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PERFORMANCE CHECK AF ACO YIA 2022

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before issuing an Aeronautical Communication Officer, dgca will require the applicant to meet the requirements in the regulation. The regulation concerning to air navigation personnel licensing, rating, training  and proficiency requirements is :

a)

CASR 69

b)

CASR 67

c)

CASR 65

d)

CASR 91

2.

An AFTN station whose primary function is the relay or retransmission of AFTN traffic from (or to) a number of other AFTN stations connected to it, is called :

a)

AFTN origin station

b)

 AFTN station

c)

AFTN destination station

d)

AFTN communication centre

3.

A station in the Aeronautical fixed Service, is called :

a)

Aeronautical fixed telecommunication network

     

b)

Aeronautical station

c)

  Aeronautical fixed station

d)

Aeronautical fixed service

4.

An aeronautical fixed telecommunication network station where messages and/or digital data are accepted for transmission over the AFTN, is called :

a)

AFTN origin station

    

b)

   AFTN communication centre

c)

AFTN addresse station

d)

AFTN station

5.

In the AFS, which of the following messages the highest priority indicator :

a)

Aeronautical information service messages

b)

Meteorological messages

c)

Flight safety messages

d)

Aeronautical administrative messages

 

6.

What is the priority indicator of NOTAM :

a)

FF

b)

DD

c)

GG

d)

SS

7.

What is the priority indicator of SNOWTAM :

a)

KK

b)

DD

c)

GG

d)

SS

8.

In the Aeronautical Fixed Service, movement and control messages are in the categories of messages is :

a)

Flight sfety messages

b)

Flight regularity messaes

   

c)

urgency messages

d)

Service messages

9.

How many categories of messages shall be handled by the AFTN :

a)

21 MESSAGES

b)

8 MESSAGES

c)

10 MESSAGES

d)

5 MESSAGES

10.

The teletypewriter message format shall comprise the following parts :

a)

Starting pulse, heading, address, origin, text, ending

 

b)

Heading, address, origin, text, ending

c)

Address, origin, text, ending

d)

Address, origin, text, ending with the exception of the message separation signal

11.

The heading shall comprise in the following sequence ITA-2 :

a)

Starting pulse, star-of-message signal, transmission identification, spacing signal

b)

   Start-of-message signal, transmission identification, additional services information (if necessary ), spacing signal

c)

  Start-of-message signal, transmission identification, additional services information (if necessary ), diversion indicator

d)

  Starting pulse, start-of-message signal, transmission identification

12.

A combination of the characters ZCZC, is called…

a)

Start-of-message signal

    

b)

Starting pulse

c)

Transmission identification

d)

Tape-feed sequence

13.

The transmission identification shall comprise …

a)

Starting pulse, circuit identification, channel sequence number

b)

Circuit identification, channel sequence number

c)

Starting pulse, circuit identification, channel sequence number, spacing signal

d)

Circuit identification, channel sequence number, spacing signal

14.

The circuit identification shall consist of :

a)

The characters ZCZC, the transmitting terminal letter, the receiving terminal letter

b)

   The transmitting terminal letter, the receiving terminal letter, the channel identification letter

c)

The starting pulse, the receiving terminal letter, the transmitting terminal letter

d)

  The receiving terminal letter, the transmitting terminal letter, the channel identification letter

15.

The second letter of the circuit identification indentified by :

a)

The transmitting of the circuit

b)

The receiving of the circuit

c)

The channel identification letter

d)

The channel sequence number

16.

When the receiving station detects that more channel-sequence number are missing from CKA012 to CKA019, it shall send a complete service message ?

a)

SVC QTA MIS CKA012-019

b)

SCV QTA MIS CKA012-CKA019

c)

SVC QTA MIS CKA012-19

d)

SVC QTA MIS CKA013-020

17.

The four-letter location indicator are listed in

a)

Document 8585

b)

Document 8400

c)

Document 7910

d)

Annex 10 volume II chapter 4 – Aeronautical Fixed Service

18.

Message with priority indicator GG for Batik Kulon Progo, date time group 260435 from Batik Jakarta (Soekarno Hatta Airport) :

a)

GG WIIIPLTK

260435 WIPPPLTK

TEXT

b)

GG WAHIBTKX

260345 WIIIBTKX

TEXT

c)

GG WAHIBTKX

260435 WIIIBTKX

TEXT

d)

GG WIIIBTKX

260435 WAHIBTKX

TEXT

19.

Flight Approval must be completed by aircraft when ?

a)

Domestic flying

b)

Non scheduled flight

c)

Scheduled flight

d)

Daily flight

20.

Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN) system Kulon Progo Unit uses ?

a)

Direct Speech

b)

AMSC

c)

WBF

d)

UHF

21.

In providing flight data distribution service, Kulon Progo use ?

a)

AFTN

b)

Web Based Flight Plan (WBF)

c)

AFTN and WBF

d)

All the answer are false

22.

FF WAHIZPZX WAHHZPZX WAHQZPZX WAHSZPZX WARRZPZX WAAAZQZX WALLZPZX

WALSZPZX WAAAZPZX

042305 WAGHIZPZX

(CHG-BTK6692-WAHI2300-WALS-DOF/220304-13/WAHI2345 – 18/PBN/A1C1D1 DOF/220304 REG/PKLAO SEL/BDKL OPR/BATIK AIR)

What is for BTK6692 :

a)

Aerodrome of departure

b)

Location indicator

c)

Aerodrome destination

d)

Aircraft identification

23.

FF WAHIZPZX WAHHZPZX WAHQZPZX WAHSZPZX WARRZPZX WAAAZQZX WALLZPZX

WALSZPZX WAAAZPZX

042305 WAGHIZPZX

(CHG-BTK6692-WAHI2300-WALS-DOF/220304-13/WAHI2345 – 18/PBN/A1C1D1 DOF/220304 REG/PKLAO SEL/BDKL OPR/BATIK AIR)

what is for WAHI :

a)

Aircraft identification

b)

Aerodrome of departure

c)

Aerodrome of destination

d)

Date of flight

24.

FF WAHIZPZX WAHHZPZX WAHQZPZX WAHSZPZX WARRZPZX WAAAZQZX WALLZPZX

WALSZPZX WAAAZPZX

042305 WAGHIZPZX

(CHG-BTK6692-WAHI2300-WALS-DOF/220304-13/WAHI2345 – 18/PBN/A1C1D1 DOF/220304 REG/PKLAO SEL/BDKL OPR/BATIK AIR)

what is for REG/PKLAO :

a)

Aircraft identification

b)

Registration of aircraft

c)

Equipment of aircraft

d)

Remaks of aircraft

25.

FF WAHIZPZX WAHHZPZX WAHQZPZX WAHSZPZX WARRZPZX WAAAZQZX WALLZPZX

WALSZPZX WAAAZPZX

042305 WAGHIZPZX

(CHG-BTK6692-WAHI2300-WALS-DOF/220304-13/WAHI2345 – 18/PBN/A1C1D1 DOF/220304 REG/PKLAO SEL/BDKL OPR/BATIK AIR)

what is for WALS :

a)

Aircraft identification

b)

Aerodrome of departure

c)

Aerodrome of destination

d)

Date of flight

26.

FF WAHIZPZX WAHHZPZX WAHQZPZX WAHSZPZX WARRZPZX WAAAZQZX WALLZPZX

WALSZPZX WAAAZPZX

042305 WAGHIZPZX

(CHG-BTK6692-WAHI2300-WALS-DOF/220304-13/WAHI2345 – 18/PBN/A1C1D1 DOF/220304 REG/PKLAO SEL/BDKL OPR/BATIK AIR)

what is for 220304 :

a)

Aircraft identification

b)

Aerodrome of departure

c)

Aerodrome of destination

d)

Date of flight

27.

Item 13 in ICAO model Flight plan form is describe ?

a)

Rute

b)

Aircraft Identification

c)

Other Information

d)

Departure aerodrome and Time

28.

How the maximum characters in item 7 (Aircraft Identification) ?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

29.

Before departure, flight crew must be have and create ?

a)

Notam

b)

Flight Plan

c)

Meteorogical Information

d)

Trip Report

30.

Item 16 in ICAO model Flight plan form is describe ?

a)

Rute

b)

Aircraft Identification

c)

Aerodrome Destination

d)

Departure aerodrome and Time

31.

Three letter designator of FIC is ?

a)

ZTZ

b)

ZQZ

c)

ZPZ

d)

YOY

32.

ADS-B capability in item 10B indicated by……, except

a)

D1

b)

V2

c)

U1

d)

B1

33.

Item 20 composition of alerting (ALR) message contain ?

a)

Alerting search and rescue information

b)

Description of emergency

c)

Message type, number, and reference data

d)

Method of determining last known position

34.

. . . . . . . . is the flying of aircraft for the purpose of returning to base,moving from one base of operations to another or moving to or from maintenance facility for repairs, overhaul or other work.

a)

Test flight

b)

Positioning flight

c)

Extra flight

d)

Ferry flight

35.

16.  Priority indicator of transmission priority 2 is. ?

a)

GG & KK

b)

SS

c)

DD & KK

d)

DD & FF

36.

When the receiving station detects that a message has a channel sequence number less than that expected it should advise the previous station using a service message with a text as follows ?

a)

Not send any SVC message

b)

SVC QTA MIS

c)

SVC QTA RPT

d)

SVC LR....EXP…..

37.

Field 10a in FPL is explain about ?

a)

Radio comm, navigation and approach aid equipment

b)

All answer are correct

c)

Capabilities

d)

Surveillance equipment

38.

Letter “S” indicated Standard equipment in item 10a shall comprise ?

a)

HF, VHF, ILS, VOR

b)

VHF, VOR, ILS

c)

ADF, ILS, VOR, VHF

d)

VOR, VHF, HF

39.

An AFTN station where messages and/or digital data are accepted for transmission over the AFTN is ?

a)

AFTN Destination Station

b)

AFTN Communication Centre

c)

AFTN Origin Station

d)

AFTN Station

40.

Flight safety messages (priority indicator FF) shall comprise ?

a)

messages concerning the functioning of aeronautical telecommunication services

b)

messages originated by aircraft operating agencies reporting an aircraft arrival or departure

c)

messages exchanged between civil aviation authorities relating to aeronautical services

d)

meteorological messages restricted to SIGMET information, special air-reports, AIRMET messages, volcanicash and tropical cyclone advisory information and amended forecasts

41.

The function of SVC TRAF is ?

a)

For requesting traffic status

b)

To provide some measure of assurance that channel is contuinity maintained

c)

All answer are correct

d)

Testing and repairing lines

42.

Item 5 composition of alerting (ALR) message contain ?

a)

Description of emergency

b)

Message type, number, and reference data

c)

Method of determining last known position

d)

Alerting search and rescue information

43.

ADS-B with dedicated 1 090 MHz ADS-B “out” and “in” capability indicated by …… in item 10B

a)

V2

b)

V1

c)

B2

d)

B1

44.

Field type 15 in FPL is ?

a)

Departure aerodrome and time

b)

Route

c)

Flight rules and type of flight

d)

Number and type of aircraft and wake turbulence category

45.

V1 ADSB in item 10b is mean ?

a)

“out” and “in” capability using UAT

b)

“out” and “in” capability using VDL Mode 4

c)

“out” capability using VDL Mode 4

d)

“out” capability using UAT

46.

Aircraft operating on route T3 and f310 must comply…, except

a)

RVSM approved

b)

CPDLC

c)

ADSB

d)

GNSS RNAV 2

47.

If an aircraft have equipment Rnav2, in item 10a must be filled letter ?

a)

R & W

b)

S & W

c)

W & R

d)

G & R

48.

if an aircraft non RVSM capable flight intending to operated in RVSM airspace, in item 18 must be filed ?

a)

RMK/NONRVSM

b)

RMK/NEGRVSM

c)

PBN/NONW

d)

STS/NONRVSM

49.

Which includes Movement messages below ?

a)

Delay messages

b)

Modification messages

c)

Filed Flight plan messages

d)

All answer are correct

50.

Flight category below should have authority letter, except ?

a)

Ferry flight for international route

b)

Pioneer flight

c)

Ferry flight for domestic route

d)

Proving flight