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WorksheetsBiology EOC Practice Test
Total questions: 225
Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins
Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?
All living things are made of cells
All cells come from other preexisting cells.
Cells form through spontaneous generation.
Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.
Which invention from the 17th century allowed for the development of modern cell theory?
X-rays
computers
the light microscope
the scanning electron microscope
A plant and an animal are both living things. According to the Cell Theory, what can you conclude about these two very different organisms?
Plants have cells but animals do not.
They are both made of one or more cells.
They both come from the same kind of cell.
They both come from a non-living organism.
The combined observations of Mattias Schleiden, Theodor Schwann and Rudolph Virchow resulted in the formation of the cell theory. Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
All cells contain a nucleus.
All cells come from other living cells.
All living organisms are made of one or more cells.
Cells are the basic unit of structure and function of all living things.
There are some similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
lysosome
mitochondrion
nucleus
ribosome
Look at the cross section of a cell membrane of a eukaryotic cell. H+ ions are being pumped from a low concentration to a high concentration.
Which of the following best describes the type of transport across the cell membrane?
active transport
passive transport
facilitated diffusion
co-transport
Which type(s) of cells have genetic material that is contained in a nucleus?
bacteria
plants only
animals only
both plant and animal cells
Which characteristic do most plants have in common?
they are unicellular
they are prokaryotic
they produce seeds
they are autotrophic
Which cell structure is correctly paired with its primary function?
ribosome - protein synthesis
mitochondrion - movement
vacuole - cell division
nucleus - storage of nutrients
The diagram represents a cell of a green plant.
Solar energy is used to produce energy-rich compounds in which structure?
1
2
3
4
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which of the following has occurred?
The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
The water in the gums has moved out due to the high concentration of salt in the solution.
The diagram represents a cell.
Which organelle is the site where amino acids are synthesized into proteins?
1
2
3
4
Joy took the notes shown below while learning about cells.
• Forms boundary between a cell and the outside environment
• Controls the movement of materials into and out of the cell
• Consists of double layer of phospholipids
She forgot to write the name of the cell structure that her class was studying that day. What structure is described in her notes?
endoplasmic reticulum
cell membrane
cell wall
nucleus
Which of these best completes this concept map?
an animal cell
a prokaryotic cell
a virus
a plant cell
The cell membrane controls movement of materials into and out of the cell. The following particles are moving from high concentration to low concentration and are using a carrier protein. How would you describe this type of movement across the membrane?
simple osmosis
active transport
simple diffusion
facilitated diffusion
The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this membrane is called:
perforated
semi-permeable
non-conductive
permeable
Osmosis occurs when there is a different concentration of solute molecules on each side of the membrane. The drawing shows a beaker containing a 30% salt solution and a suspended cell containing a 10% salt solution. What statement best describes the cell after 20 minutes?
Water will move from the cell into the beaker, resulting in a smaller cell.
Water will move from the beaker into the cell, resulting in a larger cell.
Salt will move from the cell into the beaker, resulting in a smaller cell.
Salt will move from the beaker into the cell, resulting in a larger cell.
Muscle cells are responsible for obtaining energy so the body can perform voluntary and involuntary movement. Using you knowledge about organelles and muscles, how would a muscle cell differ from other types of animal cells?
The muscle cell would have larger centrioles than the other types of animal cells.
The muscle cell would have more mitochondria than the other types of animal cells.
The muscle cell would have a larger golgi apparatus than other types of animal cells.
The muscle cell would have more endoplasmic reticulum than the other types of animal cells.
Cells found in plants and animals have similarities but can differ in function. Consider the following two organisms: a corn plant cell (Zea mays) and a camel cell (Bactrianus ferus). What is the best explanation for the difference in the cellular vacuole size between these two biotic organisms?
The corn cells’ have a small vacuole size because it does not need long term water and electrolyte storage.
The camel cells’ have a small vacuole size because it does not need long term water and electrolyte storage.
The camel cells’ have a small vacuole size because it is not in contact with toxins that need to be removed from the cell.
The corn cells’ have a large vacuole size because it is in contact with many toxins in the soil which need to be removed from the cell.
Cells can be classified into two different categories: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. Which of the following information is needed in order to determine if an organism is prokaryotic?
The organism’s color and mass.
The organism’s internal structures.
If the organism is unicellular or multicellular.
The methods the organism uses to feed and move.
A specific type of cell is being studied by a scientist. She notices the cell contains a nucleus, lysosomes, a cell membrane and cell wall. What is the correct classification of this cell?
A prokaryotic animal cell
A prokaryotic plant cell
A eukaryotic animal cell
A eukaryotic plant cell
Using a microscope in the science lab, Jill observed two unknown cells: Cell 1 and Cell 2. Cell 1 she identified as a plant cell and Cell 2 as an animal cell. Her teacher told her she identified the cells correctly. What did Jill most likely observe to correctly identify the cells?
Cell 2 had a cell membrane and Cell 1 did not.
Cell 1 had a cell wall and Cell 2 did not.
Cell 2 had a chloroplast and Cell 1 did not.
Cell 1 had a nucleus and Cell 2 did not.
Which of the following contain complex, membrane-bound organelles? 1. bacteria 2. viruses 3. eukaryotic 4. prokaryotic
1 and 2
2 and 4
3 only
4 only
A lab technician needs to determine whether cells in a test tube are prokaryotic or eukaryotic. The technician has several dyes she could use to stain the cells. Four of the dyes are described in the table.
Which dye could the technician use to determine whether the cells are prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
acridine orange
osmium tetraoxide
eosin
Nile blue
What is the name of the macromolecule that makes up the majority of the cell membrane?
nucleotide
lipid
carbohydrate
protein
What is the advantage of cells being so small?
Small cells contain a greater quantity of enzymes than large cells.
Small cells do not require energy and get everything they need from osmosis.
The cell has a smaller surface area to volume ratio which means it can move nutrients into the cell and waste out more efficiently.
The cell then has a larger surface area to volume ratio which means it can move nutrients into the cell and waste out more efficiently.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum is a cell structure that consists of folded membranes that contain ribosomes. What is the advantage of the folded membranes?
increases surface area in order to produce more proteins
decreases surface area in order to produce more proteins
increases volume of the endoplasmic reticulum in order to produce more energy
decreases volume of the endoplasmic reticulum in order to make more energy
If a cell’s lysosomes were damaged, which of the following would most likely occur?
The cell would produce more proteins than it needs.
The cell would have chloroplasts that appear yellow rather than green.
The cell would be less able to break down molecules in its cytoplasm.
The cell would be less able to regulate the amount of fluid in its cytoplasm.
When Streptococcus pneumoniae are exposed to an antibiotic, the bacteria try to pump the antibiotic out of their cells. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely used by the Streptococcus pneumoniae to pump the antibiotic out of their cells?
active transport
diffusion
facilitated diffusion
osmosis
In pure water, a red blood cell from an animal will swell and burst, but a leaf cell from a plant will not. Which structure in the leaf cell is responsible for this difference?
cell membrane
cell wall
mitochondrion
nucleus
Which of the following functions does active transport perform in a cell?
packaging proteins for export from the cell
distributing enzymes throughout the cytoplasm
moving substances against a concentration gradient
equalizing the concentration of water inside and outside the cell
Carrot sticks that are left in a dish of freshwater for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar sticks left in a saltwater solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the freshwater is ______ and the saltwater is ________ to the cells of the carrot sticks.
hypotonic, hypertonic
hypotonic, hypotonic
hypertonic, hypotonic
hypertonic, hypertonic
In an emergency trauma room, a doctor accidentally gives a patient a large transfusion of distilled water directly into one of his veins instead of blood. Predict what might happen if distilled water was given to the patient instead of blood.
have no unfavorable effect as long as the water was sterile
have serious, perhaps fatal effects because there would be too much fluid for the heart to pump.
have serious, perhaps fatal effects because the red blood cells would tend to shrivel
have serious, perhaps fatal effects because the red blood cells would tend to burst
A beaker is divided into two halves, A & B, by a membrane that is freely permeable to the water and NaCl but not to protein. Side A is half-filled with a solution of 8% protein, while side B is half-filled with a 2% protein solution. Predict what would happen to side A after a few hours.
The number of protein molecules has increased.
The number of water molecules has decreased.
The number of water molecules has increased.
The percentage of water has decreased.
A research group has discovered that damselflies, a type of dragonfly, are being infected by a particular type of aquatic protozoan. Both young and adult damselflies are not directly infected by the protozoan but contract the infection from the prey they eat. The graph shows the percentage of adult damselflies infected by protozoans during the summer and early fall.
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the graph?
Infection in embanked ponds increased during the sampling period.
Protozoans were more common in creek-fed ponds than embanked ponds.
Protozoans reproduce more quickly in embanked ponds than creek-fed ponds.
Infection in creek-fed ponds remained constant throughout the sampling period.
An osmosis investigation was conducted using chicken eggs to represent cells with semi permeable membranes. The mass of each egg was measured to determine how much water diffused into or out of the eggs. The eggs were first soaked in vinegar to dissolve the shell. Each egg was then placed in one of three different solutions for 24 hours. The table below shows the results of the investigation.
Based on this experiment, which of the following should be inferred about cells with semi permeable membranes?
Substances other than water may also cross the cell membrane.
Substances other than water may block pores in the cell membrane
Water enters the cell when placed in environments of high water concentration.
Water leaves the cell when placed in environments with a low concentration of solutes
A Team of biology students performed an experiment to test the effects of four different solutions on a de-shelled, raw chicken egg. Each raw, unbroken chicken egg of the same size was placed in each of four different solutions. Twenty-four hours later the following results we obtained.
Using the data table above and your knowledge about the process of science, which solution would represent the control in this experiment?
Solution A
Solution B
Solution C
Solution D
What is the independent variable in the experiment?
Solution A, B & C
Solution D only
The eggs
Mass
Water has a much higher specific heat than most other covalent compounds. What do you predict might happen if water had a low specific heat instead?
Flooding would occur and animals would be forced to migrate
Harmful organisms living in water would reproduce at a rapid rate
Organisms that are sensitive to changes in temperature would die
Plants would not have enough water to effectively carry out photosynthesis
Small insects can walk across the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, somewhat like a person walking across a trampoline, but they do not break the surface. What is the best explanation for why this happens?
The insects are light enough so that they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water's surface and they only skim it with their feet
The insects' feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water's surface
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
A florist places a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye. After a time, the flowers turn blue. What process helped the carnations to change color?
Specific heat
Surface tension
Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules
Formation of covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen molecules
Maria, after finding no cold sodas in the refrigerator, placed a can of soda in the freezer. She then proceeded to check her social networking site and forgot about the soda. Later that evening her brother went to get some ice and it was brown. Maria’s soda can had split open. What is the best explanation for what happened?
As the water cooled, it adhered to the can, causing it to split
When the water froze, the space between hydrogen molecules expanded
When the water froze, it weakened the molecular bonds in the aluminum can
As the water cooled, the surface tension of the water decreased and the can collapsed
Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enable it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
Water expands as it freezes.
Water is an excellent solvent.
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
Water is able to moderate temperature.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
Water is an acid.
Water is a versatile solvent.
Water acts as a buffer.
Water has a high heat capacity.
Many fish and aquatic plants can survive a cold winter because the layer of ice that forms at the top of the lake insulates the water below and prevents the lake from freezing solid. What unique property of water contributes to this effect?
Water absorbs heat when it evaporates and forms a gas
Water expands and becomes less dense when it freezes.
Water molecules completely separate into ions in solutions.
Water forms hydrogen bonds with ions and other polar substances.
Water is often called the "universal solvent" because many substances can be dissolved in water. What properties of water allow it to be such a versatile solvent?
purity and polarity
polarity and cohesion
high heat capacity and adhesion
expansion upon freezing and solvency
Water makes up approximately 60% of the human body and plays a vital role in regulating body temperature. Which property of water makes it good at regulating temperature?
Water is a good solvent.
Water exhibits strong cohesion.
Water has an unusual crystalline structure.
Water has a high capacity for heat.
Two of the four principle classes of organic compounds are proteins and nucleic acids. What is the relationship between proteins and nucleic acids?
Nucleic acids use proteins for energy
Nucleic acids are a subset of proteins
Proteins are long polymers of nucleic acids
Nucleic acids contain the information to make proteins
Resistance to antibiotics results from variations in the genetic code of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which type of molecule encodes genetic information in Streptococcus pneumoniae?
carbohydrate
fatty acid
nucleic acid
protein.
Which of the following diagrams below is an example of a carbohydrate?
1
2
3
4
In living organisms, lipids function mainly as:
Sources of stored energy and transmitters of genetic information
Sources of stored energy and components of cellular membranes
Transmitters of genetic information and catalysts of chemical reactions
Catalysts of chemical reactions and components of cellular membranes
What is the building block of structure G?
nucleotide
chains of fatty acids
amino acids
monosaccharides
Which macromolecule makes up the majority of the cell membrane?
nucleotide
lipid
protein
carbohydrate
Which of the following macromolecule is not identified on the cell membrane in the image?
nucleotide
lipid
protein
carbohydrate
Baby food manufacturers sometimes use proteases in their products. Proteases catalyze the breakdown of the proteins in these foods, making digestion easier for infants.
Proteases are which of the following types of molecules?
enzyme
fatty acid
carbohydrate
nucleic acid.
Ovalbumin is a protein found in eggs. Which of the following best describes the molecular structure of ovalbumin?
a group of six carbon atoms joined in a ring.
a chain of amino acids folded and twisted into a molecule
a set of three fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol
a sequence of nitrogenous bases attached to a sugar phosphate backbone
Many plants have waxy coatings on some surfaces. This coating reduces water loss because it is not water-permeable. This waxy coating is which of the following types of organic molecule?
protein
carbohydrate
nucleic acid
lipid
Like complex carbohydrates, proteins are macromolecules that serve many functions and can be chemically broken down and restructured. Both proteins and complex carbohydrates are which of the following?
polymers of smaller subunits
sequence of sugars
lipids of large molecules
nucleotides of DNA
What is the function of the macromolecule subunit shown here?
energy
catalyst
stores genetic information
composes the majority of the cell membrane
The diagram shows a monomer of a macromolecule. Which of the following macromolecules contains these monomers?
carbohydrates
proteins
nucleic acid
lipid
Some bacteria live in hot springs. Their cells contain enzymes that function best at temperatures of 70 °C or higher. At the temperature of 50 °C, how will the enzymes in these bacterial cells most likely be affected?
The enzymes will be destroyed by lysosomes.
The enzymes will lose their bond structure and fall apart.
The enzymes will require less energy to function than at 70 °C.
The enzymes will not increase the rate of reactions as much as they would at 70 °C.
Many of the proteins in the human body are enzymes that catalyze chemical reactions. What is the relationship between enzymes and activation energy?
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, it increases the activation energy of the reaction
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, it increases the activation energy of the product.
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, it decreases the activation energy of the reaction.
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, it does not affect the activation energy of the reaction.
Meat tenderizer contains an enzyme that breaks down meat. If meat is coated with tenderizer and then placed in a refrigerator, predict how the enzyme might be affected?
It would break down the meat more slowly.
It would disintegrate the meat.
It would break down the meat more quickly.
It would change the shape of the meat.
As food travels through the digestive system, it is exposed to a variety of pH levels. The stomach has a pH of 2 due to the presence of hydrochloric acid (HCl), and the small intestine has a pH ranging from 7 to 9. HCl converts pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach. Which of the following most likely happens to pepsin as it enters the small intestine?
. It becomes inactive.
It begins to replicate.
Its shape changes to engulf large proteins.
Its activity increases to digest more proteins.
The graph shows how the activity of an enzyme changes over a range of pH values.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
The enzyme’s activity continually increases as pH increases from 5.0 to 9.0
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 than around pH of 5.0.
The diagram below illustrates a biochemical process that occurs in organisms.
What is another name for the substance labeled "catalyst"?
Enzyme
inorganic compound
Hormone
Antibody
The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements?
Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.
The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.
The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action.
There is no connection between the two statements.
Which of the following best explains why enzymes are necessary for many cellular reactions?
Enzymes supply the oxygen necessary for the reactions.
Enzymes change reactants from solid to liquids during the reactions.
The reactions take up too much space in the cell if the enzymes are missing.
The reactions are too slow to meet the needs of the cell if enzymes are missing.
A student is investigating how reaction rate changes over a range of enzyme concentrations. The student uses excess reactants. Which of the following best represents the relationship between enzyme concentration and reaction rate?
How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis related, in terms of energy?
The energy captured in photosynthesis is used to power cellular respiration.
The energy transformed in cellular respiration is used to power photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis and respiration perform the same task in terms of energy transformation.
Energy is not involved in either photosynthesis or cellular respiration.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
The diagram shows the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration and the organelles in which they occur. Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?
Oxygen is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.
Carbon dioxide and water released by cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis releases the energy that is stored during the process of cellular respiration.
Glucose is used during cellular respiration to produce food that is broken down during photosynthesis.
A diagram representing the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is shown here. The numbered boxes in the diagram represent which of the following?
1 - water; 2 - nitrogen
1 - nitrogen; 2 - oxygen
1 - oxygen; 2 - carbon dioxide
1 - carbon dioxide; 2 – water
Two test tubes were filled with a solution of bromthymol blue. A student exhaled through a straw into each tube, and the bromthymol blue turned yellow. An aquatic green plant was placed into each tube, and the tubes were corked. One tube was placed in the dark, and one was placed in direct sunlight. The yellow solution in the tube in sunlight turned blue, while the one in the dark remained yellow. Which statement best explains why the solution in the tube placed in sunlight returned to a blue color?
Oxygen was produced by photosynthesis.
Carbon dioxide was removed by photosynthesis.
Carbon dioxide was produced by respiration.
Oxygen was removed by respiration.
Which of the following diagrams accurately represents the use of gases in both cellular respiration and photosynthesis?
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
hydrogen
oxygen
nitrogen
carbon dioxide
A potted plant is placed inside a clear, sealed vacuum container that has water pumped into it on a regular basis. The container is placed in the sun and the plant’s growth is monitored. Which statement best describes what will most likely happen to the plant over time?
The plant will grow faster because it is sheltered from the wind.
The plant will die because it does not have oxygen for photosynthesis.
The plant will die because it does not have carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
The plant will grow at a slower rate because it requires more water.
Mike has four aquatic plants of the same size and the same species. He submerges the plants in a separate beaker filled with 200 ml of water. He then sets each beaker under a different intensity of light. Mike observes that, of the four plants, the plant in the beaker under the most intense light gives off the most gas bubbles in a 20 minute period. Which of the following statements best explains Mike’s observations?
Cells decompose most quickly under the most intense light.
Water evaporates from plants faster under the most intense light.
Photosynthesis occurs at the highest rate under the most intense light.
Gases in the leaves of plants expand most under the most intense light
Which of the following are the reactants of photosynthesis?
water and glucose
glucose and carbon dioxide
carbon dioxide and water
oxygen and water
Which process takes place in the presence of oxygen and produces nearly 20 times as much as ATP as glycolysis alone?
photosynthesis
lactic acid fermentation
aerobic respiration
alcoholic fermentation
If a plant died from lack of food, which structure is most likely missing or damaged?
flower
root
stem
leaves
Which of the following structures is where photosynthesis occurs in the cell shown here?
nucleus
chloroplast
mitochondria
endoplasmic reticulum
Two different species of bacteria are examined. Scientists find that species X always produces CO2 and H2O during cellular respiration. Species Y always produces ethyl alcohol and CO2. Which conclusion can be made from these observations?
Only species Y is aerobic.
Only species Y is anaerobic.
Both species X and Y are aerobic.
Both species X and Y are anaerobic.
A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much ATP the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which of the following processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?
As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration, which allows the cell to make small amounts of ATP in the absence of oxygen.
As the cells run out of oxygen, they die off gradually and the weightlifter's muscles have fewer contracting muscle cells.
The cells will never run out of oxygen if the weightlifter is breathing.
As the cells run out of oxygen, they will continue to make the same amount of ATP, since oxygen is not required to make ATP.
Which of the following structures is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell shown here?
nucleus
cytoplasm
mitochondria
vacuoles
What function does ATP carry out in living things?
aids in protein folding and coiling
used to capture and transfer energy
identifies DNA start sequences for transcription
helps maintain the fluidity of cell membranes
Which process do animals use to convert energy from food into ATP?
cellular respiration
osmosis
photosynthesis
transcription
Carmen conducted an experiment to determine if listening to different types of music would affect a person’s pulse. Her hypothesis was that pulse rate would change with different types of music. Each person listened to seven different selections of music for 30 seconds each. Each person’s pulse was taken before the music and then after each 30-second interval of music. The pulses were taken again after the music selections were completed. Based on her experiment, Carmen concluded that a person’s pulse rate changed when the person listened to different types of music.
Which component is missing from Carmen’s experiment?
a question
a hypothesis
a control group
a description of the experiment
Based upon the information shown in the cladogram below, which trait would most likely be observed in ray-finned fish?
amniotic egg
bony skeleton
four limbs
hair
Mushrooms are a type of fungus. What characteristic of fungi makes them different from plants?
Fungal cells are eukaryotic.
Fungi are multicellular.
Fungi are heterotrophic.
Fungi have cell walls.
The Florida Panther was once considered to be a subspecies of cougars and given a special trinomial taxonomy of Puma concolor coryi. Current scientists however, have studied the Florida Panther and removed the subspieces classification to only Puma concolor. Which of the following would most likely explain why the classification of the Florida Panther changed.
New genetic evidence suggests a much closer relationship between the Florida Panther and other cougars.
Shared features between the Florida Panther and other cougars were also found in newly discovered organisms in the world.
Advanced technologies have shown a large difference in cell structure between the Florida Panther and other cougars.
Trinomial naming conventions are no longer used by longer used by scientists because only the genus and species are important in taxonomy.
In 1990, Carl Woese introduced the three domain system for classifying living things, after the advancement of DNA analysis allowed for a comparison of species genetic code. Which of the following is the best explanation for why domains were added to the previous system of classification?
The old system of classification was wrong and needed to be corrected.
New species are evolving too quickly to keep up with the old system of classification.
Domains have always been included, they were just made official recently.
Some organisms, which were previously characterized together, were determined to be genetically very different.
Many protists are single-celled organisms, as are bacteria. However, protists and bacteria are in different biological kingdoms. Which of the following comparisons of protists and bacteria is NOT true?
Both protists and bacteria can be motile.
Both protists and bacteria are microorganisms.
Protists and bacteria may be photosynthetic
Protists are prokaryotes, while bacteria are eukaryotes.
Terrestrial plants have stomata on the surface of their leaves. Stomata are surrounded by two guard cells that change shape in response to environmental factors and open or close the stoma. Which of the following best explains how the structure of the leaf is used in processes that occur in plants?
Water enters the plant through the surface of the leaf for transpiration
Gases for photosynthesis are exchanged through the surface of the leaf.
Energy for cellular reproduction is absorbed through the surface of the leaf.
Carbon dioxide enters the plant through the surface of the leaf for cellular reproduction.
Plant cells that are specialized for cell division are most likely found in what part of the plant?
root tips
leaf epidermis
stem epidermis
vascular tissue
If the xylem of a young tree is damaged, which process is first affected?
performing photosynthesis
transporting sugar to the roots
transporting carbon dioxide to the leaves
absorbing water from the soil
A plant species lives in an area with limited sunlight. Which physiological adaptation would be most useful to the plant?
colorful flowers
large leaves
deep roots
thin cuticle
What is the main function of leaves?
Leaves provide support for growth and a place to store food.
Leaves provide a place for photosynthesis to occur.
Leaves absorb water and minerals and transport nutrients to the stem.
Leaves create a barrier that prevents water in the plant's tissues from evaporating.
The cambium is a section of cells in a plant that can become either part of the xylem or phloem, depending on the growth and needs of the plant. If the cambium of a particular plant was damaged, what would be the most likely effect on the plant?
The plant would lose its ability to carry out photosynthesis.
The plant would have uncontrolled growth.
The plant would not experience any change in physiology.
The plant would not be able to transport nutrients and water.
Which structure in the leaf controls the opening and closing of the stoma?
cuticle
epidermis
guard cell
spongy mesophyll
Which statement describes the role of flowers in plant survival?
Flowers can absorb carbon dioxide for sugar production.
Flowers produce oxygen through cellular respiration.
Flowers contain cells that carry out photosynthesis.
Flowers contain cells that produce gametes.
What is the main purpose of seeds in plants that have them?
To protect and distribute the zygote.
To entice animals to eat the plant.
To be fertilized by other plants.
To store water for the mother plant.
The diagram below shows a cross section of a plant leaf. How does the structure marked X contribute to the survival of the plant?
It allows the intake of gases necessary for photosynthesis.
It allows the intake of minerals necessary for plant growth.
It allows the intake of sunlight necessary for ATP production.
It allows the intake of sugars necessary for plant reproduction.
The diagram below represents a flower, the reproductive structure of some plants. Most flowers have both male and female structures for fertilization and reproduction. Which structure is represented by the letter A in the diagram?
the stamen, a male structure which produces pollen
the pistol, a female structure which collects pollen and passes it to the ovary
the sepal, a modified leaf used for protection of the flower
the petals, decorative structures which attract pollinators
Jake conducted an experiment with four bean plants. They were placed next to one another on a sunny windowsill. He gave each plant equal amounts of different types of water. The plants were given tap water, distilled water, flavored water, or carbonated water. He made the following observations after three weeks.
Based on his results, Jake concluded that tap water is not good for plants. How can Jake change his experimental design to improve the validity of his results?
carry out multiple trials, and increase the number of plants that are given each type of water
establish a control group that includes different types of plants
establish another dependent variable to generate more data
carry out multiple trials that include fewer plants, and increase the types of water given to the plants
Coyotes are opportunistic predators that are found throughout most of North America. They typically feed on small mammals, insects, and fruits and vegetables. They are known for their dietary adaptability. The best description of their role in the food web would be:
An herbivore
A carnivore
An omnivore
A primary producer
Energy released from metabolism into the environment as heat.
Oxygen released from metabolism produced by cellular respiration.
The absorption of energy from the environment that has been created.
The transport of glucose away from the organism through photosynthesis.
If several species of carnivores are removed from an ecosystem, the most likely effect on the ecosystem will be:
An increase in the kinds of autotrophs
A decrease in the number of abiotic factors
A decrease in stability among populations
An increase in the rate of succession
Which statement describes an interaction that helps maintain the dynamic equilibrium of this ecosystem?
The frogs make energy available to this ecosystem through the process of photosynthesis.
The algae directly provide food for both the rotifers and the catfish.
The green-backed heron provides energy for the mosquito larvae.
The catfish population helps control the populations of water boatman and waterfleas.
Why is a mushroom considered a heterotroph?
It creates different types of food.
It makes food through photosynthesis.
It makes food through chemosynthesis.
It obtains nutrients from its environment.
A team of ecologists observed feeding patterns of several populations in the desert. The energy pyramid shown here depicts the feeding patterns the ecologist observed. Which of the following best explains the difference in the amount of available energy in the trophic levels of the desert ecosystem?
There is less energy available in the producers because their tissues are less dense than those at higher trophic levels
There is more energy available in the second trophic level because less energy is needed for hunting compared to the higher trophic levels
There is more available energy in the birds of prey because they have greater muscle mass for storing energy than organisms in lower trophic levels have
There is less available energy in the fourth trophic level because of the loss of energy through metabolism in each of the lower trophic levels.
This diagram shows the cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem. The removal of which of the following groups would cause an immediate decrease in the amount of energy flowing through the system?
Producers
Consumers
Decomposers
Inorganic nutrients
A food web is shown below. Which of the following organisms compete for the mouse as a food source?
hawk and snake
snake and kinglet
oak tree and pine tree
pine borer and salamander
Which of the following energy pyramids shows the correct placement of trophic levels?
Which of the following will most likely result if all of the primary consumers are removed from this ecosystem?
Prairie rattlesnakes will become herbivores.
Golden eagle and kit fox populations will decrease.
Sagebrush grasshoppers will consume soil bacteria.
Silk grass and sand sagebrush populations will decrease.
Part of a marsh food web is shown here. Which of the following statements correctly describes organisms in this food web?
The birds are producers.
The algae are consumers.
The worms are carnivores.
The bacteria are decomposers.
Jill made this table during her research on aquatic zones and living organisms. Based on Jill’s observations, which conclusion could you draw?
Organisms in the intertidal zone must be able to withstand very cold water.
There are no producers in the benthic zone that rely on photosynthesis.
Organisms in the benthic zone must be able to tolerate large amounts of oxygen.
The warm water and abundant sunlight in the nertic zone limits the plankton population.
Competition between two species occurs when:
Mold grows on a tree that has fallen in the forest
Chipmunks and squirrels eat sunflower seeds in a garden
A crow feeds on the remains of a rabbit killed on the road
A lion stalks, kills and eats an antelope
Which statement represents a characteristic of an ecosystem that is not likely to sustain itself?
The sun provides the needed energy.
Energy is transferred from plants to animals.
There are more consumers than producers.
There are interactions between biotic and abiotic factors.
When an environment has reached its carrying capacity for a certain population, which of the following is true?
Growth and immigration rate is equal to death and emigration rate.
Growth and immigration rate is greater than death and emigration rate.
Growth and immigration rate is less than death and emigration rate.
Growth rate is exponential.
The common brushtail possum is a marsupial native to Australia. This possum was introduced to New Zealand where it had no natural predators and had an abundant food supply. Which of these likely occurred a few years after the introduction of this possum to New Zealand?
The possums became extinct.
The possums developed shorter life spans.
The possum population grew to a larger size.
The possum population evolved into a different species.
Angel was trying to explain carrying capacity to her mother. Which of the following descriptions is accurate? Carrying capacity is:
the maximum number of individuals that an ecosystem can sustain.
the ability of an environment to accommodate a growing population.
the number of predators that an area can sustain over the long term.
the maximum number of species that can co-exist in an area.
You have been studying population growth of a species of Paramecium, a single celled organism for 18 days. Your data is shown in the graph shown here. Food was occasionally added to the test tube in which the paramecia were grown. According to the diagram, what is the carrying capacity of the test-tube environment as long as food is added?
about 10 paramecia
about 50 paramecia
about 65 paramecia
about 100 paramecia
Jenn is studying a population of fish found in a pond that has a decreasing carrying capacity. Which of the following factors would not decrease the carrying capacity of her fish?
drought
flooding
food shortages
a freeze
An animal population decreases from 800 individuals to 600 individuals. Which of the following could explain this change in population size?
The population size of the animal’s predator increased.
The emigration rate of the animals from the population decreased.
The number of breeding pairs in the animal’s population increased.
The number of species competing with the animal for food decreased.
Mullet are local estuarine fish that move in schools and feed on plankton and plant matter. Natural predators of the mullet include spotted sea trout, sharks, pelicans and dolphins. This graph shows how the number of mullet in an area has changed over time. Based on the data, one student concludes that a new predator was introduced into the area during this time period. Which of the following is a likely alternate explanation for the change in the mullet population?
mullet prey increased in the area
mullet parasites decreased in the area
the temperature of the area increased
the amount of aquatic plants in the area decreased
The pea weevil is a type of insect. This table shows the average time it takes for pea weevil eggs to hatch at different temperatures. Based on the data, which of the following conditions would promote the highest population growth rate in pea weevils?
cold springs with temperatures from 11°C to 16°C
moderate summers with temperatures from 25°C to 27°C
heat waves in which the temperature is sustained well above 28°C
overnight frosts after which the temperature warms from 0°C to 11°C
On remote islands, immigration and emigration usually do not have a large effect on population sizes. A bird population on a remote island remains at a relatively constant size year after year. Which of the following most likely describes the birthrate and the death rate for this population?
Birthrate and death rate are both zero.
Birthrate and death rate are close to equal.
Birthrate is significantly less than death rate.
Birthrate is significantly greater than death rate.
Changes in an ecosystem over a long period of time are shown in this diagram. These changes will most likely lead to a:
loss of heterotrophs that cannot be recovered
stable ecosystem that can last for many years
long-term rise in environmental temperatures
forest consisting of only producers and decomposers
This diagram shows how an area progresses over time after a forest fire. What process is illustrated by the diagram in boxes 4-8 after the forest fire?
pioneer speciation
primary succession
secondary succession
ecosystem boundaries
A biologist compares how different ecosystems undergo succession. She divides the series of events that happen during primary and secondary succession into three different stages. Which feature might be used to distinguish secondary succession from primary succession?
the lack of pioneer species in the second stage
the presence of pioneer species in the final stage
the presence of trees and large plants in the final stage
the presence of soil and organic matter in the first stage.
After a volcano erupts and destroys an ecosystem, a few organisms are able to begin growing from the decaying organic matter left behind. What do we call those first organisms that are able to grow in little or no soil that first appear?
adaptors
pioneer species
non-vascular plants
decomposers
One way that humans could have a positive impact on local environments is to:
generate waste products as a result of technological advances
use resources that are renewable
increase planting large areas of one crop
increase the use of pesticides
Environmentalists are hoping to protect endangered organisms by calling for a reduction in the use of pesticides, because loss of these organisms would:
increase the mutation rate in plants
cause pesticides to become more toxic to insects
reduce biodiversity in various ecosystems
decrease the space and resources available to other organisms
After the Aswan High Dam was built on the Nile River, the rate of parasitic worm infection doubled in the human population near the dam. As a result of building the dam, the flow of the Nile changed. This changed the habitat, which resulted in an increase in its population of a certain aquatic snail. The snails, which were infected, released larvae of the worm. These larvae then infected humans. This situation best illustrates that:
the influence of humans on a natural system is always negative in the long term
the influence of humans on a natural system can have unpredictable negative impacts
human alteration of an ecosystem does not need to be studied to avoid ecological disaster
human alteration of an ecosystem will cause pollution and loss of finite resources
One way humans can promote the survival of organisms in an ecosystem is to:
decrease diversity in plant habitats
introduce new consumers to control autotrophs
release extra CO2 into the atmosphere to help autotrophs
learn about the interactions of population
Some people see the benefit of wind energy as a clean alternative to fossil fuels for energy production. Others believe it is dangerous for migratory birds. These opinions best illustrate that decisions about alternate energy sources:
will usually favor older methods of energy production over newer methods
must be made by weighing the risks and costs against the benefits
must be made by taking into account the present needs of the citizens without looking toward the future
should be the responsibility of each individual
A builder is proposing a new housing development in an area of western Massachusetts. Construction of the housing development will destroy the wetland habitat in the area.
Which of the following would be the most likely consequence of the wetland’s destruction?
The wetland plant species would disperse to adjacent meadow habitats.
The populations of wetland animals would be unable to survive in that area.
The wetland animal species would survive by interbreeding with non-wetland species.
The populations of wetland plants would evolve to disperse seeds by wind rather than water.
New fuels are being produced by converting corn and grasses into compounds containing alcohols that can be broken down for energy in various engines. The purpose of this research is to
reduce the use of nonrenewable resources.
increase the rate of air pollution.
reduce the rate of homeostasis in organisms.
cause a loss of biodiversity in the rain forests.
The presence of wastes, such as plastic bags and motor oil, in lakes and streams miles away from developed areas suggests that:
ecosystems are interconnected and human action can alter ecosystem equilibrium.
recycling programs have failed to conserve biotic resources.
natural processes can alter ecosystem stability.
direct harvesting practices have led to irreversible destruction of ecosystems.
DDT and other pesticides used over 50 years ago are still affecting the environment today. Scientists have found these substances in recent glacier runoff. Glacier runoff occurs during the summer, when precipitation that has fallen on glaciers during the winter is released. Ice layers from existing glaciers have been analyzed. The results of this analysis show that the concentrations of DDT and other pesticides were highest about 10 years after the use of these substances was banned. This information shows that:
DDT and other pesticides cause glacier runoff during the summer.
it takes humans over 50 years to analyze a glacier.
precipitation helps to break down pesticides.
the decision of one human generation may have an impact on future generations.
When fertilizers run off farmland into streams and ponds, the nitrogen content of the water increases. This can lead to rapid growth of algae. How can this process affect other organisms in the water?
Oxygen is used up as algae is decomposed, reducing the amount available to other organisms.
The water becomes better able to support aerobic organisms.
The algae provide food for fishes and other organisms, leading to decreased algae populations.
The extra nitrogen provides additional food for the other organisms, increasing their population.
Whaling was a very profitable profession until whale populations crashed. The global community came together to enact a ban on whaling. However, Japan and Norway have not agreed to stop whaling. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of their decision?
The whale populations are bouncing back very successfully and are unaffected by Japan and Norway continuing to whale.
The whale populations are not rebounding as quickly as they might if all of the countries agreed not to hunt whales.
The whale populations have mutated into new kinds of organisms.
The whales are getting better at avoiding capture.
Leaves fall from deciduous trees in autumn. The carbon in these leaves is returned to the atmosphere through which of the following processes?
condensation
decomposition
photosynthesis
transpiration
This diagram shows part of the carbon cycle. If many trees are removed from a forest by logging, what is the most immediate effect on the carbon cycle in that forest?
increase in the rates of decomposition
increase in the rates of atmospheric carbon dioxide
decreased combustion of fossil fuel
increase production of organic compounds
The water cycle would not occur if which of the following were missing?
bacteria
autotrophs
carbon dioxide
solar energy
A graph of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration over time is shown here. Scientists are investigating the cause of the large increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration since about 1800. Which of the following provides the best explanation for the increase?
eruptions of large volcanoes
use of fossil fuels by humans
natural fluctuations of climate
photosynthesis by photoplankton
In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is dominant over the trait for short stems. If two heterozygous tall plants are crossed, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have the same phenotype as the parents?
100
75
50
25
Hemophilia is a sex-linked, recessive trait. Which of the following describes the probability of hemophilia in the offspring of a man who does not have hemophilia and a woman whose father is a hemophiliac? [Hint: Create a Punnett Square to determine your answer]
Each of their sons will have hemophilia.
None of their daughters will have hemophilia.
Their sons have a 25% chance of having hemophilia.
There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia.
Alleles for the A and B blood cell antigens are codominant. The condition where no antigens are present on the blood cells (type O blood) is a recessive trait. Using this table below, determine which set of parents can most likely produce a child with type O blood?
one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type A blood
one parent with type AB blood and the other parent with type O blood
one parent with heterozygous type A blood, and the other parent with type O blood
one parent with homozygous type A blood, and the other parent with homozygous type B blood
One of the parents of a child has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by autosomal recessive alleles. The other parent does not have the PKU alleles. What is the chance that the couple will have a child with phenylketonuria? [Hint: Create a Punnett Square to determine your answer]
0%
50%
75%
100%
Hitchhiker's thumb (H) is dominant to no hitchhiker's thumb (h). A woman who does not have hitchhiker's thumb marries a man who is heterozygous for hitchhiker's thumb. What is the probable genotypic ratio of their children?
0% Hh: 100% hh
50% Hh: 50% hh
75% Hh: 25% hh
100% Hh: 0% hh
This diagram shows a pedigree for a recessive genetic disorder. What is the genotype of individual 6?
XHXH
XHXh
XHY
XhY
Two parent Holstein (black-and-white) cattle have multiple offspring. The fur ranges from black only, white only, and black and white. Which process best explains the variations in the offspring?
independent assortment
sex linkage
dominance
gene linkage
A human baby boy inherits a recessive allele from his mother. In which circumstance would he most likely show the trait coded for by the recessive allele?
The baby inherits the dominant allele from his father.
The allele is on an autosomal chromosome and the baby is a twin.
The allele is on the X chromosome.
The allele is on the Y chromosome.
This diagram shows a diploid cell with two pairs of homologous chromosomes. Due to independent assortment, what is the possible genetic make-up of gametes produced by this organism?
SsTt
Ss, Tt
S, s, T, t
ST, St, sT, st
The table below lists the trials for fruit color where allele R exhibits incomplete dominance over allele R1.
Heterozygous fruit have orange phenotypes. What percent of offspring are expected to have an orange phenotype if the parent plants are orange (RR1) and yellow (R1R1)?
25%
50%
75%
100%
In guinea pigs, black coat color (B) is dominant over white coat color (b) and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). Based upon the dihybrid cross shown here, what is the phenotype for letter X?
brown coat, long hair
black coat, short hair
black coat, long hair
black coat, long hair
The individuality of an organism is determined by the
sequence of nitrogenous bases in deoxyribonucleic acid
number of amino acids in a cell
position of the ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum
number of nitrogenous bases in a codon
What is the relationship between DNA and protein in a cell?
DNA is made up of proteins that are synthesized in the cell.
Protein is composed of DNA that is stored in the cell.
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell.
The cell is composed only of DNA and protein.
If 20% of a DNA sample is made up of thymine, T, what percentage of the sample is made up of cytosine, C?
15%
30%
35%
50%
A medical test indicates that a patient has a defective protein. This condition is most likely due to a change in the directions coded in the:
number of nitrogen bases
number of phosphate molecules
sequence of sugar molecules
sequence of subunits in DNA
Genes for medically important proteins can be cloned and inserted into bacteria, as shown in this diagram. Why can bacteria recognize a human gene and then produce a human protein?
DNA replication in bacteria and humans is the same.
Bacterial cells contain the same organelles as human cells.
The basic components of DNA are the same in humans and bacteria.
Bacterial cells and human cells contain the same kind of chromosomes.
Which choice describes DNA after replication has taken place?
one molecule with two original strands and one molecule with two new strands
two molecules, each with one original and one new strand
two molecules, each with two new strands
two molecules, each with two old strands
At what point in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur and why?
before a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions
before a cell divides, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells
during cell division, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells
after a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions
Four different segments of a DNA molecule are represented here. There is an error in the DNA in which molecule?
segment 1 only
segment 3 only
segment 2 and 3
segment 2 and 4
The sequence of DNA below is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?
5' ATCAGCGCTGGC 3'
4
8
12
20
A scientist puts nucleotide chains of UUUUUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis. Soon the test tube is full of polypeptide chains composed only of the amino acid phenylalanine. What does this experiment indicate?
The amino acid phenylalanine is composed of uracil.
UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine.
Protein synthesis malfunctions in test tubes.
Most proteins contain only one type of amino acid.
Which of the following would most likely cause a mutation?
the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum
the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA
the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus
the release of messenger RNA from DNA
A diagram of a cellular process is shown here. Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Z?
Translation
Translocation
Replication
Transcription
Which of the following carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis?
mRNA
rRNA
tRNA
nRNA
During transcription the DNA base sequence is transcribed into a complimentary mRNA sequence. A codon table like the one shown here lists the amino acids coded for by particular triads of mRNA bases. A segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which one nucleotide has been changed. The original sequence was ACG and the new sequence is ACA. Use the codon table to determine whether or not this mutation will cause a change in the phenotype of the organism.
yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because a new amino acid will be coded for.
yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because any change in the DNA sequence will cause a change in phenotype.
Even though the DNA sequence changed, the sequence still codes for the same amino acid, so no change in phenotype will occur.
It is impossible to determine if a change in phenotype will occur using only the DNA sequence.
Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes and event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis?
two stages of cell division
replication of cellular genetic material
daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell
four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell
How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?
sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parent
asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parent
mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction
asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms
Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?
Parthenogenesis
Asexual reproduction
Sexual reproduction
Vegetative reproduction
Which of the following phrases best describes cancer?
absence of cyclins in the DNA
multiple gene mutations on a chromosome of DNA
uncontrolled cell growth caused by mutations in genes that control the cell cycle
presence of genetic defects caused by hereditary disorders
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
It is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of organisms.
It happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.
It is the first stage of mitosis.
Which of the following phases of mitosis is represented by this diagram?
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
A scientist wants to change the DNA of a sexually reproducing organism and have the new DNA present in every cell of the organism. In order to do this after fertilization, she would change the DNA in which of the following?
zygote
placenta
testes of the father
ovaries of the mother
Which row in this chart indicates the correct process for each event indicated?
row 1
row 2
row 3
row 4
The diagram shows a cellular process that occurs in organisms. What is the name of this process?
meiosis
mitosis
endocytosis
phagocytosis
The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered
segregation of sister chromatid
condensation and segregation of alleles
crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged
The diagram shows two strawberry plants. Plant 2 is produced asexually from Plant 1. If the leaf cells of Plant 1 have 56 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be found in the leaf cells of Plant 2?
14
28
56
112
Genetic screening is a procedure where a person’s DNA is analyzed to identify a genetic predisposition to lethal diseases. One advantage of genetic screening is that it allows doctors to prevent and treat diseases before patients have symptoms. Which of the following is a disadvantage of genetic screening?
Genetic screening results could be used to determine inheritance patterns in families.
The likelihood of a child contracting an inheritable disease could be predicted by genetic screening.
A doctor could combine a patient’s current symptoms with genetic screening results to diagnose and treat the patient.
Insurance companies could drop a patient’s medical coverage based on potential medical issues projected by genetic screening.
Animal “pharming” is becoming more popular as the demand for human proteins and vaccines continues to grow. Animal “pharming” is the process of using transgenic animals to produce human drugs such as insulin and human growth hormone. Transgenic animals are animals which have been genetically transformed by splicing and inserting foreign genes into their chromosomes. If successful, the inserted gene can enable an animal to make certain proteins in its milk, blood, sperm, or eggs. Which of the following is NOT true about transgenic animals?
Transgene DNA may insert itself into the genome in a way that disrupts the animal’s normal gene function.
Transgenic animals cannot pass their ability to produce the desired drug to its offspring.
Transgenic animals can produce the desired drug at high levels without endangering its own health.
Transgenic animals can be easily tested for the new gene.
In October of 1990, the US Department of Energy’s Office of Science and the US National Institute of Health began the process of mapping the human genome. This process was referred to as The Human Genome Project and was intended to identify the 20,000 – 25,000 genes of the human genome. A working draft of the genome was announced in 2000 and a complete one in 2003. Which of the following describes the main benefit of completing The Human Genome Project?
Cloning humans
Designing new human genes
Patenting specific human genes
Identifying genetically-based diseases
Genetic engineering has both positive and negative outcomes. One of the most common areas where genetic engineering is used is in agriculture. If farmers plant more genetically modified crops, which of the following negative outcomes could occur?
An increase in the use of pesticides
A decrease in genetic diversity of the crops
An increase in the contamination of the water supply
A decrease in crop productivity
Rice, the most popular food crop in the world, can be successfully grown only in certain places. If trends in climate change continue, the areas in which rice currently grows will be significantly reduced. Which of the following is the best way that biotechnology can keep the harvest of rice from decreasing?
Identifying new areas with soil fertile enough for rice production.
Developing clean energy sources to reduce carbon dioxide production worldwide.
Seeing clouds with dry ice to produce more rainfall where it is needed.
Genetically engineering rice crops that are tolerant to change in the environment.
The illustration shows four lobes of the human brain. What lobe is designated by label 2?
temporal
parietal
occipital
frontal
The illustration shows four lobes of the human brain. What lobe is designated by label 4?
temporal
parietal
occipital
frontal
The scientific theory of evolution is supported by different types of evidence. The diagrams show the skeletons of two different animal species. How does comparing the skeletons of these animals provide support for the scientific theory of evolution?
It provides information about the organisms' habitats.
It shows possible common ancestry between organisms.
It provides information to determine the organisms' ages.
It shows possible chromosomal similarities between organisms.
According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the increased size, strength, and speed in horses?
commensalism
inbreeding
migration
evolution by natural selection
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms. Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram?
The organisms share a common ancestry.
The organisms belong to the same genus.
The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.
The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.
Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram shows the skulls of 3 hominid species. Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution?
The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time.
The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.
There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.
The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown in the diagram. Which statement can be inferred from the evolutionary tree?
Species 1 is most closely related to Species 8.
Species 2 is most closely related to Species 3.
Species 3 is most closely related to Species 7.
Species 5 is most closely related to Species 6.
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown in the diagram. What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?
DNA sequences
Anatomical features
Habitat types
Reproductive Strategies
One of the accepted scientific theories describing the origin of life on Earth is known as chemical evolution. According to this theory, which of the following events would need to occur first for life to evolve?
onset of photosynthesis
origin of genetic material
Synthesis of organic molecules
formation of the plasma membrane
Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?
prokaryotic and aerobic
prokaryotic and anaerobic
eukaryotic and aerobic
eukaryotic and anaerobic
The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?
Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.
Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.
The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory.
No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.
Endosymbiosis is a proposed theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells. Which of the following explains why cells that contained mitochondria-like organelles had an evolutionary advantage?
They were able to photosynthesize
They had more DNA
They were able to make more use of available energy
They were immune to bacterial invasion.
Over time, the climate of an island became drier, which resulted in changes to the populations of various island finch species. Finch populations with a certain beak shape were able to forage for food. The population of those not having that beak shape decreased. Which of the following describes a necessary condition for these changes in the finch populations to occur?
fewer mutations
limited resources
limited beak variations
underproduction of offspring
Which of these would have the least effect on natural selection in a subspecies of giraffes that is geographically isolated from other subspecies of giraffes?
available niches
existing predators
chromosome number
available food resources
Mutations within a DNA sequence are:
natural processes that produce genetic diversity
natural processes that always affect the phenotype
unnatural processes that always affect the phenotype
unnatural processes that are harmful to genetic diversity
Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?
An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully.
A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate.
A community whose members work together utilizing all existing resources and migratory routes.
The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.
A small population of chimpanzees lives in a habitat that undergoes no changes for a long period. How will genetic drift probably affect this population?
It will accelerate the appearance of new traits.
It will promote the survival of chimpanzees with beneficial traits.
It will increase the number of alleles for specific traits.
It will reduce genetic diversity.
A small portion of the population that is geographically isolated from the rest of the population runs the risk of decreased.
genetic drift
mutation rate
natural selection
genetic variation
In his book On the Origin of the Species, Charles Darwin described how species change over time. Which of the following is NOT part of his observations that describes the mechanisms of natural selection?
Organisms produce more offspring than can survive.
Disease and natural disaster will limit population growth.
Species today descended with modifications from ancestral species.
Organisms with advantages will survive and reproduce.
Theodosius Dobzhansky discovered that successful species tend to have a wide variety of genes that do not appear to be useful to the species in its present environment. What did this discovery help explain about genetics and the changes that occur in a species over time?
Environments with more organisms tend to have more successful species.
Species with greater genetic diversity adapt more easily to changing environments.
Changing environments prevent species from adapting and surviving.
Species in a stable environment are more resistant to a changing environment.
Sexual reproduction is vital to the propagation of the human race. Which of the following sequences represents the correct order of events in the formation of a human fetus?
Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo → Fertilization
Fertilization → Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo
Blastocyst → Embryo → Differentiation → Zygote
Fertilization → Growth → Differentiation → Zygot
The diagram shows a fetus implanted in a female uterus. Fertilization of the egg most likely occurred in which of the following structures?
A
B
C
D
The drinking of alcoholic beverages by a pregnant woman is harmful to the development of her fetus. This is most damaging early in the first trimesters of pregnancy because during this time
the lungs of the fetus become functional.
alcohol can easily enter the mouth of the fetus.
many of the essential organs of the fetus are forming.
the fetus cannot excrete wastes.
Which of the following describes fertilization?
Cell differentiation to form a blastula
Formation of germ layers in a deuterostome
A sperm joining an egg to form a zygote
Sperm and egg production
Abnormalities present in the cells that line the uterus may prevent the production of offspring by directly interfering with which process?
The development of the embryo.
The differentiation of gametes into zygotes.
The secretion of estrogen by the ovary.
The production and release of egg cells.
Sperm are created through meiosis in an area of the testes called the seminiferous tubules. Through which structure do the sperm travel to exit the testes?
vas deferens
seminiferous tubules
scrotum
epididymis
Which of the following is true of a zygote?
It forms into a blastocyst
It is an unfertilized egg
It produces haploid male gametophytes
It is made up of only one cell
What is the human embryo called after the eighth week of development?
a zygote
an infant
a fetus
a morula
Which of the following events occurs during the first trimester?
heart beat begins
lungs fully developed
bones become solid
fetus moves, kicks and swallows
Which structure is represented by the letter D?
scrotum
testes
prostate gland
epididymis
A fertilized egg undergoes several stages before it is successfully implanted. The diagram shows these stages as the fertilized egg travels through the female reproductive system. In which of the following structures of the female human reproductive system is the blastocyst implanted during normal human development?
ovary
uterus
vagina
amniotic sac
The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors. Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow?
A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
A low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
The changing of the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance and lead to a faster blood flow.
The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to a faster blood flow.
Cardiovascular disease runs in Jim’s mother’s family. Jim is only 17 but knows that his mom and grandparents all have high blood pressure. Which of the following best describes the connection between cardiovascular disease and age?
As people age, their blood vessels become more elastic leading to less cardiovascular disease.
As people age, the heart becomes more efficient with each pump, increasing cardiac output.
As people age, blood pressure decreases leading to more cardiovascular disease.
As people age, plaque builds up in the arteries increasing vessel resistance, which leads to disease.
Jim was told that he might need to go on medication if his blood pressure continues to be high. What causes blood pressure?
cholesterol in the blood
stress that exercise puts on heart muscle
contraction of the ventricles in the heart
removal of oxygen from the blood
How do human diseases caused by bacteria and diseases caused by viruses react to antibiotics?
Neither responds to antibiotics.
Both respond to antibiotics.
Viral diseases respond to antibiotics; bacterial diseases do not.
Bacterial diseases respond to antibiotics; viral diseases do not.
Vaccines are weakened forms of disease causing microorganisms, which are given to patients to prevent disease. After the vaccine is administered, what response to the vaccine is triggered in the body?
Secretion of antigens by lymphocytes.
Absorption of histamines throughout the body.
Production of temporary resistance to the disease.
Production of antibodies providing active immunity.
Scientists developed a vaccine to protect humans from the H1N1 virus, which caused 17,000 deaths in 2009. Which of the following persons would most likely contract the H1N1 virus?
A person who did not receive the vaccine and has a weakened immune system due to other conditions.
A person who received the vaccine and has a weakened immune system due to other conditions.
A person who did not receive the vaccine but has a normal immune system.
A person who received the vaccine and has a normal immune system.
