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LPN Oxygenation

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 5hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

TRUE/FALSE: External respiratory happens at the tissue level.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following are functions of the upper airway?

a)

Conduct air to lower airway

b)

Air conduction to alveoli

c)

Protect lower airway from foreign matter

d)

Warm, filter and humidify inspired air

e)

Mucociliary clearance

3.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which are parts of the pharynx?

a)

Nasopharynx

b)

Oropharynx

c)

Laryngopharynx

d)

Esophopharynx

4.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following are functions of the lower airway?

a)

Air conduction to alveoli

b)

Mucociliary clearance

c)

Pulmonary surfactant production

d)

Warm, filter and humidify inspired air

5.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: The mediastinum is comprised of the...

a)

Trachea

b)

Heart

c)

Carina

d)

Lungs

6.

The pressure in the lungs is...

a)

Low

b)

High

7.

During bronchospasm, we are getting how much airflow?

a)

None, our airway is closing up

b)

The normal amount, the airway is just shaking

c)

Higher airflow, our airway swells and we panic and breath more in

8.

How much mucus do lungs make in a day?

a)

25mls

b)

50mls

c)

75mls

d)

100mls

9.

TRUE/FALSE: Every alveoli has a capillary bed surrounding it.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

What is the definition of atelectasis?

a)

Having collapsed alveoli

b)

Having widened alveoli

c)

Having collapsed trachea

d)

Having collapsed pharynx

11.

How does a pressure gradient work?

a)

Gases move from lower pressure to higher pressure

b)

Gases don't move according to pressure

c)

Gases move from higher pressure to lower pressure

d)

Gases go where they want

12.

If a respiratory membrane is thickened past its normal state, that makes diffusion....

a)

Easier, more cells means more ability to diffuse faster

b)

It has no effect on diffusion

c)

Harder, gases cannot pass through thick tissue as easily

13.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: How does surface area affect diffusion?

a)

Decreasing the surface level decreases diffusion

b)

Increasing the surface level decreases diffusion

c)

Increasing the surface level increases diffusion

d)

Decreasing the surface level increases diffusion

14.

The least amount of perfusion happens in what part of the lungs?

a)

The apex of both lungs

b)

The right lung

c)

The left lung

d)

The base of both lungs

15.

How much percent of oxygen is carried in plasma?

a)

1%

b)

3%

c)

5%

d)

7%

16.

Carbon dioxide has what effect on our acid-base balance?

a)

It makes us more acidic

b)

It makes us more alkaline

c)

It doesn't have an effect

17.

Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that allows CO2 to pick up what kind of molecule?

a)

H2O

b)

O2

c)

CHO

d)

HO2

18.

TRUE/FALSE: The visceral pleural touches the lungs.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

How much pleural fluid do we have per lung?

a)

10ml

b)

15ml

c)

20ml

d)

25ml

20.

TRUE/FALSE: The diaphragm moves down when exhaling.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following are major muscle groups that help us breathe?

a)

Scalene

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Abdominal muscles

d)

Intercostal muscles

e)

Sternocleidomastoid

22.

TRUE/FALSE: External intercostals allow us to inhale by pulling the ribs up.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What does surfactant do?

a)

Increase surface tension

b)

Make things oily

c)

Break down water

d)

Decrease surface tension

24.

What cells produce surfactant?

a)

Type I alveolar cells

b)

Type II alveolar cells

c)

Type III alveolar cells

d)

Typer IV alveolar cells

25.

How much percent of atmospheric air is made up of nitrogen?

a)

1%

b)

21%

c)

87%

d)

78%

26.

How much percent of atmospheric air is made up of oxygen?

a)

12%

b)

21%

c)

87%

d)

78%

27.

At sea level, what is the pressure of atmospheric air?

a)

752 mmHg

b)

760 mmHg

c)

755 mmHg

d)

758 mmHg

28.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: With Boyle's law, which statements are true?

a)

Increase in volume, increase in pressure

b)

Increase in volume, decrease in pressure

c)

Increase in pressure, decrease in volume

d)

Increase in pressure, increase in volume

29.

Which nerve stimulates the diaphragm?

a)

Long thoracic

b)

Thoracodorsal

c)

Phrenic

d)

Diaphragmic

30.

When the phrenic nerve stimulates the diaphragm, what happens?

a)

It relaxes and moves down

b)

It contracts and moves down

c)

It contracts and moves up

d)

It relaxes and moves up

31.

When our external intercostal muscles contract, what is happening to the chest?

a)

An increase in lateral-medial diameter

b)

A decrease in lateral-medial diameter

c)

A decrease in anterior-posterior diameter

d)

An increase in anterior-posterior diameter

32.

TRUE/FALSE: Inhalation is a passive process

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What part of the brain is the respiratory center in?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Pons

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Medulla

34.

For a normal, healthy patient, what is the most common stimulation to breathe?

a)

Increase in hydrogen ions

b)

Low oxygen levels

c)

Respirations aren't stimulated, happen at an interval

d)

Increased concentration in carbon dioxide in the blood

35.

In a patient with chronically raised CO2 levels, what is the stimulant to breathe for them?

a)

Mega high levels of CO2

b)

Increase in hydrogen ions

c)

There is no stimulation, they must breathe manually every time

d)

Low oxygen levels

36.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some conditions that decrease lung compliance

a)

Scar tissue

b)

Edema

c)

Exercise regime

d)

Atelectasis

e)

Any condition that destroys lung tissue

37.

What is the normal respiratory rate for a newborn?

a)

12-20 breaths/min

b)

20-25 breaths/min

c)

30-35 breaths/min

d)

45-50 breaths/min

38.

Why does our respiratory rate go down when we age?

a)

Increase in ability to hold breath

b)

We need less oxygen since we aren't growing

c)

We have more alveoli as we age

d)

Our respiratory rate never changes

39.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which factors affect our breathing?

a)

Temperature

b)

Lifestyle

c)

Environmental Factors

d)

Narcotics

40.

You find a patient with shortness of breath, what is your first action?

a)

Have them cough and deep breath

b)

Raise the head of bed

c)

Lower the head of bed

d)

Do an incentive spirometer with them

41.

What is hypoxemia?

a)

Low levels of oxygen in the brain

b)

Low levels of oxygen in the tissues

c)

Low levels of oxygen in the blood

d)

Low levels of oxygen in the lungs

42.

If a patient in hypoxic and has to turn to anaerobic metabolism to make energy, what is the effect of the pH balance of the body?

a)

It becomes lower

b)

It becomes higher

c)

It doesn't change

43.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some effects of hypoventilation?

a)

Hypercapnia

b)

Increase in energy

c)

Increased pulse

d)

Confusion

44.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some signs of hypoxia?

a)

Flaring of the nares

b)

Slowed pulse

c)

Intercostal retractions

d)

Restlessness

e)

Dyspnea

45.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Select descriptions of normal healthy sputum.

a)

Cream color

b)

Clear

c)

No odor

d)

Thin

e)

Foamy

46.

What kind of chest pain description is associated with pleural chest pain?

a)

Pressure

b)

Stabbing

c)

Burning

d)

Cramping

47.

How do you find crepitus?

a)

Auscultation

b)

Palpation

c)

Percussion

d)

Inspection

48.

Pleural friction rub is what?

a)

The inflamed visceral pleural wall rubbing against the wall of the thoracic cavity

b)

The inflamed parietal pleural wall rubbing against the thoracic cavity

c)

The inflamed pleural walls rubbing against each other

d)

Something is trapped between the pleural walls and is trying to come out

49.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some effects of hyperventilation?

a)

Acidosis

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Lightheadedness

d)

Tetany

e)

Muscle Twitching

50.

TRUE/FALSE: Low activity hobbies like building model trains have no effect on our respiratory system.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

TRUE/FALSE: If your patient is awaiting the results of culture, they cannot be on any antibiotics.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What is a good RBC blood count for men?

a)

3.6-5

b)

4.6-6

c)

5.6-7

d)

6.6-8

53.

What is a good RBC for women?

a)

2-3

b)

3-4

c)

4-5

d)

5-6

54.

What is a good hemoglobin for men?

a)

14-18

b)

16-20

c)

18-22

d)

20-24

55.

What is a good hemoglobin for women?

a)

10-14

b)

12-16

c)

14-18

d)

16-20

56.

What is a good hematocrit for men?

a)

40-54%

b)

36-46%

c)

38-48%

d)

42-56%

57.

What is a good hematocrit for women?

a)

34-44%

b)

36-46%

c)

38-48%

d)

40-50%

58.

What is a good WBC range?

a)

3-7

b)

5-10

c)

7-12

d)

10-15

59.

When doing a throat swab, where do you swab?

a)

Oropharynx and tonsillar regions

b)

Nasopharynx

c)

Laryngopharynx

d)

Anywhere in the mouth

60.

What is a true statement about group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?

a)

If you think you have strep, don't worry about getting tested

b)

Strep loves to move to different organs

c)

Typically found in the nose

d)

You can kill strep by drinking a lot of milk

61.

In a chest X-ray, solids are represented by what color?

a)

Black

b)

White

c)

Blue

d)

Brown

62.

When are chest X-rays taken?

a)

Whenever

b)

Right after a big exhale

c)

Right after a big inhale

d)

In the middle of an inspiration

63.

TRUE/FALSE: It is normal for some blood to be found in sputum post bronchoscopy?

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What is the best position for a patient under going thoracentesis to be in?

a)

Sitting up, leaning forward

b)

Prone

c)

Sims

d)

Dorsal recumbant

65.

When doing an ABG draw, how long should you put pressure on the site where it is drawn from?

a)

1-2 minutes

b)

3-5 minutes

c)

2-3 minutes

d)

Whenever it stops bleeding

66.

When determining ABGs, what measurement tells you something is "_____ acidosis"?

a)

pH > 7.35

b)

pH > 7.45

c)

pH < 7.35

d)

pH < 7.45

67.

When determining ABGs, what measurement tells you something is "_____ alkalosis"?

a)

pH < 7.35

b)

pH > 7.35

c)

pH < 7.45

d)

pH > 7.45

68.

What is the normal range for pCO2?

a)

30-40 mmHg

b)

35-45 mmHg

c)

40-50 mmHg

d)

45-55 mmHg

69.

If you get an ABG result of:

pH < 7.35

pCO2 > 45

What would be the correct interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

70.

If you get an ABG result of:

pH > 7.45

pCO2 < 35

What would be the correct interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

71.

If you get an ABG result of:

pH > 7.45

HCO3 > 26

What would be the correct interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

72.

If you get an ABG result of:

pH < 7.35

HCO3 < 22

What would be the correct interpretation?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Metabolic alkalosis

73.

What is the normal range for bicarb?

a)

20-24 meq/L

b)

22-26 meq/L

c)

24-28 meq/L

d)

26-30 meq/L

74.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What systems are involved in acid-base balance?

a)

Respiratory

b)

Renal

c)

Intestinal

d)

Cranial

75.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: When interpreting ABGs, your pH level comes up normal but CO2 and HCO3 are abnormal, how do you determine if it is respiratory or metabolic?

a)

If the pH is under 7.4, interpret it as acidic

b)

If the pH is under 7.4, interpret it as alkaline

c)

If the pH is over 7.4, interpret it as alkaline

d)

If the pH is over 7.4, interpret it as acidic

76.

Hypoventilation causes what?

a)

Respiratory acidosis

b)

Respiratory alkalosis

77.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some causes of respiratory acidosis?

a)

Stimulant use

b)

Sedative/narcotic use

c)

Respiratory muscular paralysis

d)

Blunt force trauma to the chest wall

e)

Disorders of the lung tissue

78.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Select signs and symptoms of respiratory acidosis.

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Palpations

d)

Flushed skin

e)

Muscle twitching

79.

What electrolyte abnormality can we see with respiratory acidosis?

a)

Increase in K+

b)

Decrease in K+

c)

Increase in Ca++

d)

Decrease in Ca++

80.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Your patient is experiencing respiratory acidosis. What are some appropriate treatments?

a)

Physically stimulate the patient to increase breathing

b)

Pulmonary toilet

c)

Decrease mechanical ventilation

d)

Increase mechanical ventilation

e)

Diuretics

81.

Hyperventilation causes what?

a)

Respiratory Alkalosis

b)

Respiratory Acidosis

82.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some causes of respiratory alkalosis?

a)

Panic attacks

b)

Severe fever

c)

Hypoxia

d)

CNS Depression

83.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some signs/symptoms of respiratory alkalosis?

a)

Increased CNS excitability

b)

Headache

c)

Vertigo

d)

Tinnitus

e)

Increased K+

84.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which electrolyte imbalances can we see with respiratory alkalosis?

a)

Decreased Ca++

b)

Decrease K+

c)

Increase K+

d)

Increased Ca++

85.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some signs/symptoms of metabolic acidosis?

a)

CNS Depression

b)

Flushed skin

c)

Nausea

d)

Slow breathing

e)

Kussmaul's respirations

86.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some causes for metabolic acidosis?

a)

Diabetic acidosis

b)

Ingestion of acid

c)

Gain of HCO3

d)

Loss of HCO3

87.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some electrolyte imbalances of metabolic acidosis?

a)

Increase K+

b)

Increase Cl-

c)

Decrease Cl-

d)

Increase in Ca++

88.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some causes of metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Severe vomiting

b)

Antacid overuse

c)

K+ wasting diruretics

d)

Continued gastric suction

e)

Diarrhea

89.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which are signs and symptoms of metabolic alkalosis?

a)

Diaphoresis

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Shallow breathing

d)

EKG changes

e)

Confusion

90.

TRUE/FALSE: Metabolic alkalosis is very hard to treat and most treatments are just precautionary methods.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

When it comes to activity level for patients, what is recommended?

a)

No activity at all

b)

Stagger activity

c)

Do all activity at once

d)

Limit to only bare bones level

92.

How much water is ideal for a respiratory patient?

a)

1-2 L

b)

2-3 L

c)

0-1 L

d)

3-4 L

93.

If a patient is complaining about pain when coughing, what can we do for them?

a)

Nothing, the coughing will make them feel better after

b)

Splint their chest

c)

Administer whatever pain med you feel like

d)

Administer pain meds that are appropriate

94.

What is the purpose of an antitussive?

a)

To limit or stop a cough

b)

Break down bonds in mucus

c)

Thin secretions

d)

Make them sneeze out secretions

95.

What is the purpose of a mucolytic?

a)

To stop or limit cough

b)

To break up mucus bonds

c)

To thin secretions

d)

To make them sneeze secretions

96.

What is the purpose of an expectorant?

a)

To stop or limit a cough

b)

To break bonds on mucus

c)

To thin secretions

d)

To make them sneeze their secretions

97.

In which of the following patient is it appropriate to use a mist tent?

a)

Kayleigh, a 2 month old infant

b)

Miranda, a 12 year old girl

c)

Benjamin, a 28 year old male

d)

Eveline, a 87 year old female

98.

When it comes to nutrition for a respiratory patient with high CO2 levels, what do we want to limit?

a)

Carbs

b)

Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Water

99.

How often should you do an incentive spirometer on a post op patient?

a)

10 times every hour

b)

5 times every hour

c)

10 times every other hour

d)

Let the patient self direct their use

100.

How often should you encourage use of a Positive Expiratory Pressure (PEP)?

a)

3-4 times a day/10-20 breaths with each use

b)

3-4 times an hour/5-10 breaths with each use

c)

10-20 times a day/3-4 breaths with each use

d)

Whenever the patient feels like it

101.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which are proper things to do during postural drainage?

a)

Have patient cough between position changes

b)

Patient can sit up during position changes

c)

Do on an empty stomach

d)

Leave patient in position for an hour

102.

TRUE/FALSE: You have a hypoxic patient who you do not have physicians orders to place O2 on them. You must get an order before placing O2.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some common respiratory disorders that makes someone at risk for Oxygen Induced Hypventilation?

a)

Chronic Asthma

b)

Emphysema

c)

Chronic Bronchitis

d)

Respiratory Acidosis

104.

What molecule keeps the alveoli open but does not cross the alveoli membrane?

a)

O

b)

N

c)

H

d)

He

105.

Why can atelectasis happen if we give a patient 100% O2?

a)

They just aren't breathing, we need to up the LPM

b)

We don't have N2 to keep the alveoli open

c)

O2 breaks down surfactant

d)

O2 gives water the ability to bond stronger

106.

What does LPM stand for?

a)

Licensed Practical Murse

b)

Liter Per Minute

c)

Lateral Piercing Movement

d)

Liter Per Month

107.

What is a normal tidal volume?

a)

200 ml

b)

300 ml

c)

400 ml

d)

500 ml

108.

TRUE/FALSE: Low flow exceeds a patient's inspiratory flow demand.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following are high flow devices?

a)

Nasal cannula

b)

Simple mask

c)

Non-rebreather

d)

Venturi Mask

e)

Vapotherm

110.

Can we document a low-flow device off FiO2?

a)

No, you cannot always calculate a FiO2 off a low flow device

b)

No, the doctor doesn't like that

c)

Yes, FiO2 or LPM is just your preference?

d)

Yes, we should always

111.

What is the LPM for a nasal cannula?

a)

1-6 LPM

b)

0-6 LPM

c)

1-5 LMP

d)

1-15 LPM

112.

We should add humidification if our patient is receiving this much O2....

a)

Always attach it

b)

2 LPM

c)

3 LPM

d)

4 LPM

113.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Where can we expect skin breakdown on a nasal cannula?

a)

Inside of nose

b)

Throat

c)

Cheeks

d)

Behind ears

114.

What could happen if you don't have a high enough flow rate on a simple mask?

a)

Waste of equipment

b)

Not enough O2

c)

CO2 retention

d)

O2 retention

115.

What is the flow rate for a simple mask?

a)

6-10 LPM

b)

6-15 LPM

c)

1-15 LPM

d)

6-8 LPM

116.

Can a reservoir bag on a non-rebreather deflate?

a)

Yes, it should only inflate when the patient breaths out

b)

No, it is potentially causing CO2 retention if it deflate

c)

Yes, it will only fill up intermittemently

d)

No, that is going to cause your patient to choke

117.

What is the flow rate for a non-rebreather?

a)

10-15 LPM

b)

10-13 LPM

c)

13-15 LPM

d)

0-15 LPM

118.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: How do we determine if we have the correct valve on a venturi mask?

a)

The % and LPM are written on them

b)

The color tells you

c)

You just guess

d)

They all have the same LPM and %

119.

What is the maximum amount of O2 a vapotherm can deliver?

a)

15 LPM

b)

20 LPM

c)

30 LPM

d)

40 LPM

120.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Where can we expect breakdown on a patient wearing a vapotherm?

a)

Behind the ears

b)

Cheek

c)

Nasal

d)

Top lip

121.

TRUE/FALSE: You cannot smoke around oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

Which direction can you place an oropharyngeal airway in?

a)

Right side up

b)

Upside down

c)

Sideways

d)

Whatever way you want

123.

TRUE/FALSE: You can tape a oropharyngeal airway to a patient to prevent dislodging.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

How do you measure the size of an oropharyngeal airway?

a)

Mouth to angle of jaw

b)

Mouth to tragus of ear

c)

Stick your finger in your patient's mouth

d)

Nose to angle of jaw

125.

TRUE/FALSE: You can only put an oropharyngeal airway into an unconscious patient.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

How do you measure a nasopharyngeal airway?

a)

Mouth to tragus and add an inch

b)

Mouth to angle of jaw

c)

Nose to tragus and add an inch

d)

Nose to angle of jaw

127.

What should the diameter of the nasopharyngeal tube be?

a)

Your pinkie

b)

Your patient's pinkie

c)

Your patient's thumb

d)

Your patient's ring finger

128.

How long can you keep an endotracheal tube in?

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

3 weeks

d)

As long as the patient needs it

129.

Why does an endotracheal tube have a time limit on how long it can be in the patient?

a)

The cuff starts to break down

b)

Causes tracheal necrosis

c)

The cuff starts to fuse to the patient

d)

There is not a time limit on an ET tube

130.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: How often should you do change trach dressing?

a)

8-12 hours

b)

12-24 hours

c)

PRN

d)

4-6 hours

131.

What kind of trach allows a patient to speak?

a)

Fenestrated trach

b)

A disposable trach

c)

None of them

d)

All of them

132.

TRUE/FALSE: If a trach comes out, you can put it back in.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

TRUE/FALSE: You can stand anywhere when doing trach care.

a)

True

b)

False

134.

What should the pressure of your suctioning be at when suctioning an airway?

a)

100-120 mmHg

b)

80-120 mmHg

c)

60-80 mmHg

d)

80-200 mmHg

135.

What is the maximum number of passes you can do in one trach care sitting?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

136.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: What are some side effects of suctioning?

a)

Hypoexmia

b)

Alveolar collapse

c)

Vagal stimulation

d)

Muscosal trauma

137.

How long can you suction for in airway suctioning?

a)

5-15 seconds

b)

10-15 seconds

c)

5-10 seconds

d)

1 minute

138.

How tall should your water seal be?

a)

1 inch

b)

2 inch

c)

1 cm

d)

2 cm

139.

What does it mean if you have continuous bubbling in your water seal.

a)

Air leak

b)

Water leak

c)

That's normal

d)

Your patient is dying

140.

If the tube from the chest tube box comes loose, what can you do with the end that is sticking out of the patient?

a)

Clamp it

b)

Place it in sterile water

c)

Cover it with tape

d)

Place a dressing over it

141.

Your patient just ripped their chest tube out, what do you do?

a)

Place dressing and tape down three sides

b)

Stick a finger with sterile gloves on to plug it up

c)

Pour sterile water on top to flush bacteria off

d)

Place dressing and tape down all sides

142.

When monitoring a chest tube, how much drainage would be a reason to call the provider?

a)

100 mls a day

b)

100 mls an hour

c)

10 mls an hour

d)

1000 mls a day

143.

How do you mark the amount of chest tube drainage?

a)

Write directly on the box at end of shift

b)

Write directly on the box whenever you check the chest tube

c)

Put a sticky note on the box at the end of shift

d)

Write it on the patient's whiteboard

144.

On the air leak meter, what is the most severe number?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7