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Patho Exam 2

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the symptoms of respiratory and metabolic acidosis?

a)

fatigue

b)

muscle cramping

c)

tingling in fingers and toes

d)

confusion

2.

CO2 + H2O    H+ + HCO3CO_2\ +\ H_2O\ \leftrightarrow\ \cdots\ \longleftrightarrow\ H^+\ +\ HCO_3^-  

What is the intermediate to this equation?

a)

H2 + CO3H_{2\ }+\ CO_3^-  

b)

H2O2 + COH_2O_{2\ }+\ CO  

c)

H2CO3H_2CO_3  

d)

HCO2OHHCO_2OH  

3.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding to respiration?

a)

Inspiration occurs as alveolar pressure drops below atmospheric pressure

b)

Atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg

c)

As PO2P_{O2}   increases, the bronchioles and systemic arterioles constrict

d)

Bronchodilation increases mucus secretion

4.

What is the sensation of not being able to get enough air?

(a)  

5.

What are the severe/chronic changes that happen due to asthma?

a)

loss of epithelial cells

b)

persistent immune cell infiltration

c)

decreased smooth muscle cells and mucus secreting cells

d)

increased extracellular matrix

6.

What pulmonary disorder damages the alveoli?

a)

Chronic bronchitis

b)

Emphysema

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Asthma

7.

What is a symptom of cystic fibrosis? (multiple answers)

(a)  

8.

Which of the following treatments match the disorder correctly?

a)

COPD - PDE4 inhibitors

b)

Cystic Fibrosis - anti-inflammatory steroids

c)

Asthma - CFTR modulators

d)

Allergic Rhinitis - ß2 receptor agonists

9.

What is the highlighted structure called?

a)

Ciliary body

b)

Retina

c)

Vitreous

d)

Sclera

10.

Which of the following affect regulation of IOP? Select all that apply

a)

Inflow: decreased alpha2

b)

Inflow: increased carbonic anhydrase

c)

Outflow: increased prostaglandins

d)

Outflow: increased activation of muscarinic receptors

11.

What kind of age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is caused by accumulation of drusen and detaches photoreceptors?

(a)  

12.

What are some risk factors for cataracts? Select all that apply

a)

Racial background

b)

Long term use of corticosteroids

c)

Diabetes

d)

Increased IOP

13.

Which one is NOT found within the liver?

a)

Superior mesenteric vein

b)

Gall Bladder

c)

Caudate lobe

d)

Falciform ligament

14.

What is the cause of jaundice? The buildup of what?

(a)  

15.

What are some causes of cirrhosis? Select all that apply

a)

Excessive alcohol consumption

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

Obesity

d)

Exposure to asbestos

16.

What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

a)

Renal failure from damaged hepatocytes

b)

Lack of albumin leaks fluid into interstitium

c)

Build up of ammonia and other toxic waste alters brain function

d)

Portal hypertension leads to enlarged spleen

17.

Which inflammatory mediator correctly matches with their activity?

a)

Histamine - leukocyte adhesion

b)

Nitric Oxide - smooth muscle relaxation

c)

Prostaglandins - increased permeability

d)

Proteases - microbial killing

18.

Which pathway(s) acts on arachidonic acid to generate leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes?

a)

Hydro-peroxygenase

b)

Cyclooxygenase

c)

Lipoxygenase

d)

Oxidase

19.

What are the signs/symptoms of acute inflammation?

a)

Redness and heat due to vasodilation

b)

Influx of plasma proteins leading to edema

c)

Increased cell proliferation leading to tissue damage

d)

Pain and fever due to decrease of pyrogens

20.

What is the chronic autoimmune disease that causes a butterfly rash, joint pain, and weight gain?

(a)  

21.

What causes RA?

a)

The immune system expands nitric oxide within the joint cavities, causing stiffness

b)

The immune system attacks the bone cartilage, causing a decrease in rheumatoid factor

c)

The immune system increases hyaluronan in joint fluid, causing calcification

d)

The immune system attacks the synovium, causing an increase in pannus

22.

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

IL-1 receptor antagonists (Kineret)

b)

IL-6 receptor blockers (Actemra)

c)

IL-2 receptor agonist (Daclizumab)

d)

TNF-alpha inhibitors (Humira)

23.

What are some common causes of gout? Select all that apply

a)

Uric acid not excreted by kidneys

b)

increased meat and seafood consumption

c)

diuretics and immunosuppressants

d)

excessive alcohol consumption

24.

What is one medication that can treat gout? Multiple answers.

(a)  

25.

Which of the following is correct about IBD?

a)

Ulcerative colitis affects the distal small intestine/proximal large intestine

b)

Crohn's disease can cause anemia and constipation

c)

Common symptom for all IBD is skip lesions

d)

Can be caused by epithelial barrier mutations

26.

Which gram negative bacteria causes pneumonia?

a)

Haemophilus influenzae

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Bacillus anthracis

27.

Which is true about Rat-Lungworm disease?

a)

Major pathological events occur in the intestines

b)

Gastropods function as the intermediate host

c)

There is no treatment

d)

Leading cause of Eosinophilic Meningitis

28.

What type of antimicrobial infection can cause this?

a)

Retrovirus

b)

RNA virus

c)

DNA virus

d)

Gram positive bacteria

29.

What are some common upper respiratory infections?

a)

Common cold

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Influenza

d)

Laryngitis

30.

Which type of Influenza can contain either hemagglutinin or neuraminidase?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

31.

What are some complications of AIDs?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

CD4+ T cell count under 450 cells/mm3

c)

respiratory tract yeast infections

d)

Kaposi's sarcoma

32.

What type of Tuberculosis is inactive, does not display symptoms, and is not contagious?

(a)  

33.

Which of the following is not a virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

a)

capsule prevents clearance

b)

capsule forms interaction with complement factors

c)

pneumolysin is a pore forming toxin

d)

pneumolysin is released when bacteria is lysed

34.

Which of the following are true for C. difficile?

a)

It produces Toxin A and B

b)

It is transmitted by fecal matter

c)

The use of antibiotics disrupt normal GI flora and introduce C. diff spores

d)

Results in watery diarrhea, fever, loss of appetite, abdominal pain

35.

Which antibiotic is used for hospital-acquired resistant S. aureus?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Methicillin

c)

Linezolid

d)

Vancomycin

36.

To be diagnosed with severe sepsis, you must display what symptoms?

a)

Significantly decreased urine output

b)

Abrupt change in mental status

c)

Fever above 101.3°F or below 95°F

d)

Extremely low blood pressure and respiratory rate lower than 15 breaths/min

37.

Which of the following is associated with granuloma formation?

a)

pneumonia

b)

tuberculosis

c)

influenza

d)

c. difficile

38.

How is Dengue Fever transmitted (vector/animal)?

(a)  

39.

Which is not a symptom of ebola?

a)

Myalgia

b)

Severe sore throat

c)

Delirium

d)

Coughing up blood

40.

True or false - there is no cure for HIV

a)

True

b)

False