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Worksheets

Question Bank for Grade 9 Science

Total questions: 222

Worksheet time: 4hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Water temperature would be an example of ...

a)

a biotic factor

b)

an abiotic factor

c)

an antibiotic factor

d)

a bacterial factor

2.

A collection of living organisms that belong to different populations but all live in the same area and interact with one another is a...

a)

Population

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Community

d)

Ecosphere

3.

Non-living factor that affects an ecosystem...

a)

biotic factor

b)

abiotic factor

c)

food chain

d)

biome

4.

What are the biotic factors in this image?

a)

sunlight, elephants, grasses

b)

sunlight, water, air

c)

elephants, plants, trees

d)

elephants, clouds, grasses

5.

What are the abiotic factors in this image? (2)

a)

water

b)

birds

c)

plants

d)

air

6.

An ecosystem contains living and nonliving things.

a)
b)
c)
7.

Which of the following is a population?

a)

hawks, barred owls, and eagles on NC coast

b)

mountain stream

c)

all the frogs and fish in a pond

d)

blue-tailed lizards around a barn

8.

Which of the following best describes a community?

a)

sharks, groupers, anemones and shrimp on a coral reef

b)

decorator crabs on the seafloor

c)

loggerhead sea turtles in Atlantic

d)

prairie grassland in Wyoming

9.

What level of organization can be seen here?

a)

Species

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

10.
What level of organization can be observed in the image?
a)
Species
b)
Population
c)
Community
d)
Ecosystem
11.

What is an individual?

a)

One individual member of a species

b)

a group of individuals of a species

c)

all the different populations of a species that live in an area together

d)

a community of organisms and their physical environment

12.

What is a population?

a)

One individual member of a species

b)

a group of individuals that belong to the same species and live in the same area

c)

all the different populations of species that live together in an area

d)

a community of species and the physical environment

13.

What is a community?

a)

One individual of a species

b)

a group of individuals living together in an area

c)

all the different populations living together in an area

d)

different communities and their physical environment

14.

Which is an example of an individual?

a)

One rabbit

b)

Many families of rabbits living together in a field

c)

Rabbits, hawks, and foxes living together in an area

d)

an area of hot climate and little rain where many communities live together

15.

What is an example of a population?

a)

One lion

b)

A group of lions living in the same area

c)

Lions, gazelles, and elephants

d)

A savannah

16.

What is an example of a community?

a)

One fish

b)

Many fish of the same species living in the area

c)

Crabs, sharks, and species of fish in the same area

d)

Many communities and abiotic factors living in an aquatic environment

17.

Which is an example of an ecosystem?

a)

An area of cold climate and communities of similar species

b)

one elk

c)

a group of elks living together in the same area

d)

elks, snow rabbits, and owls living in the same area

18.

Earthworms break down leaves and other organic matter. When they burrow they increase the amount of air and water in the soil. Earthworms are

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Plants

c)

Reptiles

d)

Decomposers

19.

All the alligators in a swamp are an example of a(n) _______________.

a)

organism

b)

community

c)

population

d)

group

20.

Heterotrophs that live and grow on decomposing organic material and break it down as they consume it are known as

a)

decomposers

b)

autotrophs

c)

omnivores

d)

herbivores

21.

In food chains, animals are

a)

Producers

b)

Consumers

c)

Decomposers

d)

Autotrophs

22.

Which organisms can convert solar energy to chemical energy in the form of carbohydrates?

a)

heterotrophs

b)

autotrophs

c)

decomposers

d)

consumers

23.

Which statement best describes the human respiratory system?

a)

It is composed of a network of moist passageways that permit air to flow from the external environment to the lungs

b)

Each cell of the human body is in direct contact with the external environment, and gas exchange occurs by diffusion

c)

The external body surface is kept moist to allow for gas exchange

d)

Gases diffuse across membranes on both the external and internal surfaces of the body

24.

Humans breathe more rapidly during exercise than before it because during exercise the blood contains

a)

an increased level of oxygen

b)

a decreased number of red blood cells

c)

an increased level of carbon dioxide

d)

a decreased amount of hemoglobin

25.

Which body structures have walls one cell thick in order to help gas exchange?

a)

veins and arteries

b)

trachea and bronchi

c)

capillaries and alveoli

d)

lymph vessels and stomach

26.

Carries oxygen and nutrients to all parts of the body.

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Respiratory

27.

Allows movement in the body

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Skeletal

d)

Muscular

28.

Receives stimuli and transports impulses, coordinates actions and reactions in the body

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Respiratory

29.

Supplies blood with oxygen and rids the body of carbon dioxide

a)

Integumentary

b)

Nervous

c)

Circulatory

d)

Respiratory

30.
The main purpose of the ____________ system is to break food particles into pieces that can be used.
a)
circulatory
b)
respiratory
c)
digestive
d)
skeletal
31.
What is responsible for delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body?
a)
cell nucleus
b)
excretory system
c)
nervous tissue
d)
respiratory system
32.
Which of the following shows the levels of organization of an organism from LEAST to MOST complex.
a)
cells-tissues-systems-organs
b)
organs-cells-systems-tissues
c)
systems-organs-tissues-cells
d)
cells-tissues-organs-systems
33.

What are two factors that can affect an enzymes ability to function?

a)

Temperature and pH

b)

Hot and Cold

c)

Dry and Humid

d)

None of the above

34.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
35.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
36.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

37.

Mutations are a change in what?

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

protein

d)

rRNA

38.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
39.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
40.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
41.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
42.

Which organelle is correctly paired with its function?

a)

lysosome - synthesize carbohydrates

b)

mitochondria - synthesize proteins

c)

chloroplast - site for photosynthesis

d)

nucleus - site for cellular respiration

43.

Which structure is present in plant, but not animal cells?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

E

d)

F

44.

Term used to refer to an organism that has two identical alleles for a particular trait.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

45.

Physical characteristics  of an organism.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

46.

Genetic makeup of an organism.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

47.

Some sharks have been genetically modified to grow bigger teeth and move faster in the water. Which statement regarding genetically modified sharks is correct?

a)

Genetically modified sharks have a different protein sequence as wild sharks.

b)

Genetically modified salmon and wild salmon would have identical DNA.

c)

Wild sharks reproduce asexually while genetically modified salmon reproduce sexually.

d)

Genetically modified sharks have the same protein sequence as wild sharks.

48.

What is Photosynthesis?

a)

use moonlight to make their own food

b)

that you eat the plant

c)

use sunlight to make their own food

d)

the plant use energy to eat

49.

Based on the graph, what is the optimum temperature for this enzyme? 

a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
50.

Living things are based on a universal genetic

code. What molecule is responsible for that code?

a)

RNA

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

DNA

51.

An example of a lipid is

a)

Sugar

b)

Olive Oil

c)

Chicken

d)

Jolly Ranchers

52.

Carbohydrates are broken down into

a)

food additive

b)

fats

c)

Monosaccharide sugars

d)

protein

53.

Según la teoría de la selección natural, ¿por qué algunos individuos tienen más probabilidades que otros de sobrevivir y reproducirse? 

a)

Algunos individuos transmiten a su descendencia nuevas características que han adquirido a lo largo de su vida. 

b)

Algunos individuos están mejor adaptados a su entorno que otros. 

c)

Algunos individuos no transmiten a su descendencia las nuevas características que han adquirido a lo largo de su vida. 

d)

Algunos individuos tienden a tener menos descendencia que otros en el mismo entorno. 

54.

La siguiente ilustración muestra un insecto posado sobre unas hojas verdes. 

El tamaño, la forma y el color verde de este insecto son adaptaciones que muy probablemente le ayudarían a 

a)

competir con éxito con todas los pájaros 

b)

hacer su propia comida

c)

esconderse de los depredadores

d)

evitar los residuos tóxicos 

55.

Base su(s) respuesta(s) a la(s) pregunta(s) en el siguiente diagrama y en sus conocimientos de biología. El diagrama muestra las cabezas de cuatro especies diferentes de pinzones de las Islas Galápagos. 

Los cuatro tipos diferentes de picos que se muestran son probablemente el resultado de 

a)

manipulación genética 

b)

selección natural

c)

condiciones ambientales invariables 

d)

patrones de comportamiento aprendidos de los padres 

56.

¿Qué característica es necesaria para que se produzca la selección natural en una especie? 

a)

estabilidad

b)

variación

c)

organización celular compleja 

d)

una tasa de mutación muy baja 

57.

En los miembros de una especie de ave que viven en una isla remota, lo más probable es que el mayor número de variaciones de pico en la población se encuentre cuando 

a)

existe un alto nivel de competencia por unos recursos limitados 

b)

la homeostasis está limitada por un clima severo

c)

disponen de una alimentación amplia y variada 

d)

son presa de un gran número de depredadores 

58.

Varias de las islas Galápagos están habitadas por saltamontes, escarabajos, moscas, abejas y mariposas. Los pinzones que se alimentan de estos consumidores tendrían picos adaptados para 

a)

palpación, sólo 

b)

palpación o agarrar 

c)

aplastamiento o palpación 

d)

comer o agarrar como un loro 

59.

¿Cuál es la ventaja de tener picos de formas diferentes?

a)

Tener un aspecto diferente al de otras especies

b)

Poder comer los alimentos fácilmente disponibles en el entorno

c)

Para protegerse de los depredadores

d)

Para protegerse de las presas

60.

¿Por qué es más probable que los rasgos ventajosos se transmitan a la descendencia?

a)

Porque tienen más probabilidades de sobrevivir y reproducirse.

b)

Porque proceden de alelos dominantes.

c)

Porque proceden de alelos recesivos.

d)

Porque el rasgo es un fenotipo adquirido.

61.

¿Las mutaciones son un cambio en qué?

a)

ADN

b)

ADN

c)

genotipo

d)

fenotipo

62.

¿Qué le dijo a Darwin el tipo de pico de los pinzones de las distintas islas?

a)

Las poblaciones de pinzones evolucionaron con el tiempo para favorecer los picos en función del tipo de alimento

b)

Las poblaciones de pinzones no habían evolucionado con el tiempo

c)

Los picos de los pinzones no tenían relación con la comida disponible en las islas

d)

Los humanos seleccionaron artificialmente a los pinzones en función del tipo de pico que deseaban

63.

Las estructuras similares con diferentes propósitos que se encuentran en diferentes especies se conocen como

a)

estructuras vestigiales

b)

ADN

c)

estructuras homólogas

d)

el registro fósil

64.

El estudio de los organismos en su etapa más temprana de la vida

a)

embriología

b)

el registro fósil

c)

ADN

d)

estructuras vestigiales

65.

La imagen muestra un/una

a)

estructura homóloga

b)

estructura vestigial

66.

La imagen muestra un/una

a)

estructura homóloga

b)

estructura vestigial

67.

¿Qué estructura se muestra en la imagen?

a)

estructura análoga

b)

estructura homóloga

c)

estructura vestigial

d)

ADN

68.

Estructuras con las mismas partes tienen funciones diferentes; sugiere que los organismos comparten una ascendencia común

a)

estructuras vestigiales

b)

estructuras homólogas

c)

radiación adaptativa

d)

fósil

69.

¿Cómo demuestran los fósiles que ha habido evolución en la Tierra?

a)

Los fósiles muestran cómo el tamaño de ciertos animales ha cambiado drásticamente a lo largo de millones de años

b)

Los fósiles muestran que algunas especies se han extinguido

c)

Los fósiles muestran cómo las formas de vida actuales son diferentes de las del pasado

d)

Las diferentes capas de rocas sedimentarias demuestran cómo ha cambiado el medio ambiente a lo largo del tiempo.

70.

El diagrama ilustra un estadio embrionario de dos organismos, un ave y un reptil.

¿Cuál de las siguientes opciones puede determinarse observando los embriones mostrados en el diagrama?

a)

Los organismos comparten una ascendencia común.

b)

Los organismos pertenecen al mismo género.

c)

Los organismos son originarios de las mismas zonas geográficas.

d)

Los organismos crecerán hasta convertirse en adultos anatómicamente similares.

71.

Estructuras vestigiales

a)

estructuras que desempeñan una función similar pero cuyo origen no es similar

b)

restos de estructuras antaño importantes que han perdido lentamente toda o la mayor parte de su función

c)

características que se encuentran en diferentes organismos y que comparten similitudes estructurales pero pueden tener funciones muy diferentes

d)

restos conservados de un organismo

72.

Los cambios de las especies a lo largo del tiempo

a)

Embrión 

b)

Selección natural 

c)

Mimetismo

d)

Evolución 

73.

¿De qué es un ejemplo?

a)

Estructura homóloga

b)

Estructura análoga

c)

Órganos vestigiales

d)

Adaptación funcional

74.

Según estos datos, la especie bacteriana desconocida está más estrechamente relacionada con: 

a)

Especie I

b)

Especie II

c)

Especie III

d)

Especie IV

75.

Predecir qué polilla aumentaría de población

a)

Más ligero

b)

Más oscuro

76.

¿Qué es la ascendencia común?

a)

Cuando una especie deja de existir

b)

Cuando los organismos descienden de un único ancestro

c)

Cuando las especies son las mismas

d)

Cuando las especies tienen exactamente el mismo ADN

77.

El pez de las cavernas y el pececillo están emparentados, pero el pez de las cavernas es ciego y sólo tiene los restos de un ojo. ¿De qué tipo de estructura se trata?

a)

estructura vestigial

b)

análogo

c)

análogo

d)

la misma especie

78.

Which correctly pairs a food molecule with its building block?

a)

Protein - Amino Acid

b)

Amino Acid - Sugar

c)

Carbohydrate - Lipid

d)

Lipid - Nucleotide

79.

Which process produces only identical offspring?

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Fertilization

80.

A photograph of human cells as seen with a compound light microscope is shown below. A cell structure is labeled A.

Structure A is most likely a

a)

Mitochondrion that synthesizes food for the cell

b)

Nucleus that is the site of food storage

c)

Mitochondrion that absorbs energy from the Sun

d)

Nucleus that is responsible for the storage of genetic information

81.

A man is exposed to large amounts of ultraviolet radiation while sunbathing at the beach. This exposure causes a genetic change in the DNA of a skin cell. In the future, this change can be passed on to

a)

His male and female children

b)

His male children, only

c)

All cells in his body

d)

His skin cells, only

82.

The molecule DNA contains the four bases listed below.

A - adenine

C - cytosine

G - guanine

T - thymine

Which base pairings normally occur during DNA replication?

a)

Guanine pairs with cytosine. Thymine pairs with thymine.

b)

Adenine pairs with thymine. Cytosine pairs with guanine.

c)

Thymine pairs with guanine. Cytosine pairs with adenine.

d)

Cytosine pairs with cytosine. Thymine pairs with thymine.

83.

When receiving x rays, individuals wear a lead shield over major organs in order to limit the body's exposure to radiation. One reason for this procedure is to

a)

Protect the patient against broken bones

b)

Prevent mutations in gametes

c)

Improve circulation in the patient

d)

Increase the chance of a change in DNA

84.

The diagram below represents a cell structure involved in converting energy stored in organic molecules into a form used by animal cells.

The arrows represent the movement of which substances?

a)

Carbon dioxide and sugar

b)

Oxygen and ATP

c)

ATP and carbon dioxide

d)

Oxygen and sugar

85.

The diagrams below represent two molecules that are involved in metabolic activities in some living cells.

The shape of each of the molecules is important because

a)

molecules having different shapes are always found in different organisms

b)

the shape of a molecule determines how it functions in chemical reactions

c)

the shape of a molecule determines the age of an organism

d)

if the shape of any molecule in an organism changes, the DNA in that organism will also change

86.

A student used a microscope to observe a single-celled organism. As he watched, it looked as if the organism split into two cells. He made drawings, shown below, of the organism over a short period of time.

Which process did the student record in his drawings?

a)

genetic engineering

b)

selective breeding

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

gamete formation

87.

The graph below represents the effect of pH on three different enzymes at normal body temperature.

The graph illustrates that enzymes 1, 2, and 3

a)

are not affected by pH

b)

work best in an acidic environment

c)

work best at different pH levels

d)

work best in a basic environment

88.
What is the job of the mitochondria?
a)
Makes Energy
b)
Uses Sunlight in Plants
c)
Creates Protein
d)
Protects the cell
89.
Where can you find the chloroplast? 
a)
Only Plants
b)
Only Animals
c)
Plants & Animals
d)
Animals & Bacteria
90.
What organisms have a cell wall? 
a)
Only Plants
b)
Only Animals
c)
Plants & Animals
d)
Animals & Bacteria
91.
Where in the cell are proteins made? 
a)
Ribosome
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleus
92.
Why is the nucleus important? 
a)
It give the cell its energy
b)
It stores genetic information
c)
It uses sunlight for food
d)
It makes the proteins
93.
What does the cell membrane do for cells? 
a)
Allows things in and out
b)
Protection & structure for plant cells
c)
Controls the cell
d)
Holds DNA 
94.
What does the chloroplast do in cells? 
a)
Allows things in and out of cell
b)
Controls the whole cell
c)
Uses sunlight for photosynthesis
d)
Makes energy for the cell
95.
What do plants give off after photosynthesis?
a)
Oxygen
b)
carbon
c)
nitrogen
d)
hydrogen
96.
The products of photosynthesis are
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and water
c)
sugar and cabon dioxide
d)
oxygen and sugar (glucose)
97.
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon dioxide
98.
The main source of energy for all life comes from ____.
a)
the Earth
b)
the moon
c)
the sun
d)
the food we eat/make
99.
What is the purpose of cellular respiration?
a)
to break down food
b)
to create energy in the body
c)
to release energy from food
d)
there is none; it's a waste of time
100.
A process where one cell forms two identical daughter cells is called...
a)
cell cycle
b)
cell division (mitosis)
c)
interphase
d)
cytokinesis
101.

Mitosis takes place in _____

a)

sex cells (gametes)

b)

somatic cell (non sex cells)

102.

Mitosis turns a single parent cell into ____ new cells

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

103.

Meiosis turns a single parent cell into _______ new daughter cells

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

104.

Meiosis takes place in ____

a)

gametes (sex cells)

b)

somatic cells (non sex cells)

105.

The primary function of mitosis is _______

a)

to create genetic variety

b)

growth and repair of cells

106.

The primary function of meiosis is _______

a)

growth and repair

b)

to create genetic variety

107.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
108.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
109.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
110.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
111.
Movement of anything from an area of high concentration to low concentration.
a)
Diffusion
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
d)
Passive Transport
112.

The process of transmission of genes from parents to offspring is called.....

a)

Genetics

b)

Heredity

c)

Evolution

d)

Genesis

113.
Mitosis is the process by which
a)
Cells get bigger
b)
Cells get smaller
c)
Body cells divide into two
d)
Cells die
114.
True or false: When cells divide, they help to repair damaged tissue in your body.
a)
True
b)
False
115.
True or false: Living things grow when their cells divide.
a)
True
b)
False
116.
The original cell before it divides is called the
a)
Father cell
b)
Mother cell
c)
Parent cell
117.
The two cells that result after division are called the
a)
Sister cells
b)
Brother cells
c)
Son cells
d)
Daughter cells
118.
Chromosomes contain what?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
FBI
d)
GNC
119.
A cell spends most of its life in what stage?
a)
Interphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
120.
The dark "spider" looking things on opposite sides of the cell are called "Spindle Fibers".  What is their job?
a)
Eating the chromosomes
b)
Pulling the chromosomes apart
c)
Putting the chromosomes together
121.
How many cells are created at the end of Mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
122.

Name the phase

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

123.

The stage where the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

124.

Name the phase

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

125.

The order of the stages of mitosis are

a)

telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase,

telophase

d)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

126.

Where does the cell contain its genetic makup?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

lysosomes

127.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
128.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
129.

Name the phase:

Hint: Chromosomes are moving apart.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Prophase

130.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
131.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
132.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
133.
Which is telophase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
B
d)
F
134.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
135.

Which of the following is a base pair?

a)

Adenine - Cytosine

b)

Cytosine - Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose - Cytosine

d)

Cytosine - Guanine

136.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

A protein, protein and Guanine

c)

A phosphate, Adenine, and nitrogenous base

d)

A protein, Adenine and nitrogenous base

137.
What do the cells look like at the end of mitosis?
a)
different from original cell
b)
similar to the original cell
c)
identical to the original cell
d)
none of these
138.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
139.
DNA is replicated during the ______ phase of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
Synthesis
c)
G2
d)
G0
140.

What is the purpose of Mitosis?

a)

Growth of an organism and Repair of damaged tissue

b)

To help the body get rid of extra cells

c)

To increase the amount of classwork you have to do

d)

To get rid of the nucleus

141.

Find the complementary DNA sequence: AATCGAC

a)

UUAGCUG

b)

AATCGAC

c)

CCGATCT

d)

TTAGCTG

142.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
143.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
144.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
145.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
146.

In photosynthesis, chlorophyll functions in changing

a)

glucose molecules to starch

b)

water and carbon dioxide to sugar

c)

light energy to chemical bond energy

d)

hydrogen bonds to water

147.

Over a 24-hour period, which factor would have the least effect upon the rate of photosynthesis in a plant?

a)

Concentration of carbon dioxide in the air

b)

Quality of the soil

c)

Wavelengths of light

d)

Availability of water in the soil

148.

The basic inorganic materials used during photosynthesis are

a)

H20 (Water) and C6H12O6 (Glucose)

b)

O2 (Oxygen) and CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

c)

H2O (Water) and CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

d)

CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) and C6H12O6 (Glucose)

149.

Photosynthesis transforms molecules of water and carbon dioxide into molecules of

a)

Oxygen Only

b)

Sugar and Oxygen

c)

Protein and oxygen

d)

polypeptide and nitrogen

150.

Why do plants look green?

Mention the pigment that is in plants and how light interacts with that pigment.

4 lines
151.

The diagram below represents a cell of a green plant. Solar energy is used to produce energy-rich compounds in structure

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

152.

The diagram below represents a cross section of a leaf of a green plant, showing an opening (stomate) in the lower surface.

A stomate in the lower surface of the leaf has a function most similar to the function of which cell structure?

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

153.

The leaves of a plant are dotted with openings known as stomata. When open, stomata allow the plant to exchange gases and allow moisture to evaporate, helping to draw water from the roots up into the plant. These activities help the plant to

a)

produce light energy

b)

Conduct photosynthesis

c)

Decompose organic matter

d)

Synthesize minerals

154.

A green plant is kept in a brightly lighted area for 48 hours. What will most likely occur if the light intensity is then reduced slightly during the next 48 hours?

a)

Photosynthesis will stop completely

b)

.

The rate at which nitrogen is used by the plant will increase

c)

The rate at which oxygen is released from the plant will decrease

d)

Glucose production inside each plant cell will increase

155.

If the process illustrated in the diagram is interrupted by a chemical at point X, there would be an immediate effect on the release of

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Oxygen

156.

A cell in the leaf of a corn plant contains more chloroplasts than a cell in the stem of a corn plant. Based on this observation, it can be inferred that, when compared to the cell in the stem, the cell in the leaf

a)

Synthesizes (makes) more sugar

b)

Has a higher chromosome count

c)

Produces fewer proteins

d)

Uses less carbon dioxide

157.

Plants normally lose water from openings (stomates) in their leaves. The water loss typically occurs during daylight hours when plants are exposed to the Sun. This water loss, known as transpiration, is both beneficial and harmful to plants.

Scientists believe wind and high temperatures increase the rate of transpiration, but the size of each stomate opening can be controlled by the plant. Reducing the size of the openings during drought conditions , with little water, may help reduce the dehydration and wilting that would otherwise occur.

A leaf may lose more than its own weight in water each day. Transpiration also lowers the internal temperature of the leaf as water evaporates. On hot days, temperatures in the leaves may be from 3° to 15°C cooler than the outside air. With stomates open, vital gases may be exchanged between the leaf tissues and the outside environment.

1. State one way transpiration is beneficial to plants.

2. Identify two of the "vital gases" that are exchanged between leaf tissues and the outside environment.

4 lines
158.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
159.
What two elements make up water?
a)
Helium and oxygen
b)
Hydrogen and oxygen
c)
helium and carbon
d)
oxygen and carbon
160.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
161.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
162.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
163.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
164.
 Small insects can walk across the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, somewhat like a person walking across a trampoline, but they do not break the surface. What is the best explanation for why this happens?
a)
The insects are light enough so that they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together
b)
The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water's surface and they only skim it with their feet
c)
The insects' feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water's surface
d)
The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next
165.
The tightness across the surface of water that enables paper clips to float is ____________.
a)
adhesion
b)
capillary action
c)
surface tension
d)
polarity
166.
Which statement explains why water molecules stick together?
a)
both sides are negative
b)
one side has a positive charge and the other side has a negative charge
c)
one side has a negative charge adn the other side has a neutral charge
d)
both sides are positive
167.
When a molecule has an opposite electrical charge on each end, it is known as what?
a)
cohesion
b)
polar molecule
c)
hydrogen bond
d)
solution
168.
Water beads up on the surface of a penny because of what property?
a)
Adhesion
b)
High Surface Tension
c)
Universal Solvent
d)
Changes in Density
169.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
170.
A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt to their environment
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things have cells
d)
All living things use energy
171.
Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11".
a)
All living things contain cells
b)
All living things maintain homeostasis
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things grow
172.
The roots of a plant grow towards a source of ground water.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things reproduce
c)
All living things respond to their environment
d)
All living things grow
173.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
174.

Living things are made up of units called

a)

DNA

b)

Cells

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Seeds

175.

Living things are based on a universal genetic

code. What molecule is responsible for that code?

a)

RNA

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

DNA

176.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
177.
Information gathered using your 5 senses.
a)
Observation
b)
Inference
178.
Mini conclusion used to explain what you see, hear, or experience.
a)
Observation
b)
Inference
179.

Based on the graph, what is the optimum temperature for this enzyme? 

a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
180.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered or denatured
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
181.
Enzymes are
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
182.

Which is the strongest acid?

a)

ph of 1

b)

ph of 4

c)

ph of 7

d)

ph of 9

183.

A solution with a pH of 9 is a(n) ___.

a)

Acid

b)

Base

184.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
185.
With what 3 letters do enzymes typically end?
a)
-ose
b)
-ase
c)
-ese
d)
-tic
186.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
187.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
188.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
189.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
190.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
191.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shape of the enzyme are changed and it denatures

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

192.
The molecule an enzyme is working on is called the:
a)
Substrate
b)
Solvent
c)
Allosteric Inhibitor
d)
CoEnzyme
193.
Which of these is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction. 
c)
Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 
194.
What is the function of an enzyme?
a)
enzymes break themselves into small pieces
b)
enzymes slow down chemical reactions
c)
enzymes speed up chemical reactions
d)
enzymes combine products to form reactants 
195.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
196.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
197.

What are two factors that can affect an enzymes ability to function?

a)

Temperature and pH

b)

Hot and Cold

c)

Dry and Humid

d)

None of the above

198.

Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?

a)

Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.

b)

Because they come from dominant alleles.

c)

Because they come from recessive alleles.

d)

Because the organism knew it needed that trait, survives, and passes it on.

199.

Mutations are a change in what?

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

protein

d)

rRNA

200.
The differences among a species, like different bird beaks, are called
a)
genes.
b)
variations.
c)
traits.
d)
theories.
201.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
202.
What process is being shown in this image?
a)
Variation
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Homeostasis
203.

"Organisms that are better adapted to the environment survive to pass traits to their offspring" is the definition of

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Evolution

c)

Selective Breeding

d)

Artificial Selection

204.
Which organisms are most likely to survive?
a)
the best adapted
b)
the fastest
c)
the strongest
d)
the most domesticated (tamed)
205.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
206.

Which organelle is correctly paired with its function?

a)

lysosome - synthesize carbohydrates

b)

mitochondria - synthesize proteins

c)

chloroplast - site for photosynthesis

d)

nucleus - site for cellular respiration

207.

Which structure is present in plant, but not animal cells?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

E

d)

F

208.

Specialized cell involved in sexual reproduction.

a)

Gamete

b)

Somate

c)

Allele

d)

Gene

209.

Term used to refer to an organism that has two identical alleles for a particular trait.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

210.

Term used to refer to an organism that has two different alleles for a particular trait.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

211.

Physical characteristics  of an organism.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

212.

Genetic makeup of an organism.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Homozygous

c)

Genotype

d)

Heterozygous

213.

As a way to reduce the number of cases of malaria, a human tropical disease, a specific DNA sequence is inserted into the reproductive cells of Anopheles mosquitoes. Which process was most likely used to alter these mosquitoes? cloning studies

a)

cloning studies

b)

genetic engineering

c)

natural selection

d)

random mutations

214.

Some sharks have been genetically modified to grow bigger teeth and move faster in the water. Which statement regarding genetically modified sharks is correct?

a)

Genetically modified sharks have a different protein sequence as wild sharks.

b)

Genetically modified salmon and wild salmon would have identical DNA.

c)

Wild sharks reproduce asexually while genetically modified salmon reproduce sexually.

d)

Genetically modified sharks have the same protein sequence as wild sharks.

215.

In mRNA what pairs with Adenine?

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

216.

Where is DNA stored in a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Vacuole

217.
Which statement is supported by the information in the graph below?
a)
The enzymes respond in a similar way to changes in temperature.
b)
The enzymes in bacteria function best at 40°C.
c)
The enzymes function best at the same temperature.
d)
The enzymes break down the same substances.Listen
218.

What is Photosynthesis?

a)

use moonlight to make their own food

b)

that you eat the plant

c)

use sunlight to make their own food

d)

the plant use energy to eat

219.

What is Ribosomes?

a)

it is a cellular respiration

b)

sites of protein synthesis

c)

that makes energy

d)

that makes their own food

220.

Mitochondria?

a)

ATP and Cellular Respiration takes place here

b)

makes energy

c)

make protein

d)

to protect the cell

221.

What is the sequence of amino acids that will be translated from the mRNA below?


5’ CCC AGU AGG CGG 3’

a)

Pro-Ser-Arg-Arg

b)

Leu-Ser-Arg-Ser

c)

Leu-Arg-Ser-Arg

d)

Pro-Ser-Arg-Pro

222.

What is the sequence of amino acids that will be translated from the mRNA below?


5’ UGC GAU ACG GAA 3’

a)

Try-Asp-Thr-Glu

b)

Cys-Glu-Thr-Glu

c)

Try-Glu-Thr-Asp

d)

Cys-Asp-Thr-Glu

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