
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Herbivores
c)
Producers
d)
Heterotrophs
15.
This giraffe is an example of a _______________________________.
a)
Carnivore
b)
Omnivore
c)
Autotroph
d)
Herbivore
16.
As a predator this lion is also an example of a ______________.
a)
Producer
b)
Autotroph
c)
Carnivore
d)
Herbivore
17.
These mushroom are heterotrophs and must therefore get nutrients from other organic matter. Mushroom aslo act as ____________________ in many food webs.
a)
Herbivore
b)
Decomposer
c)
Carnivore
d)
Omnivore
18.
In this image, the grass is the ______________.
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Secondary Consumer
c)
Heterotroph
d)
Producer
19.
The primary consumer in this food chain is the ____________.
a)
Frog
b)
Eagle
c)
Grasshopper
d)
Python
20.

Which of the animals in this food web is a secondary consumer? (Click all that apply)

a)

Hawk

b)

Lizard

c)

Mouse

d)

Snake

21.

Which animal is a tertiary consumer?

a)

Goat

b)

Wild Cat

c)

Lion

d)

Owl

22.
Which organism is NOT a heterotroph?
a)
Grass
b)
Python
c)
Frog
d)
Eagle
23.
Given that the bear pictured eat many types of food including meats and plants, he is an example of an ______________________.
a)
Autotroph
b)
Omnivore
c)
Herbivore
d)
Producer
24.
The largest part of an ecosystem is always the ________________.
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Primary Producers
c)
Quarternary Consumers
d)
Secondary Consumers
25.
The smallest part of the ecosystem is always the ____________.
a)
Primary Producers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Primary Consumers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
26.
On average how much energy is passed to a higher level in the food web?
a)
90%
b)
25%
c)
10%
d)
50%
27.
Which of these organisms are in a trophic level that receives a larger percentage of the energy captured by the producers than the percentage received at the bats’ trophic level?
a)
Mountain Lion
b)
Snake
c)
Hawk
d)
Ground Squirrel
28.

This graphic diagrams a _______________________.

a)

Food Web

b)

Food Chain

c)

Food Pyramid

d)

Food Buffet

29.
An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?
a)
Auklets
b)
Foxes
c)
Salmon
d)
Zooplankton
30.
A parrot eats fruit, seeds, and insects.  Which of the following terms best describes a parrot?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Producer
d)
Omnivore
31.
A field mouse eats grass and grass seeds.  Which of the following terms best describes a field mouse?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Producer
c)
Carnivore
d)
Decomposer
32.
In the arctic, polar bears hunt seals.  which of the following terms best describes the polar bear?
a)
Producer
b)
Predator
c)
Prey
d)
Host
33.
An environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?
a)
Auklets
b)
Foxes
c)
Salmon
d)
Zooplankton
34.
A parrot eats fruit, seeds, and insects.  Which of the following terms best describes a parrot?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Producer
d)
Omnivore
35.
A field mouse eats grass and grass seeds.  Which of the following terms best describes a field mouse?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Producer
c)
Carnivore
d)
Decomposer
36.
An alligator eats fish, turtles, ducks, and small mammals on the bank.  Which of the following terms best describes the alligator?
a)
Herbivore
b)
Carnivore
c)
Omnivore
d)
Producer
37.
In the arctic, polar bears hunt seals.  which of the following terms best describes the polar bear?
a)
Producer
b)
Predator
c)
Prey
d)
Host
38.
The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
39.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
40.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
41.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

42.

What are the products of cellular respiration? Choose 3.

a)

water

b)

ATP

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight

e)

Carbon Dioxide

43.

The process in which a cell harvests energy from glucose and makes it into usable energy for the body is called-----

a)

cellular fermentation

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

aerobic fermentaion

d)

cellular respiration

44.

Which organ in a cell produces a large amount of ATP through cellular respiration?

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondrion

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

45.

Fermentation does not require oxygen. Which type of human cell is the most common site for fermentation?

a)

skin cells

b)

muscle cells

c)

nerve cells

d)

bone cells

46.

During cellular respiration, energy is released from food. What else does the cell need for this process to take place.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

sunlight

d)

nitrogen

47.

What is commonly known as the "powerhouse of the cell"?

a)
Nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Ribosome
d)
Mitochondria
48.

Which of these is NOT one of the five major types of biomes?

a)
Desert
b)
Tundra
c)
Ocean
d)
Forest
49.

What is the process that plants use to get energy from sunlight?

a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
Digestion
d)
Fermentation
50.

  1. What is the human body's largest organ?

a)
Heart
b)
Lungs
c)
Skin
d)
Brain
51.

  1. What is the name of the biggest part of the human brain?

a)
Cerebellum
b)
Medulla
c)
Cerebrum
d)
Pons
52.

A structure composed of one or more types of tissues is a(n)

a)
Cell
b)
Organ
c)
Protein
d)
DNA
53.

All the living things in a given area, together with the nonliving environment, make up a(n)

a)
Ecosystem
b)
Biosphere
c)
Community
d)
Population
54.

Which scientist contributed to the discovery of evolutionary biology?

a)

William Harvey

b)

Andrea Vesalius

c)

Rudolph Virchow

d)

Charles Darwin

55.

In order to be useful, a scientific hypothesis must be

a)
Provable
b)
Interesting
c)
Complex
d)
Unusual
56.

An example of a scientific law is the law of

a)
Gravity
b)
Evolution
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Genetics
57.

An ecosystem consists of:

a)
Only living organisms
b)
Only non-living things
c)
Only plants
d)
Both living organisms and their physical environment
58.

The maximum fixation of solar energy is done by:

a)
Animals
b)
Humans
c)
Plants
d)
Bacteria
59.

Animal protein is called first-class protein because it is:

a)
Derived from animals
b)
Rich in essential amino acids
c)
More expensive
d)
More tasty
60.

Zoology is the study of?

a)
Plants
b)
Rocks
c)
Stars
d)
Animals
61.

Biology is the study of?

a)
Mathematics
b)
Physics
c)
Chemistry
d)
Life and living organisms
62.

Which scientist contributed to the discovery of evolutionary biology?

a)

William Harvey

b)

Andrea Vesalius

c)

Rudolph Virchow

d)

Charles Darwin

63.

  1. What is the name of the biggest part of the human brain?

a)
Cerebellum
b)
Medulla
c)
Cerebrum
d)
Pons
64.

  1. What is the human body's largest organ?

a)
Heart
b)
Lungs
c)
Skin
d)
Brain
65.

Animal protein is called first-class protein because it is:

a)
Derived from animals
b)
Rich in essential amino acids
c)
More expensive
d)
More tasty
66.

The maximum fixation of solar energy is done by:

a)
Animals
b)
Humans
c)
Plants
d)
Bacteria
67.

What is commonly known as the "powerhouse of the cell"?

a)
Nucleus
b)
Cytoplasm
c)
Ribosome
d)
Mitochondria
68.

Which of these is NOT one of the five major types of biomes?

a)
Desert
b)
Tundra
c)
Ocean
d)
Forest
69.

A human ear can detect sound having intensity as low as ________ which is also called threshold of hearing.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

70.

The unit used for sound intensity level is _________.

a)

A. W/m*2

b)

B. W

c)

C. W/m

d)

D. decibel

71.
a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

72.
a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

73.

5. If sound source approaches towards stationary listener, apparent frequency of sound

a)

A. Increases

b)

B. Decreases

c)

C. Remain same

d)

D. Becomes negative

74.

6. If source of sound approaches towards stationary observer, frequency change is due to

a)

A. Decrease in speed of sound wave

b)

B. Increase in speed of sound wave

c)

C. Decrease in wavelength

d)

D. Increase in wavelength

75.

Suppose that a sound source is emitting waves uniformly in all directions. If you move to a point twice as far away from the source, the frequency of the sound will be

a)

A. Unchanged.

b)

B. Half as great.

c)

C. One-fourth as great.

d)

D. Twice as great.

76.

8. As you are moving very quickly toward a speaker emitting a pure tone, which characteristics of the sound get larger?

a)

B. Amplitude

b)

A. Frequency

c)

C. Wavelength

d)

D. Period

77.

9. A sound of 40 decibels is

a)

A. twice as intense as a sound of 20 decibels.

b)

B. four times as intense as a sound of 20 decibels.

c)

C. 10 times as intense as a sound of 20 decibels.

d)

D. 100 times as intense as a sound of 20 decibels.

78.

10. If fundamental frequency f1 = 131 Hz , then frequency of third harmonic be_________.

a)

A. f1 = 131 Hz

b)

B. f3 = 393 Hz

c)

C. f2 = 262 Hz

d)

D. f4 = 524 Hz

79.

11.If a source emitting at 400 Hz is moving away from a fixed observer at 30 m/s, the observer hears a frequency of ________. The speed of sound in the air is 343 m/s.

a)

A. 1200 Hz

b)

B. 365 Hz

c)

C. 368 Hz

d)

D. 360 Hz

80.

12.Ordinary conversation corresponds to a sound level of about 65 dB. Find the sound level for four people talking at once

a)

A. 68 dB

b)

B. 71 dB

c)

C. 81 dB

d)

D. 69 dB

81.

13.A factory siren indicating the end of a shift has a frequency of 80 Hz where the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. What frequency is perceived by the occupant of a car that is traveling at 30 m/s towards the factory?

a)

A. 95 Hz

b)

B. 78 Hz

c)

C. 73 Hz

d)

D. 88 Hz

82.

14.If a source emits a sound of frequency 400 Hz when at rest, then when the source moves toward a fixed observer with a speed of 35.0 m/s, the observer hears a frequency (at 20°C) of

a)

A. 300 Hz

b)

B. 320 Hz

c)

C. 438 Hz

d)

D. 368 Hz

83.

15.A 2.0-g string that is 73.5 cm long is under tension. The string vibrates at 700 Hz tone in its third harmonic, and this vibration causes a sound wave. What is the wavelength of the sound? The speed of sound in air is 344 m/s.

a)

A. 0.49 m

b)

B. 0.55 m

c)

C. 0.61 m

d)

D. 0.67 m

84.

16.At a distance of 15.0 m from a sound source, the intensity level is 60.0 dB. What is the intensity level (in decibels) at a point 2.00 m from the source if the source radiates equally in all directions?

a)

A. 55.7 dB

b)

B. 57.5 dB

c)

C. 75.5 dB

d)

D. 77.5 dB

85.

17.Estimate the number of octaves in the human audible range, 20Hz to 20 kHz.

a)

10

b)

20

c)

5

d)

2

86.

18.What is the ratio of the intensities of two sounds with intensity levels of 70 dB and 40 dB?

a)

A. 10:1

b)

. 100:1

c)

. 1000:1

d)

10000:1

87.
a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

88.

20.The predominant frequency of a certain fire truck’s siren is 1650 Hz when at rest. What frequency do you detect if you move with a speed of 30.0 m/s away from it? The speed of sound in the air is 343 m/s.

a)

A. 1300 Hz

b)

B. 1808 Hz

c)

C. 1438 Hz

d)

D. 1517 Hz

89.

.Intensity is defined as the energy transported by a wave per unit time across a unit area perpendicular to the energy flow

a)

T

b)

F

90.

.2. The expression for frequency of standing waves in string is 𝐟𝐧 = 𝐧𝐟𝟏.

a)

T

b)

F

91.

.3. An increase of intensity level of 3.0dB means, sound is thrice intense.

a)

T

b)

F

92.

.4. The intensity I of a wave is proportional to the wave amplitude A.

a)

T

b)

F

93.

5. The loudness of sound is related to physically measurable quantity, the pitch of the sound..

a)

T

b)

F

94.

.6. Power delivered per unit area is called intensity of wave.

a)

T

b)

F

95.

8. The intensity level in decibels of a sound with intensity10*−3 W/m2 is 90 dB

a)

T

b)

F

96.

7. The Doppler’s effect is only true for sound but not for light waves.

a)

T

b)

F

97.

.9. The intensity I of a wave is proportional to the wave distance r.

a)

T

b)

F

98.

10.The sound level is measured in watt per square meter..

a)

T

b)

F

99.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 1 )

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

100.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 2 )

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

101.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 3 )

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

102.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 4 )

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

103.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 5 )

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

104.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 6 )

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

105.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 7 )

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

106.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 8 )

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

107.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 9 )

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

108.

choose the letter that refers to the answer of the number.

Number ( 10 )

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

109.
The SI unit for measuring volume is the __?__.
a)
meter (m)
b)
liter (L)
c)
cubic meter (m3)
d)
gram (g)
110.
The SI unit for measuring mass is the
 __?__.
a)
meter (m)
b)
liter (L)
c)
cubic meter (m3)
d)
kilogram (kg)
111.
What SI unit is used to measure time?
a)
seconds
b)
amperes
c)
Kelvin
d)
mole
112.

SI stands for ___.

a)

Sports Illustrated

b)

Scientific Notation

c)

International System (of measurements)

d)

Instructional System (of measurements)

113.
What prefix is represented by the following symbol:  h
a)
hecto
b)
kilo
c)
deci
d)
deka
114.

The SI unit for mass is _________.

a)

Pounds

b)

Inches

c)

Kilograms

d)

Ounces

115.

Newtons could be used to measure __________ and __________.

a)

mass, speed

b)

momentum, work

c)

force, weight

d)

direction, power

116.

SI unit for weight

a)

Pound

b)

Liter

c)

Newton

d)

Second

117.

What is the SI unit for length

a)

M

b)

m

c)

mm

d)

cm

118.

what is the SI unit for time

a)

w

b)

h

c)

m

d)

s

119.
What does the prefix milli- mean?
a)
1/100
b)
100
c)
1,000
d)
1/1,000
120.
The International System of Unites
a)
is a device used only to measure volume
b)
is used only for measuring length
c)
is based on units of 10
d)
is based on units of 12
121.
The algebraic sum of current at junction in any electric circuit is equal to
a)
zero
b)
infinity
c)
a positive integer
d)
Option 4
122.
The sum of all energies of all molecules in a body is called as
a)
kinetic energy
b)
potential energy
c)
internal energy
d)
atomic energy
123.
An alkyl group has a general formula of
a)
CnH₂n -₁
b)
CnH₂n
c)
CnH₂n+₂
d)
CnH₂n+₁
124.
The rate of a chemical reaction is affected by all of the following factors except the
a)
presence of light
b)
nature of reactants
c)
nature of products
d)
surface area of reactants
125.
Which of the following compounds would produce effervescence when reacted with sodium hydrogen trioxocarbonate (IV)?
a)
CH₃CH₂COOH
b)
CH₃CH₂COOCH₃
c)
CH₃CH₂CH₂OH
d)
CH₃CH₂CHOHCH₃
126.
Consider the following chemical equation Mg(s) + Cu²⁺(aq) → Mg²⁺(aq) +Cu(s) The species that is reduced is
a)
magnesium atom
b)
copper ions
c)
magnesium ions
d)
copper atom
127.
Which of the following substances would react with ethane to form more than one product?
a)
Argon
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
Steam
128.
Which of the following gases would change colour when bubbled into a phenolphthalein solution?
a)
HCl
b)
NH3
c)
N₂O
d)
H₂S
129.
What is the IUPAC name of HCOOCH₂CH₂CH₃ ?
a)
Butanoic acid
b)
Butanoate
c)
Methyl Propanoate
d)
Propyl methanoate
130.
On heating 100cm³ of a saturated solution to dryness, 2.5g of anhydrous salt was obtained. The solubility of the salt would be
a)
40 g/dm³
b)
25 g/dm³
c)
4.0 g/dm³
d)
2.5 g/dm³
131.
Which of the following compounds is a member of the hydrocarbon series with the general formula CnH₂n-6?
a)
C₃H₈
b)
C₄H₈
c)
C₅H₈
d)
C₇H₈
132.
Consider the following equilibrium reaction: AgCl(s) Ag⁺(aq) + Cl⁻(aq) When 0.1mol/dm³ HCl is added to the system, the equilibrium position would shift to the
a)
right and the concentration of Ag⁺(aq) would decrease.
b)
right and the concentration of Ag⁺(aq)
c)
left and the concentration of Ag⁺(aq) would decrease.
d)
left and the concentration of Ag⁺(aq) would increase.
133.
Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of a redox reaction?
a)
Oxidation number of species change
b)
A precipitate is produced
c)
It involves transfer of electrons
d)
It occurs between oxidizing and reducing agents
134.
Which of the following substances is a basic salt?
a)
Mg(OH)NO₃
b)
Na₂SO₄
c)
ZnCl₂
d)
KAl(SO₄)₂.₁₂H₂O
135.
In the electrolysis of AgNO₃(aq), the current required to deposit 10.8g of the silver in 1hr 15 mins is [Ag=108, 1F=96500C]
a)
1.00A
b)
1.50A
c)
2.00A
d)
2.14A
136.
An aqueous solution of a substance extracted from a plant tasted bitter and has a pH 8. The solution will
a)
turn blue litmus paper red
b)
turn red litmus paper blue
c)
give effervescence with Na₂CO₃
d)
have no effect on methyl orange
137.
How many moles of electrons would be required to produce 1.12 dm³ of hydrogen gas at s.t.p from the following half-cell equation reaction? 2H⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → H₂(g) [molar volume of a gas at s.t.p = 22.4dm³]
a)
0.01
b)
0.10
c)
1.00
d)
0.20
138.
When a sample of a gas is heated at constant pressure, the average kinetic energy of its molecules usually
a)
decreases and the volume of the gas increases
b)
decreases and the volume of the gas decreases
c)
increases and the volume of the gas increases
d)
increases and the volume of the gas decreases
139.
Graphite can be used in making
a)
electrodes
b)
electrical wires
c)
metal plates
d)
roofing sheets
140.
A salt whose aqueous solution does not form white precipitate with ammonium trioxocarbonate (IV) contains
a)
lead
b)
calcium
c)
iron
d)
potassium
141.
When an electrolyte dissolves in water, it would break down into charged particles by
a)
dissociation process
b)
electrolytic process
c)
neutralization process
d)
Option 4
142.
The names of Newlands, Mendelev and Meyer are associated with the development of
a)
atomic structure
b)
metallurgy
c)
periodic table
d)
electrochemical series
143.
If an electrochemical cell has a cell emf of -1.26V, the cell reaction would be
a)
spontaneous
b)
non-spontaneous
c)
at equilibrium
d)
slow
144.
The random movement of a speck of a solid in liquid
a)
Brownian motion
b)
suspension
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
145.
The behaviour of real gases deviates from that of ideal gases mostly at
a)
high pressures and low temperature
b)
high pressures and high temperatures
c)
low pressures and high temperatures
d)
low pressures and low temperature
146.
Which of the following gas samples contains 3.0 x 10²³ molecules?
a)
71.0g of Cl₂
b)
2.0g of H₂
c)
14.0g of N₂
d)
38.0g of F₂
147.
Which of the following statements about Ca(OH)₂ is correct? It is
a)
a strong base
b)
an alkali
c)
soluble in water
d)
slaked to form quicklime
148.
The empirical formula of the compound with molecular formula C₂H₄O₂ is
a)
CH₂O
b)
CHO₂
c)
CHO
d)
C₂H₄O₂
149.
When elements ₁₂Z and ₁₇Y combine they form
a)
a covalent compound ZY₂
b)
an ionic compound YZ₂
c)
an ionic compound ZY₂
d)
a covalent compound YZ₂
150.
Where on the periodic table would an element with an electron configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³ be found?
a)
Group III, period 3
b)
Group III, period 5
c)
Group V, period 5
d)
Group V, period 3
151.
Which of the following salts is insoluble in water?
a)
CaCO₃
b)
CaCl₂
c)
NaCl
d)
Na₂SO₄
152.
How many moles of K⁺ ions are there in 0.12dm³ of 0.015mol/dm³ K₂SO₄(aq)?
a)
1.8 x 10⁻³mol
b)
3.6 x 10⁻³mol
c)
5.4 x 10⁻³mol
d)
7.2 x 10⁻³mol
153.
Which of the following atoms will have the strongest attraction for electrons?
a)
Aluminium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Silicon
d)
Sodium
154.
Which of the following compounds contains both covalent and ionic bonds?
a)
NaCl(s)
b)
HCl(g)
c)
NaNO₃(s)
d)
N₂O₅(g)
155.
The atom that would have three unpaired p-electrons is
a)
¹⁴₇N
b)
¹⁹₉F
c)
¹⁶₈O
d)
¹²₆C
156.
The maximum number of electrons that could be accommodated in a shell having the principal quantum number 4 is
a)
4
b)
8
c)
16
d)
32
157.
Sodium chloride would be readily soluble in a
a)
non-polar solvent
b)
polar solvent
c)
saturated solvent
d)
neutral solvent
158.
Consider the following equation: K₂Cr₂O₇ + 14HCl → 2KCl + 2CrCl₃ + 7H₂O + 3Cl₂ The oxidation number of chromium changes from
a)
+6 to +3
b)
+6 to +2
c)
+7 to +2
d)
+2 to +3
159.
Which of the following elements has the least first ionization energy?
a)
Silicon
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Fluorine
d)
Phosphorus
160.
Which of the following statements is not correct about 3d-orbitals?
a)
It can be partially filled
b)
It belongs to the quantum number three
c)
It is in the lower energy level than 4s-orbital
d)
Pairing of electrons in the orbitals may occur
161.
Atomic size of elements increases down a group of the periodic table due to
a)
increase in nuclear charge
b)
increase in the number of shells
c)
decrease in nuclear charge
d)
decrease in number of shells
162.
Electronegativity is a measure of the
a)
ability of an atom to draw electron cloud towards itself in a bond
b)
energy required in removing an electron
c)
energy released when an electron is added to an atom
d)
magnitude of the charge of an electron
163.
The energy sublevel that is filled with electrons in elements with atomic numbers 21 and 29 is
a)
3s
b)
3d
c)
4p
d)
4d
164.
A major concern of chemistry is the
a)
composition of substances and the changes they undergo
b)
advertisement of chemicals and their levels of toxicity
c)
lucrative index of chemical allied industries and their citing
d)
the destructive use of nuclear energy
165.
Which of the following properties is a characteristic of a pure substance?
a)
High boiling point
b)
Colourless solution
c)
Sharp melting point
d)
High density
166.
Graham’s law states that at constant temperature and pressure, the
a)
rate of diffusion of a gas is directly proportional to the square of its vapour density
b)
rate of diffusion of a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its vapour density
c)
rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of it vapour density
d)
mass of a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its vapour density
167.
Fractional crystallization is used to separate different substances
a)
that have the same solubility in the same solvent
b)
that have different solubilities in the same solvent
c)
with different solubilities in different solvents
d)
that have the same solubility in different solvents
168.
Which of the following statements about polythene is correct? It
a)
decays in water
b)
is not biodegradable
c)
is a polymer of saturated monomers
d)
is a product of condensation reaction
169.
The substance that is a natural polymer is
a)
starch
b)
nylon
c)
polystyrene
d)
chlorophyll
170.
Consider the following equation Na₂CO₃.10H₂O(s) → Na₂CO₃(s) + 10H₂O(l) What name is given to this type of reaction?
a)
Decomposition
b)
Deliquescency
c)
Efflorescency
d)
Hygroscopy
171.
Alkanes are hazardous because they are
a)
corrosive
b)
flammable
c)
toxic when inhaled
d)
toxic to the skin
172.
Which of the following factors should be considered when siting a factory in a particular country? I. Government policy II. The number of ethnic groups III. The official language of the country IV. Availability of raw materials
a)
I and II only
b)
II and III only
c)
I and IV only
d)
III and IV only
173.

molecules with double/tripple bond

a)

carbocilic acids

b)

alkynes

c)

unsaturated fats

d)

saturated fats

174.

the name of this compaund C4H10

a)

METHANE

b)

HEXENE

c)

BUTANOIC ACID

d)

BUTANE

175.

The group made up of alcohols and acids

a)

esters

b)

carbocilic acids

c)

ethers

d)

alkynes

176.

the MP and BP increases as the molecular structure increases

a)

hydrocarbons

b)

ethers

c)

ketones

177.

Match the following:

a)

3, 1, 2

b)

2, 1, 3

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

3, 2, 1

178.
Which is the converse of:
"If a figure is a circle with radius r, then its circumference in 2(pi)r."
a)
If a figure has a circumference of 2(pi)r, then its a circle with radius r.
b)
If a figure doesn't have a circumference, then it's a circle with a radius of r.
c)
If a figure isn't a circle with radius r, then its circumference isn't 2(pi)r
d)
If a figure isn't a circle, then it doesn't have a circumference.
179.
Contrapositive of:
If an integer ends with 0, then it's divisible by 2.
a)
If an integer ends with 2 then it's divisible by 0.
b)
If an integer doesn't end in 0, then it's not divisible by 2.
c)
If an integer isn't divisible by 2, then it's doesn't end in 0.
d)
If an integer is divisible by 2, then it ends with 0.
180.

state whether the following statement is true or false.


All polygons have five sides.

a)

True

b)

False

181.

Determine the antecedent and consequent of the statement:
"If the perimeter of a rectangle A is 2(x+y), then the area of rectangle is xy."

a)

Antecedent: The area of rectangle A is xy
Consequent: Perimeter of rectangle A is 2(x+y)

b)

Antecedent: The area of rectangle A is xy
Consequent: Perimeter of rectangle A is 2x+y

c)

Antecedent: Perimeter of rectangle A is 2x+y
Consequent: The area of rectangle A is xy

d)

Antecedent: Perimeter of rectangle A is 2(x+y)
Consequent: The area of rectangle A is xy

182.

"If w>20, then w>30.""If\ w>20,\ then\ w>30."  

Find the contrapositive for the statement and decide if it is a true or false statement.

a)

if w≤20, then w≤30.if\ w\le20,\ then\ w\le30.  True.

b)

if w>30, then w>20.if\ w>30,\ then\ w>20.  False.

c)

if w≥20, then w≥30.if\ w\ge20,\ then\ w\ge30.  True.

d)

if w≤30, then w≤20.if\ w\le30,\ then\ w\le20.  False.

183.
Which sentence is the correct sentence?
a)
The dog barked loudly.
b)
The dog barked loudly,
c)
The dog barked, loudly.
d)
The dog barked, loudly!
184.
Which sentence is the incorrect sentence?
a)

She will goes to the store.

b)

She will go to the store.

c)

She will have gone to the store.

d)

She will be going to the store.

185.
Which sentence contains an error?
a)
They're going to the movies later.
b)
There going to the movies later.
c)
Their going to the movies later.
d)
They going to the movies later.
186.
Which sentence does not contain an error?
a)
I should of gone to the party last night.
b)
I should've gone to the party last night.
c)
I should have gone to the party last night.
d)
I should had gone to the party last night.
187.
Which sentence is written in the most effective manner?
a)
He ran quickly towards the finish line.
b)
He ran quick towards the finish line.
c)
He ran quick to the finish line.
d)
He ran quickly to the finish line.
188.
Which sentence is written in the least effective manner?
a)
The cat was very scared of the loud noise.
b)
The cat was scared a lot of the loud noise.
c)
The cat was scared of the loud noise very much.
d)
The cat was very scared of the noise loud.
189.

Which one is the best revision of the underlined sentence?
We decided to go for a walk however it was raining

a)

We decided to go for a walk; however, it was raining.

b)

No need of any revision

c)

We decided to go for a walk, it was raining.

d)

We decided to go for a walk, however, it was raining.

190.
Which sentence is the correct sentence?
a)
I like swimming, hiking, and to ride a bike.
b)
I like swimming, hiking, and riding a bike.
c)
I like swimming, hiking, and ride a bike.
d)
I like swimming, hike, and ride a bike.
191.
Which sentence is the incorrect sentence?
a)

  • The cinema was sold out, so we watched a movie on TV.

b)

  • The cinema was sold out; we watched a movie on TV.

c)

  • The cinema was sold out, we watched a movie on TV.

d)

  • All are incorrect

192.
Which sentence contains an error?
a)
Although it was raining, but we still went to the park.
b)
Although it was raining, we still went to the park.
c)
Although it was raining, yet we still went to the park.
d)
Although it was raining, still we went to the park.
193.
Which sentence does not contain an error?
a)

I was very angry; because the shopkeeper was telling lie.

b)

I was very angry ,because the shopkeeper was telling lie.

c)

I was very angry because, the shopkeeper was telling lie.

d)

I was very angry because the shopkeeper was telling lie.

194.
Which sentence is written in the most effective manner?
a)

Running late for the train, the umbrella was left behind.

b)

Running late for the train, he left his umbrella.

c)

The umbrella was left behind, running late for the train.

d)

The umbrella was left, running late for the train.

195.
Which sentence is written in the least effective manner?
a)

The team have done well.

b)

The team has done well.

c)

The team is doing well.

d)

The team is going well.

196.

Which one is the best revision of the underlined sentence?
He likes to play soccer and basketball he's not well in either.

a)

He likes to play soccer and basketball, but he's not good in either.

b)

He likes to play soccer and basketball, but he's not good at either.

c)

He likes to play soccer and basketball, but he's not well in either.

d)

He likes to play soccer and basketball, but he's not good on either.

197.
Which sentence is the correct sentence?
a)

We seen a movie last night.

b)

We have see a movie last night.

c)

We saw a movie last night.

d)

We have saw a movie last night.

198.

Which sentence is the correct sentence?

a)

I don't know where is my phone.

b)

I doesn't know where my phone is.

c)

I don't know where my is phone.

d)

I don't know where my phone at.

199.
Which sentence contains an error?
a)
She ate the pizza and she drank soda.
b)
She ate the pizza and drank soda.
c)
She ate the pizza, and drank soda.
d)
She ate the pizza, and she drank soda.
200.
Which sentence does not contain an error?
a)
I always have my breakfast before I leave for work.
b)
I always have my breakfast before leave for work.
c)
I always have breakfast before I leave for work.
d)
I always have my breakfast before leave to work.

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