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AP Biology Unit 7 Practice Quiz

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best explains the process of natural selection?

a)

a. individuals with less favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce less offspring, thus modifying traits for subsequent generations

b)

b. individuals with more favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce less offspring, thus modifying traits for subsequent generations

c)

c. individuals with more favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce more offspring, thus passing traits to subsequent generations

d)

d. individuals with less favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and produce more offspring, thus passing traits to subsequent generations

2.

Natural Selection Acts on

a)

phenotype

b)

genotype

c)

gene expression

d)

reproduction

3.

Which of the following best explains convergent evolution?

a)

different selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations in different populations or species

b)

similar selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations in different populations or species

c)

similar selective pressures result in different phenotypic adaptations in a population or species

d)

different selective pressures result in similar phenotypic adaptations in a populations or species

4.

Which of the following describes why bottleneck effect is harmful to genetic diversity?

a)

the reduction in population size could lead to fixation of an allele

b)

the reduction in population size could result in a change in allele frequency

c)

the reduction in population size could cause a change in genotype frequency

d)

the reduction in population size could inhibit reproductive events

5.

Which of the following describes why the founder's effect results in an increase of differences between populations of the same species?

a)

presence of genetic drift

b)

absence of gene flow

c)

addition of harmful alleles

d)

removal of reproductive barriers

6.

Which of the following is a condition that must be met for a population to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

small population size

b)

nonrandom mating

c)

absences of selection

d)

presence of migration

7.

If the recessive allele frequency is 0.4, what is the genotypic frequency of the heterozygous individual?

a)

0.16

b)

0.24

c)

0.36

d)

0.48

8.

6. Which of the following describes a population most susceptible to random environmental impact?

a)

small populations

b)

large populations

9.

Which of the following is NOT a method to date fossils?

a)

DNA Sequencing

b)

age of rocks where a fossil is found

c)

rate of decay of isotopes including carbon-14

d)

geographical data

10.

Which of the following does provides evidence for evolution and common ancestry

a)

Analogous Structure

b)

homologous Structure

11.

Which of the following does NOT indicate common ancestry of all eukaryotes?

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

linear chromosomes

c)

genes that contain introns

d)

presence of chloroplasts

12.

Which of the following describes why single HIV drugs are ineffective over time?

a)

Reverse transcriptase binds to HIV drugs inhibiting drug effectiveness

b)

Mutations in the HIV genome leads to reproductive success

c)

HIV engulfs drugs through phagocytosis and digests them in the lysosome

d)

Drugs decompose prior to inhibit HIV genome from replication

13.

Which of the following best represents the outgroup in a cladogram?

a)

least closely related to the remainder of the organisms in the cladogram

b)

most closely related to the remainder of the organisms in the cladogram

c)

organism found on the farthest branch point from the common ancestor

d)

organism found on the closest branch point to the organism of interest

14.

Which type of data provides the most accurate and reliable evidence to construct phylogenetic trees or cladograms?

a)

morphological

b)

molecular

c)

biogeographical

d)

temporal

15.

Which of the following describes a species?

a)

a. group capable of interbreeding and exchanging genetic information to produce feeble, fertile offspring

b)

b. group capable of interbreeding and exchanging genetic information to produce feeble, sterile offspring

c)

c. group capable of interbreeding and exchanging genetic information to produce viable, fertile offspring

d)

d. group capable of interbreeding and exchanging genetic information to produce viable, sterile offspring

16.

Which of the following contrasts punctuated equilibrium and gradualism?

a)

a. punctuated equilibrium occurs slowly over hundreds of thousands of years while gradualism results in rapid evolution after long period of stasis

b)

b. punctuated equilibrium results from allopatric speciation while gradualism results from sympatric speciation

c)

c. punctuated equilibrium results from sympatric speciation while gradualism results from allopatric speciation

d)

d. punctuated equilibrium results in rapid evolution after long period of stasis while gradualism occurs slowly over hundreds of thousands of years

17.

Which of the following types of reproductive barriers involves inhibiting reproduction due to a different mating season?

a)

behaviroral

b)

temporal

c)

gametic

d)

gametic

18.

Which of the following describes ways that the amount of diversity in an ecosystem can be determined?

a)

a. rate of speciation and rate of extinction

b)

b. rate of reproductive and rate of speciation

c)

c. rate of extinction and rate of immigration

d)

d. rate of reproduction and rate of immigration

19.

Which of the following provides a viable option as to the origin of organic molecules?

a)

biotic synthesis

b)

transported to Earth by meteorite

c)

hydrolysis of inorganic molecules

d)

Earth colliding with other planets

20.

Which of the following was the earliest genetic material?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohyrdates