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Biology Review

Total questions: 225

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following organs belongs to the skeletal system?

a)

Brain

b)

Humerus

c)

Lungs

d)

Heart

2.

List the levels of organization from least complex to most complex.

a)

tissue, organism, cell, organ system, organ

b)

organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell

c)

tissue, cell, organ, organ system, organism

d)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

3.

Which scientist was the first to see living cells?

a)

Schwann

b)

Hooke

c)

Virchow

d)

Von Leeuwenhoek

4.

Do scientists consider a virus to be living or non-living?

a)

Living

b)

Non-living

5.

Which pH would be considered a strong base?

a)

2

b)

7

c)

9

d)

13

6.

Which pH would be considered a weak acid?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

6

d)

8

7.

Which pH is considered to be neutral?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

9

d)

11

8.

What is the term used to describe that water is attracted to other materials?

a)

Capillary action

b)

Solute

c)

Mixture

d)

Magnetic

9.

A substance being dissolved is called _____________?

a)

Solution

b)

Solute

c)

Solvent

d)

Capillary action

10.

The attraction between molecules of different substances is called ___________.

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Surface tension

d)

High specific heat

11.

What type of tissue lines the interior and exterior body surfaces?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Connective

d)

Epithelial

12.

What type of tissue can be found in the brain and carries impulses throughout the body?

a)

Muscle

b)

Nervous

c)

Connective

d)

Epithelial

13.

Which scientist performed an experiment with meat and flies in a jar to see if it produced maggots?

a)

Redi

b)

Pasteur

c)

Spallanzani

d)

Needham

14.

Which scientist tried to prove spontaneous generation by heating different broths briefly?

a)

Redi

b)

Needham

c)

Spallanzani

d)

Pasteur

15.

Which characteristic of life is responsible for passing genetic material from parent to offspring?

a)

Evolution

b)

Cells

c)

DNA

d)

Reproduction

16.

Which characteristic of life is responsible for the following situation:

A student walks outside and covers their eyes.

a)

Response to stimulus

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Metabolism

d)

Development

17.

Which type of variable is changed by the scientist?

a)

Control

b)

Independent

c)

Dependent

18.

Which of the following belongs to the Digestive system?

a)

Skin

b)

Esophagus

c)

Lungs

d)

Thyroid

19.

Who discovered that all cells come from pre-existing cells?

a)

Schwann

b)

Hooke

c)

Schleiden

d)

Virchow

20.

Which scientist came up with the term "cells"?

a)

Schwann

b)

Von Leeuwenhoek

c)

Hooke

d)

Schleiden

21.

What type of tissue contracts to allow body movement?

a)

Muscle

b)

Connective

c)

Nervous

d)

Epithelial

22.

Which type of tissue connects, supports, and protects other tissues? Examples include cartilage, bone, blood, ligaments, and tendons.

a)

Epithelial

b)

Nervous

c)

Muscle

d)

Connective

23.

Which scientist performed an experiment with a curved flask and disproved spontaneous generation?

a)

Redi

b)

Needham

c)

Spallanzani

d)

Pasteur

24.

Which characteristic of life explains the body shivering when cold to help maintain the body temperature?

a)

Metabolism

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Reproduction

d)

Growth and Development

25.

Which variable is the one being studied in an experiment?

a)

Independent

b)

Dependent

c)

Control

26.

Which characteristic of life explains how a virus can change over a long period of time?

a)

Development

b)

Metabolism

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Evolution

27.

When a scientist conducts a controlled experiment, what is tested by the experiment?

a)

a single variable

b)

several variables at once

c)

the control group

d)

a previous conclusion

28.

Which characteristic of life describes using chemical reactions to produce energy that helps carry out life functions?

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Metabolism

c)

Response to stimulus

d)

Growth

29.

Who performed an experiment with sealed and unsealed containers of gravy to disprove spontaneous generation?

a)

Pasteur

b)

Redi

c)

Spallanzani

d)

Needham

30.

Which scientist discovered that cells are the basic unit of all living things?

a)

Virchow

b)

Von Leeuwenhoek

c)

Schwann

d)

Hooke

31.

Who discovered that all plants are made of cells?

a)

Virchow

b)

Schwann

c)

Schleiden

d)

Hooke

32.

Which characteristic of life describes the ability to produce offspring?

a)

DNA

b)

Response to stimulus

c)

Cells

d)

Reproduction

33.

Which of the following organs belongs to the Endocrine system?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Stomach

c)

Kidney

d)

Brain

34.

Which reaction puts compounds together and removes water?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Synthesis

c)

Condensation

d)

Decomposition

35.

Another name for the term "macromolecule" is ____________.

a)

Micromolecule

b)

Biomolecule

c)

Big Molecule

d)

Small Molecule

36.

What is the material an enzyme acts on is called?

a)

Active site

b)

Substrate

c)

Product

d)

Substance

37.

Which of the following are classified as Saturated fat?

a)

Meat fat

b)

Liquid at room temperature

c)

Fish oil

d)

Butter

e)

Solid at room temperature

38.

Which is a building block of Carbohydrates?

a)

Starch

b)

Fatty acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Monosaccharide

39.

Which of the following are classified as Unsaturated fats?

a)

Liquid at room temperature

b)

Butter

c)

Vegetable oil

d)

Lard

e)

Solid at room temperature

40.

In DNA, Adenine pairs with ____________.

a)

Guanine

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Uracil

41.

Which is NOT a part of an enzyme reaction?

a)

Substance

b)

Enzyme

c)

Product

d)

Active Site

42.

The ____________ is the part of an enzyme that contacts the substrate.

a)

Product

b)

Active site

c)

Reaction

d)

Catalyst

43.

Which reaction breaks organic compounds and adds water?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Synthesis

c)

Condensation

d)

Decomposition

44.

In DNA, Cytosine pairs with ____________.

a)

Guanine

b)

Uracil

c)

Thymine

d)

Adenine

45.

Genetic material is made of what type of bases?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon

46.

Check all of the following that are describe DNA.

a)

Thymine

b)

Found in the nucleus

c)

Uracil

d)

Double stranded

e)

Single stranded

47.

In RNA, Adenine pairs with _______________.

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

48.

What are the subunits of Nucleic acids?

a)

Sugars

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

49.

In RNA, Cytosine pairs with _____________.

a)

Thymine

b)

Adenine

c)

Uracil

d)

Guanine

50.

What are the subunits of Lipids?

a)

Sugars

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

51.

Enzymes act as biological catalysts. What does a catalyst do?

a)

Stops a reaction

b)

Reduces a reaction

c)

Speeds up a reaction

d)

Pauses a reaction

52.

What are the subunits of Carbohydrates?

a)

Sugars

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

53.

Check all of the following that describe RNA.

a)

Thymine

b)

Single stranded

c)

Uracil

d)

Found outside the nucleus

e)

Double stranded

54.

Which biomolecule is the primary source of energy for a cell?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

55.

Which if the following conditions will denature a protein?

a)

High pH

b)

Water in abundance

c)

High Temperatures

d)

Low pH

e)

Alcohol

56.

What are the subunits of Proteins?

a)

Sugars

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

57.

Which biomolecule stores and transmits genetic material?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

58.

What 3 letter do most enzymes end with?

a)

-ase

b)

-ise

c)

-ose

d)

-ese

59.

Which biomolecule is responsible for enzymes, movement, antibodies, transport, and structure?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

60.

What do all organic compounds have in common?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon

d)

Phosphorus

e)

Hydrogen

61.

What 3 letter do most sugars end with?

a)

-ase

b)

-ise

c)

-ose

d)

-ese

62.

Which of the following elements are found in Lipids?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Phosphorus

63.

Which of the following elements are found in Carbohydrates?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Phosphorus

64.

Which biomolecule is responsible for long term energy storage, membrane structure, and acts as a chemical messenger?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

65.

Which of the following elements are found in Proteins?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Phosphorus

66.

_____________ are connected by peptide bonds.

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Fatty acids

c)

Amino acids

d)

Nucleotides

67.

Which of the following uses information from DNA to produce proteins?

a)

Enzymes

b)

RNA

c)

Catalysts

d)

Amino acids

68.

Which of the following goes with Monosaccharide?

a)

Glucose

b)

Starch

c)

Ribose

d)

Fructose

e)

Sucrose

69.

The following would fall under which category:

Glycogen

Cellulose

Glucose

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

70.

Which of the following elements are found in Nucleic Acids?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Phosphorus

71.

Which of the following is a Polysaccharide?

a)

Fructose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Ribose

d)

Starch

72.

The following would fall under which category:

Amylase

Keratin

Hemoglobin

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

73.

Which of the following is a Disaccharide?

a)

Fructose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Ribose

d)

Starch

74.

Which is a large molecule formed by joining many simple sugars?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Polysaccharide

75.

The following would fall under which category:

Cholesterol

Wax

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

76.

Which molecule is formed by the joining two simple sugars?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Polysaccharide

77.

Carbohydrates and Lipids have which characteristics in common?

a)

Used for energy

b)

Dissolve in water

c)

Have genetic material

d)

Made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

e)

Made of nitrogen and phosphorus

78.

The movement of molecules (not water) from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called?

a)

Facilitated Diffusion

b)

Simple Diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active Transport

79.

This organelle controls what comes in and out of the cell and is found in both plant and animal cells.

a)

Cell wall

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Chromatin

80.

Which organelle is the rigid outer layer of a plant cell?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

81.

Which type of cell transport requires energy and moves from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration?

a)

Passive

b)

Active

82.

What is the gel-like fluid where organelles are found?

a)

Vacuole

b)

Nucleus

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Cytoplasm

83.

Which of the following is TRUE about the phosphate portion of the phospholipid?

a)

Non-polar

b)

Polar

c)

Attracts water

d)

Repels water

84.

What is a fungal cell made of?

a)

Peptidoglycans

b)

Chitin

c)

Cellulose

d)

Starch

85.

Plasmolysis is the shrinking of what type of cell?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Both

86.

Which of the following can be found in the nucleus?

a)

DNA

b)

Phosphates

c)

Sugars

d)

Nitrogen

87.

The tail-like structure found on bacteria, animal cells, and prokaryotic cells is called?

a)

Cilia

b)

Flagella

c)

Tail

d)

Cytoplasm

88.

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have DNA present. Where is DNA found in prokaryotic cells?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In the cytoplasm

c)

In the nucleolus

d)

In the golgi body

89.

The movement of water from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration across a selectively permeable membrane is called?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Simple Diffusion

d)

Active transport

90.

Which of the following is TRUE about the lipid portion of the phospholipid?

a)

Non-polar

b)

Polar

c)

Attracts water

d)

Repels water

91.

Which type of cell transport does NOT require energy and moves from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?

a)

Active

b)

Passive

92.

Hormones are produced by which organelle?

a)

Smooth ER

b)

Golgi Body

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Rough ER

93.

To find the total magnification of a microscope, you should multiply which 2 magnifications?

a)

Eyepiece and Bodytube

b)

Bodytube and Objective lens

c)

Eyepiece and Objective lens

94.

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have DNA present. Where is DNA found in eukaryotic cells?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In the cytoplasm

c)

In the nucleolus

d)

In the golgi body

95.

Which of the following contains genetic material?

a)

DNA

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Chromatin

d)

Ribosomes

96.

Which of the following describes a plant cell?

a)

Centrioles

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Chloroplasts

97.

Which of the following are eukaryotic?

a)

Fungus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Animal

d)

Plant

98.

Which organelle is found inside the cytoplasm and provides support to the cell?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Cell Wall

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Lysosomes

99.

Centrioles are found in what type of cells?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Both

100.

When the solute is equal inside and outside the cell.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

101.

Which process describes when large molecules are released from the cell?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Molecular Transport

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Passive Transport

102.

Which of the following describes simple diffusion?

a)

Uses energy

b)

Does not use energy

c)

High concentration to Low concentration

d)

Low concentration to High concentration

e)

Moves through phospholipids

103.

Which organelle processes proteins and prepares materials to be secreted from the cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi Body

104.

Large molecules use protein channels to go in and out of the cell. What are protein channels made of?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Cholesterol

d)

Fatty acids

105.

When the solute outside the cell is greater than the solute inside the cell.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

106.

Which organelle is responsible for producing ATP and sugars through photosynthesis?

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Chloroplast

107.

Which type of solution would cause a cell to swell and possibly lyse?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

108.

Particles that are allowed to freely cross the cell membrane must be?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

109.

Which of the following describes facilitated diffusion?

a)

Uses energy

b)

Does not use energy

c)

High concentration to Low concentration

d)

Low concentration to High concentration

e)

Uses membrane proteins

110.

When the solute inside the cell is greater than the solute outside the cell.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

111.

Which of the following describe prokaryotic cells?

a)

No true nucleus

b)

True nucleus

c)

No organelles

d)

Has organelles

e)

Bacteria

112.

Which of the following is required to transport ions (Cl-, Na+, K+) across the plasma membrane?

a)

Channel

b)

Transport protein

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Nothing is required

113.

Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane without assistance?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Cl-

d)

Amylase

114.

Which of the following describe eukaryotic cells?

a)

No true nucleus

b)

True nucleus

c)

No organelles

d)

Has organelles

e)

Plant and Animal cells

115.

Which type of solution would cause a cell to shrivel up or shrink?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

116.

Which of the following describes active transport?

a)

Uses energy

b)

Does not use energy

c)

High concentration to Low concentration

d)

Low concentration to High concentration

e)

Uses membrane proteins

117.

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have which of the following?

a)

DNA

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Cell membrane

118.

What does NOT happen during interphase?

a)

Growth

b)

DNA replication

c)

Cell division

d)

Organelle replication

119.

Cytokinesis is a phase of mitosis.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

Cells spend the majority of their lives in ____________________.

a)

Interphase

b)

Synthesis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Gap 0

121.

In what phase of mitosis does DNA condense into visible chromosomes?

a)

Telophase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

122.

Cells of organisms must replicate in order to _______________.

a)

Grow

b)

Replace dying cells

c)

Repair damaged cells

d)

All of the above

123.

Sister chromatids are pulled apart during which phase of Mitosis?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

124.

What are the phases of Mitosis IN ORDER?

a)

Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase

125.

Programmed cell death refers to ________________.

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Karyokinesis

c)

Interkinesis

d)

Meiosis

126.

Chromatin refers to DNA that is ___________________

a)

Old and needs to be dissolved.

b)

Tightly bound into chromosome-like structures.

c)

Completely unwound and ready for replication.

d)

relaxed like a bowl of spaghetti.

127.

DNA is replicated during which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis

c)

Gap 2

d)

Mitosis

128.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
129.

What is the formation of somatic cells called?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Mitosis

d)

Cytokinesis

130.

At which stage during mitosis does the nuclear envelope break up?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

131.

A chromosome that has been duplicated means that...

a)

there will be 1 copy and 1 original.

b)

there will only be 1 original.

132.

The ______________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.

a)

Centriole

b)

Centromere

c)

Chromosome

d)

Chromatid

133.

Egg and sperm are haploid cells. This means each cell has how many chromosomes in humans?

a)

23

b)

32

c)

46

d)

64

134.

What is cytokinesis?

a)

This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.

b)

The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.

c)

The stage where chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell.

d)

The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.

135.
a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

136.

During what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

137.

What is the formation of sex cells called?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Sperm

d)

Oogenesis

138.

When is the cleavage furrow visible during the cell cycle?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

139.

The process of crossing over occurs in which phase of meiosis?

a)

Anaphase 1

b)

Prophase 2

c)

Anaphase 2

d)

Prophase 1

140.

The correct order of phases of mitosis and meiosis could be abbreviated as ________.

a)

MAPT

b)

PMAT

c)

TPAM

d)

PAMT

141.

The union of sperm and egg forms a _____________.

a)

Oocyte

b)

Zygote

c)

Gamete

d)

Spermatogenesis

142.

If a human cell is diploid, this means it has _____ chromosomes.

a)

23

b)

32

c)

46

d)

64

143.

What do you call 2 chromosomes paired together? Hint: 4 chromatids

a)

Synapsis

b)

Tetrad

c)

Chromosome

d)

Couple

144.

What is the difference between unicellular organisms and multicellular organisms?

a)

Unicellular can not excrete waste.

b)

Multicellular can only reproduce via mitosis.

c)

Unicellular can not reproduce.

d)

Multicellular can change forms.

145.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
146.

During telophase in a plant cell, what starts to form to make 2 new cells?

a)

Cleavage furrow

b)

Cell wall

c)

Cell Plate

d)

Spindle fibers

147.

DNA replicates (doubles) during which phase of the cell cycle?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

148.

Which is the process of nuclear division?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Interphase

149.

What is the exchange of genetic material between different organisms to produce offspring?

a)

Genetic recombination

b)

Interkinesis

c)

Reproduction

d)

Mapping

150.

Which type of asexual reproduction happens when a parent cell develops a new individual that can detach or remain attached to the parent?

a)

Binary fission

b)

Budding

c)

Vegetative Propagation

d)

Fragmentation/Regeneration

151.

When cancer forms in the body, something has gone wrong during mitosis. Which best describes what is happening?

a)

The body stops the cell cycle early.

b)

The cells are not responding to internal regulators.

c)

The cell membrane does not split.

d)

The nuclear membrane does not break down.

152.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
153.

Which type of asexual reproduction happens when an organism's body breaks up into several parts and each part develops into a new individual?

a)

Binary fission

b)

Budding

c)

Vegetative propagation

d)

Fragmentation/Regeneration

154.

In mitosis, the two resulting cells are

a)

different from the starting cell and identical to each other.

b)

different from the starting cell and different from each other.

c)

identical to the starting cell and different from each other.

d)

identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.

155.

Name the growth phase of the cell cycle for both Mitosis and Meiosis.

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Interphase

d)

Anaphase

156.

Stem cells are

a)

undifferentiated or unspecialized cells in the body.

b)

differentiated or specialized cells in the body.

c)

only found in the inner mass cells of blastocyst.

d)

only found in a fetus.

157.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
158.

A cell spends more time preparing for mitosis than in mitosis. What phase is the cell in?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

159.

Check all that apply:

Which of the following are products of meiosis?

a)

Sperm cells

b)

Gametes

c)

Nerve cells

d)

Egg cells

160.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
161.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which genetic material is exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

162.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
163.
The results of the karyotype indicate that an individual has 3 chromosome #21. Which of the following genetic disorders do they have?
a)
Edwards Syndrome
b)
Patau's Syndrome
c)
Down's Syndrome
d)
Klinefelter's Syndrome
164.

Determine the sex of the individual whose karyotype is displayed in the image.

a)

female

b)

male

165.
Which of the following would be considered a Gamete cell?
a)
Egg Cell
b)
Sperm Cell
c)
Both of these
d)
None of these
166.

This is called Turners syndrome, can you notice the mutation in the chromosomes?

a)

Both chromosomes 1 are bent

b)

There are too many chromosomes

c)

There are too many of chromosome 3

d)

It is missing the second sex chromosome

167.

These are the chromosomes of someone with Kleinfelters syndrome. What is different about their chromosomes?

a)

There is only one Y chromosome

b)

One of the 5th chromosomes is too curved

c)

There is an extra X chromosome

d)

There are too few chromosomes

168.

Passing traits from parents to their offspring

a)

Genetics

b)

Heredity

c)

Punnett square

d)

Monohybrid cross

169.

The physical characteristics of an organism

a)

Genotype

b)

Heredity

c)

Trait

d)

Phenotype

170.

Feature that a living thing can pass to its offspring

a)

Trait

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genetics

d)

Heredity

171.

Two of the same dominant genes for one trait

a)

Homozygous recessive

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous dominant

172.

Two of the same recessive genes for one trait

a)

Homozygous recessive

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous dominant

173.

Study of heredity

a)

Heredity

b)

Genetics

c)

Trait

d)

Phenotype

174.

Crossing involving one pair of contrasting traits

a)

Monohybrid cross

b)

Dihybrid cross

c)

Trihybrid cross

175.

A chart showing all of the possible gene combinations among the offspring of a genetic cross.

a)

Trait

b)

Monohybrid cross

c)

Heredity

d)

Punnett square

176.

The genetic makeup of an organism

a)

Genotype

b)

Trait

c)

Phenotype

d)

Genetics

177.

Two different genes for one trait

a)

Homozygous recessive

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous dominant

178.

Fill in the Yellow Box

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

179.

What is the probability that an offspring born from this cross will have a homozygous dominant genotype?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

180.

The punnett square is used to tell the color of a frogs skin. "G" means green skin and "g" means brown skin. What is the chance the baby frogs will have brown skin?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

181.

What is the mother's genotype?

a)

DD

b)

Dd

c)

dd

182.

Brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes. What is the probability that the offspring will have brown eyes in this cross?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

183.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

184.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

185.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
186.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
187.
If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a)
close relative
b)
early ancestor
c)
unrelated organism
d)
embryological stage
188.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
189.
Extinction can occur because of which of the following?
a)
All can be causes of extinction.
b)
Increased competition with other species
c)
New predators within the environment
d)
Loss of habitat and/or catastrophes
190.
Finches on the Galapagos Islands had different beaks in order to help them do what?
a)
Build nests
b)
Fight off predators
c)
Collect food sources
d)
Compete with rivals
191.
This scientist came up with the idea of natural selection.
a)
Jean Baptiste Lamarck
b)
Gregor Mendel
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Thomas Malthus
192.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
193.
Inherited trait that helps an organism survive is a(n) __________.
a)
Fossil
b)
Adaptation
c)
Ancestor
d)
Natural selection
194.
Survival of the fittest or when favorable adaptations reproduce faster is called what?
a)
Evolution
b)
Adaptation
c)
Natural selection
d)
Fossilization
195.
This occurs when no more of a species is living.
a)
Fossilization
b)
Adaptation
c)
Extinction
d)
Natural selection
196.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
197.
According to the diagram, which organism is older?
a)
ammonite
b)
coral
c)
gastropod
d)
trilobite
198.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
199.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
200.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
201.
If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
a)
species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor
b)
species A evolved independently of species B for a long period
c)
species A is younger than species B
d)
species A is older than species B
202.
What would happen if the Giraffes never evolve?
a)
they would survive
b)
They would thrive
c)
They would become extinct
d)
They will find another source of food
203.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment 
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
 fitness
204.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
205.
Farmers breed cows to produce high amounts of milk. This is an example of...
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Variations in a species 
c)
Selective Breeding 
d)
inbreeding
206.
This Age Structure Diagram indicates _______
a)
Rapid Growth
b)
Slowing Growth
c)
Zero Growth
d)
Negative Growth
207.
All these organisms share the same
a)
Biome
b)
Population
c)
Community
d)
Habitat
208.
At what stage does this population reach it's carrying capacity on the Demographic Transition Model
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
209.
The population at Stage 1 is likely in ______
a)
Pre-Industrialization 
b)
Post-Industrialization 
c)
Industrialization
d)
Exponential Growth
210.
When a plant uptakes water and transpires it to the atmosphere, this is known as _______
a)
Condensation
b)
Evapotranspiration
c)
Infiltration
d)
Aquifer
211.
Most of our limited fresh water supply is stored in ____
a)
The Great Lakes
b)
Aquifers
c)
The Atmosphere
d)
Glacial Ice
212.
Bacteria which convert nitrogen gas into bio-available forms of nitrogen, such as ammonia and nitrate, are known as _____
a)
De-nitrification bacteria 
b)
Nitrogen fixing bacteria
c)
Oxidizers
d)
Buffers
213.
In which reservoir is carbon stored the shortest period of time ______
a)
Limestone rocks
b)
The ocean
c)
The atmosphere
d)
Coal
214.
Phosphorus is an essential nutrient for plants and animals because it is use to make _______
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Glucose
c)
RNA / DNA
d)
Starches
215.
Which of these is not a characteristic share by all living things
a)
Growth and Development
b)
Reproduction
c)
Movement
d)
Homeostatis 
216.
Fungi are a  ________
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Heterotroopers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Primary Consumers
217.
Which these organism below is a primary consumer?
a)
Fungi
b)
Snake
c)
Ladybug
d)
Blue Jay
218.
The image shown is an example of _______ 
a)
Parasitism  
b)
Commensalism 
c)
Mutualism 
d)
Communism 
219.
An important attribute of a K-strategist species is _____
a)
Nurture their young
b)
Exponential Growth
c)
Opportunistic
d)
Relatively low body mass
220.
In the food chain below if the worm contains 6 calories of energy, how much energy is available to the turtle to grow, develop, and reproduce if it ingest 10 worms?
a)
0.06
b)
0.6
c)
6
d)
60
221.
Approximately 90 percent of energy iconsumed by an organism is lost to ___ 
a)
Growth
b)
Inefficiencies in its metabolism 
c)
Repairing cells
d)
Carbon dioxide
222.
Which is not a biome found in North America?
a)
Mojave Desert
b)
Grasslands of the Great Plains
c)
Everglades / Coastal Plain
d)
Tropical Rain Forest 
223.
An underground reservoir of water is known as ______
a)
An Estuary 
b)
An Aquifer
c)
Sublimation 
d)
Permafrost
224.
Soil and sediments is created by the physical and chemical ____________ of igneous rock. 
a)
Destabilization 
b)
Expansion
c)
Weathering 
d)
Sublimation 
225.
In the Article "The Critical Link", breaking down barriers that deny women access to health care, family planning, education, land ownership, employment and credit is linked to ________
a)
Higher Mortality Rate
b)
Higher Fertility Rate
c)
Lower Fertility Rate
d)
Lower Mortality Rate

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