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WorksheetsMedical Law and Ethics Finals Review
Total questions: 155
Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins
In which of the following cases is mandatory reporting required (click all that apply):
child, elder, and intimate partner abuse; assaults, and other criminal acts
use of a controlled substance
births and deaths
communicable diseases
a parent disciplining their child
Amphetamines are a Schedule ___ drug.
IV
III
I
II
Preparations containing limited quantities of narcotics (e.g., cough medicine) are considered Schedule __ drugs.
III
IV
II
V
Child abuse is a leading cause of death among children younger than 5 years of age.
True
False
A birth certificate and a Certificate of Live Birth are two separate documents.
True
False
According to the National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey conducted by the CDC, nearly 1 in 10 women have been raped by an intimate partner in her lifetime.
True
False
A coroner or a medical examiner would complete the death certificate in which following case(s):
criminal act
when a postmortem needs to be performed
accidental deaths or suicides
if no one was around at time of death (in attendance), or a patient found at home
All of the above
Why does the health care field require statutory reporting?
So the government can keep track of individuals
For statistical data
For the welfare of the general public
All of the above
Abuse of prescription drugs is less harmful than that of illicit ones.
True
False
Opioids and other prescription drugs account for more addicted users than cocaine, hallucinogens, inhalants, and heroin combined.
True
False
Why must a death certificate be issued?
For banking purposes
So the family can be at rest
So the attending physician can bill the patient’s insurance company
For statistical reasons for the county
As with all medical charting and other legal documentation, it is essential that a birth certificate be accurate and legible when submitted to local authorities; and some states can impose severe penalties against individuals for improperly, incorrectly, or knowingly reporting false information on birth certificates.
True
False
The Older Americans Act of 1987 protects adults older than age 60 from all of the following, except:
Abandonment
Malnutrition
Exploitation
Abuse
Regardless of the drug type and its potential for addiction, healthcare providers have no restrictions for what kind, how much, and how often prescriptions can be written and filled.
True
False
Criticizing is considered which type of abuse:
Physical
Sexual
Verbal/emotional
Psychological
The following are all reportable communicable diseases, except:
Sexually transmitted infections
Tetanus
Influenza
Tuberculosis
According to the Controlled Substances Act of 1970, a Schedule I drug has a ________ potential for abuse.
high
low
moderate
low to moderate
What is the most important for distinguishing between the terms STI and STD when contacting the sexual partners of an infected individual?
Healthcare workers are only supposed to provide prevention education in cases of STD's.
The sexual partner should have education on the difference.
Only STD's are reportable.
The sexual partner may be unaware that they are infected due to not presenting with any symptoms.
Which of the following is not true regarding tail coverage?
The coverage applies only if the wrongful act giving rise to the reported claim took place during the expired or canceled policy period.
Purchasing tail coverage for a specific time period does not reinstate the policy's maximum monetary limit of liability.
There is no coverage available for wrongful acts committed during the period of tail coverage.
Applies for an unlimited time period/indefinitely.
The aggregate limit is the maximum dollar amount your insurer will pay in total to settle your claims over the entire period of coverage.
True
False
When there are disagreements about a claim-related accident, exclusions in an employer’s liability policy can cause which of the following?
Conflict
Loyalty
Resolution
Penalties
Generally, an insurance carrier will settle a lawsuit if the claimant has at least a ___% chance of winning at trial.
40
25
50
30
Most physicians’ offices carry a liability policy. Which would not be covered under the policy?
Medical assistant
Patient
Receptionist
Physician
Right of contribution is when no one else can bear responsibility for an incident that resulted in a claim.
True
False
A healthcare professional should always examine key features of an insurance policy before signing anything, and know ahead of time what features they should expect to find.
True
False
A premium is the amount of money an insurer charges to provide the coverage described in the policy.
True
False
The prime objective of obtaining liability coverage is to:
provide protection against high legal costs.
protect assets in the event of a settlement in the claimant’s favor.
avoid paying malpractice claims.
avoid patient malpractice lawsuits.
A prior acts policy covers claims during the policy period arising out of events that precede the policy period.
True
False
If an insurer pays a claim even though the physician contends that he or she was not at fault, the insurer may be exercising the right to:
contribution
defense
indemnification
settlement
An independent contractor is an employee that works for another person or entity.
True
False
This type of policy covers incidents that occurred before the beginning effective date of the policy:
Claims-made
Tail coverage
Occurrence basis
Prior acts
Disciplinary defense insurance is a type of professional liability insurance that is not typically included as a feature in most professional liability policies.
True
False
An umbrella policy will not provide coverage for events excluded from the basic policy coverage.
True
False
What is the best way to notify an insurer if a claim has been made against an insured person or facility?
Call and leave a message.
Send a letter by regular first-class mail.
Wait until a lawsuit is filed to do anything.
Send a letter by certified mail, return receipt requested.
An _________ policy provides coverage beyond the amount limits of the basic policy.
Umbrella
Negligence
Tail coverage
Vicarious
If the insurer determines that individuals not named in the claim played a role in the incident that led to the filing, the insurer may exercise the right of:
contribution
cancellation
indemnification
nonrenewal
Which of the following claims would probably be excluded from a professional liability policy?
Removing the wrong organ
Dispensing the wrong medication
Sexually assaulting a patient
Reporting incorrect lab results to a patient
Respondeat superior is the latin legal doctrine which states that an employer is responsible for the actions of employees performed within the course of their employment.
True
False
If a correction needs to be made in medical chart documentation, the original entry can simply be erased, removed, or deleted from the patient's medical record.
True
False
HIPAA violation Category 1
A violation that the covered entity (CE) was unaware of and could not have realistically avoided had a reasonable amount of care been taken to abide by HIPAA rules.
A violation that the covered entity (CE) should have been aware of but could not have avoided even with a reasonable amount of care.
A violation suffered as a direct result of “willful neglect” of HIPAA Rules, in cases in which an attempt has been made to correct the violation.
A violation of HIPAA rules constituting willful neglect, where no attempt has been made to correct the violation.
HIPAA violation Category 2
A violation that the covered entity (CE) was unaware of and could not have realistically avoided had a reasonable amount of care been taken to abide by HIPAA rules.
A violation that the covered entity (CE) should have been aware of but could not have avoided even with a reasonable amount of care.
A violation suffered as a direct result of “willful neglect” of HIPAA Rules, in cases in which an attempt has been made to correct the violation.
A violation of HIPAA rules constituting willful neglect, where no attempt has been made to correct the violation.
HIPAA violation Category 3
A violation that the covered entity (CE) was unaware of and could not have realistically avoided had a reasonable amount of care been taken to abide by HIPAA rules.
A violation that the covered entity (CE) should have been aware of but could not have avoided even with a reasonable amount of care.
A violation suffered as a direct result of “willful neglect” of HIPAA Rules, in cases in which an attempt has been made to correct the violation.
A violation of HIPAA rules constituting willful neglect, where no attempt has been made to correct the violation.
HIPAA violation Category 4
A violation that the covered entity (CE) was unaware of and could not have realistically avoided had a reasonable amount of care been taken to abide by HIPAA rules.
A violation that the covered entity (CE) should have been aware of but could not have avoided even with a reasonable amount of care.
A violation suffered as a direct result of “willful neglect” of HIPAA Rules, in cases in which an attempt has been made to correct the violation.
A violation of HIPAA rules constituting willful neglect, where no attempt has been made to correct the violation.
The laws and guidelines for the storage and maintenance of medical records vary among each state.
True
False
In regard to the SOAP charting format, which of the following information is considered objective?
A diagnosis.
Patient-provided history of alcohol use.
The plan for treatment.
Temperature of 97.4
SOAP is an acronym used to document in patient's medical chart meaning:
Substantive, Observant, Assessment, Planning
Substantive, Objective, Assessing, Planning
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
Subjective, Observant, Assessing, Plan
An EHR is a narrower view of a patient's medical history, whereas an EMR is a more comprehensive report of the patient's overall health, and shared with different healthcare professionals as needed.
True
False
SOAP format charting functions for Subjective:
Next steps to take, which may include additional tests, treatments or procedures, referrals, and follow-up plans; also any education provided or other relevant interactions with the patient or family member.
The differential diagnosis, or the list of possible diagnoses based on the presenting signs and symptoms.
The patient's vital signs, height and weight, findings from the physical examinations, and results of any laboratory or diagnostic test.
A brief statement on the purpose of the visit and should include the chief complaint (CC), history of present illness (HPI), and any past, family, and social history taken (PFSH).
SOAP format charting functions for Objective:
Next steps to take, which may include additional tests, treatments or procedures, referrals, and follow-up plans; also any education provided or other relevant interactions with the patient or family member.
The differential diagnosis, or the list of possible diagnoses based on the presenting signs and symptoms.
The patient's vital signs, height and weight, findings from the physical examinations, and results of any laboratory or diagnostic test.
A brief statement on the purpose of the visit and should include the chief complaint (CC), history of present illness (HPI), and any past, family, and social history taken (PFSH).
SOAP format charting functions for Assessment:
Next steps to take, which may include additional tests, treatments or procedures, referrals, and follow-up plans; also any education provided or other relevant interactions with the patient or family member.
The differential diagnosis, or the list of possible diagnoses based on the presenting signs and symptoms.
The patient's vital signs, height and weight, findings from the physical examinations, and results of any laboratory or diagnostic test.
A brief statement on the purpose of the visit and should include the chief complaint (CC), history of present illness (HPI), and any past, family, and social history taken (PFSH).
SOAP format charting functions for Plan:
Next steps to take, which may include additional tests, treatments or procedures, referrals, and follow-up plans; also any education provided or other relevant interactions with the patient or family member.
The differential diagnosis, or the list of possible diagnoses based on the presenting signs and symptoms.
The patient's vital signs, height and weight, findings from the physical examinations, and results of any laboratory or diagnostic test.
A brief statement on the purpose of the visit and should include the chief complaint (CC), history of present illness (HPI), and any past, family, and social history taken (PFSH).
A patient comes into a medical office and demands that he be given his medical record. Which of these statements is FALSE in this situation?
The patient is the owner of the information in the record.
The patient is allowed to take his medical record.
The patient is not allowed to take his medical record because the physical record belongs to the physician or healthcare facility.
The provider is the owner of the physical record.
CHEDDAR format charting functions for Chief Complaint:
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
Details and history of present illness (HPI) and past illness, including hospitalization, surgeries, and physical history.
All findings during the physical examination, including the review of systems, vital signs, and any tests results.
Patient complaints or detailed information about specific concerns regarding the current visit.
All medications that the patient is currently taking, including herbal supplements and vitamins, and any allergies to medications.
CHEDDAR format charting functions for History:
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
Details and history of present illness (HPI) and past illness, including hospitalization, surgeries, and physical history.
All findings during the physical examination, including the review of systems, vital signs, and any tests results.
All medications that the patient is currently taking, including herbal supplements and vitamins, and any allergies to medications.
Detailed documentation regarding the assessment of the patient, including diagnostic process, differential diagnosis, and any future treatment plans.
CHEDDAR format charting functions for Examination:
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
Patient complaints or detailed information about specific concerns regarding the current visit.
All medications that the patient is currently taking, including herbal supplements and vitamins, and any allergies to medications.
All findings during the physical examination, including the review of systems, vital signs, and any tests results.
Details and history of present illness (HPI) and past illness, including hospitalization, surgeries, and physical history.
CHEDDAR format charting functions for Details:
Details and history of present illness (HPI) and past illness, including hospitalization, surgeries, and physical history.
All findings during the physical examination, including the review of systems, vital signs, and any tests results.
Patient complaints or detailed information about specific concerns regarding the current visit.
Detailed documentation regarding the assessment of the patient, including diagnostic process, differential diagnosis, and any future treatment plans.
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
CHEDDAR format charting functions for Drugs and dosages:
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
All findings during the physical examination, including the review of systems, vital signs, and any tests results.
Detailed documentation regarding the assessment of the patient, including diagnostic process, differential diagnosis, and any future treatment plans.
Details and history of present illness (HPI) and past illness, including hospitalization, surgeries, and physical history.
All medications that the patient is currently taking, including herbal supplements and vitamins, and any allergies to medications.
CHEDDAR format charting functions for Assessment:
All findings during the physical examination, including the review of systems, vital signs, and any tests results
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
Detailed documentation regarding the assessment of the patient, including diagnostic process, differential diagnosis, and any future treatment plans.
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
A schedule of future appointments or referral to a specialist.
CHEDDAR format charting functions Return to office:
Detailed documentation regarding the assessment of the patient, including diagnostic process, differential diagnosis, and any future treatment plans.
Patient complaints or detailed information about specific concerns regarding the current visit.
Details and history of present illness (HPI) and past illness, including hospitalization, surgeries, and physical history.
Examination findings and any test results reviewed, including chief complaint, presenting problems, and any statements from the patient.
A schedule of future appointments or referral to a specialist.
Which of the following are elements of the medical record? (Click ALL that apply)
Patient wage/salary information
Procedural consent forms
Insurance coverage information
Communication with and/or regarding the patient
Medication history
The "golden rule" as it pertains to medical records is:
If it is not documented, it did not happen.
Be diligent in documentation or dictation of the events of all encounters.
The thoroughness of that record is essential.
Appreciate the importance of maintaining the credibility of the record.
Patient rights include all of the following, except:
the right to choose how they want to die.
the right to accept or refuse medical treatment.
the right to make an advance healthcare directive.
the right to facilitate their own healthcare decisions.
This Act states that all patients have the right to create a living will.
Patient Self-Determination Act
Advance Directive Act
The Right to Die Act
Uniform Rights of the Terminally Ill Act
Hospice care can include all of the following, except:
planning the patient’s funeral
providing support to all involved for the physical and psychological stresses of terminal illness
counseling about anxiety and grief
treating physical symptoms
If a patient is in a persistent vegetative state, he or she may have moments of wakefulness and reflexive responses.
True
False
This document allows an individual to make bank transactions and write checks to pay the bills while an individual is medically incapacitated.
Durable power of attorney
Healthcare proxy
Living will
Do not resuscitate
If a patient becomes incapacitated and specifies what types of medical treatment they want, this is considered a:
durable power of attorney
do not resuscitate order
healthcare proxy
living will
A female patient’s brother informs you that he has the right to make medical decisions for her. This is a:
do not resuscitate order
durable power of attorney
healthcare proxy
living will
Who is responsible for making sure an advance directive is followed?
The patient
The facility providing care
The patient’s family
The physician
If a patient is unable to accept his or her condition is terminal, this is considered the ____ stage of grief.
anger
bargaining
denial
depression
According to the UDDA, one of the determinations of death is:
irreversible interruption of brain activity and respiratory functions.
irreversible interruption of brain activity and circulatory functions.
irreversible interruption of circulatory and heart functions.
irreversible interruption of circulatory and respiratory functions.
The ethnic and socioeconomic diversity of both consumers and providers of healthcare services in many communities may be significant, which can create potential barriers to helping participants determine solutions for settling misunderstandings, disputes, and conflicts in the healthcare setting.
True
False
Which is not an advantage of alternative dispute resolution?
It is less expensive.
It involves less publicity.
There are no long court delays.
No attorneys are allowed.
In 2008, TJC identified that the lack of _____ skills was the root cause for disruptive behavior.
communication
negotiation
conflict management
verbal
The Joint Commission's Sentinel Event Alert titled “Behaviors That Undermine a Culture of Safety” identified the lack of conflict management skills as a root cause of disruptive behavior.
True
False
When you are thinking about a conflict and your inner voice is talking to yourself, what type of conflict response is this?
Positive response
Cognitive response
Physical response
Emotional response
Accommodating is also referred to as “smoothing” or “giving in,” and is the opposite of competing.
True
False
Two different hospitals decide to have a contest to see which hospital can raise the most funds for a local cancer research center. This is considered:
negotiation
positive conflict
negative conflict
competition
Which is not one of the usual stages of mediation?
Identification of party’s interests
Submission of documents to a court for approval
Information gathering
Negotiation and selection of appropriate resolution
When people bargain for what they want, which resolution method are they using?
Negotiation
Mediation
Communication
Arbitration
Compromising is a style in which an individual's own needs are advocated over the needs of others.
True
False
Which of the following is NOT an example of potentially disruptive behaviors among healthcare professionals?
Criticizing other caregivers in front of patients or other staff.
Deliberate failure to adhere to organizational policies without adequate reason.
Throwing instruments, charts, or other objects.
Comments that undermine a patient's trust in other caregivers or the hospital.
Reporting the violation(s) of a coworker.
Personal conduct, whether verbal or physical, that affects patient care negatively is called:
negative conflict
competing
non-accommodating
disruptive behavior
Strong gender inequities remain in healthcare in terms of the services offered to patients, the opportunities for staff, and the diversity within groups of healthcare professionals, which is a key contributing factor that may create misunderstandings, disputes, and conflicts in the healthcare setting.
True
False
The “captain of the ship” doctrine refers to:
it does not matter who is in charge; everyone is responsible.
the physician is always in charge.
you are responsible for your own choices.
the person in charge is responsible.
When you feel rage after a conflict, this is considered what type of conflict response?
Emotional
Cognitive
Physical
disruptive behavior
A nurse is completely ignoring the wishes of her coworkers as well as the policies of the institution, and many of them are fed up with her antics. Another nurse encourages her coworkers to “give it time, it will blow over,” after one of her tirades. What type of conflict behavioral style is this?
Accommodating
Avoiding
Compromising
Competing
It is not important for all healthcare professionals to understand the origins of conflict because supervisors are trained to intervene and develop strategies to manage the conflicts they experience.
True
False
Which of the following is NOT a type of process or technique that a facilitator may use to resolve issues?
Action planning
Disciplinary action
Guided dialogue
Focused conversation
In this insurance plan, the patient chooses his or her provider and pays a flat fee (co-pay) to the provider.
HMO
PPO
Worker’s compensation
Point-of-service
A patient member of an HMO selects a primary care physician (PCP) to be the gatekeeper who manages their health and provides referrals for any specialists needed for consultation.
True
False
CHAMPVA, part of TRICARE, is coverage for disabled vets and their dependents.
True
False
Which is a benefit to the employment of non-physician/mid-level providers?
In many states, nurse practitioners are able to practice independently and open their own practices.
Services cost less than physicians'.
Services are billable under insurance if they are properly licensed.
All of the above
All specialists must have the same amount of education.
True
False
PPO is an acronym for Personal Provider Organizations.
True
False
A disadvantage to an HMO is:
they give too many referrals to specialists.
the patient has less control and less choice of provider
they are too large.
you have to pay first, and then get reimbursed.
All licensed physicians have undergone a minimum of undergraduate education and completed medical school and residency requirements.
True
False
PPO insurance plans are not as popular as HMO's because they do not allow members much flexibility in choosing their providers.
True
False
A person can be covered by both Medicaid and Medicare.
True
False
The insurance used to cover military members and their families is called MEDICARE
True
False
Medicine is a business.
True
False
This type of provider is not required to complete full medical school requirements.
DO
PT
Surgeon
MD
Which type of practice has one physician that owns and operates the practice, but can employ other providers to work on an hourly or daily basis?
Sole proprietorship
Solo practice
Group practice
Associate practice
Who can bill directly to insurance companies?
RNs
LPNs
BSNs
NPs
A legal agreement in which physicians share staff and overhead expenses of operation but do not share in the legal responsibility or in the profits of the business.
Group practice
Solo Practice
Associate practice
Sole Proprietorship
The individual who brings a case to court is the:
plaintiff
defendant
defending attorney
prosecuting attorney
If a physician is being sued by a patient for the acts of a medical assistant, which ONE of the following Latin terms applies?
Respondeat superior
Res ipsa loquitur
Quid pro quo
Stare decisis
In this type of defense, the medical record plays the largest part of the defense.
Good Samaritan
Assumption of risk
Affirmative
Emergency care
Bioethics is defined as the field of study examining the ethical dilemmas surrounding:
advances in bioscience.
advances in diagnostic treatment procedures
ethical issues surrounding medical research
all of the above
Bioethicists study:
The conflict between physicians as legislation advances.
The conflict between socialized medicine and private care.
The conflict between science and religion.
The conflict between different and varying values as medicine advances.
Only certain healthcare professionals are bound by law to protect the confidentiality of the medical record.
True
False
At-will employment means:
the employer and/or employee may discontinue employment at any time.
the employee may perform duties not listed on the job description.
the employee must be warned before being fired.
the employer may change the employee’s position at-will.
The four (4) types of torts are:
false imprisonment, slander, libel, and trespass.
negligence, strict liability, intentional torts, and quasi-intentional torts.
duty, dereliction of duty, damages, and direct cause.
Breach of confidentiality, defamation, assault, and battery.
Which is NOT a way to resolve conflicts using alternative dispute resolution?
Compensation
Negotiation
Mediation
Arbitration
The United States Supreme Court hears multitudes of cases each year.
True
False
CLIA guidelines pertain to medical record security.
True
False
An example of utilitarianism would be the decision in a malpractice suit of responsibility in the case.
True
False
The bioethical principle that healthcare workers always should try to help patients is the principle of:
Nonmaleficence
Justice
Respect for autonomy
Beneficence
Which is an individual’s responsibility for his or her conduct for failure to meet a standard of care?
Professionalism
Sentinel
Carelessness
Liability
Which healthcare professional is bound to protect the confidentiality of the medical record?
The physician and his or her staff
The nurse providing patient care
All healthcare personnel
The ancillary personnel in the hospital
The form of consent that is not expressly granted by a person, but rather inferred from a person's actions and the facts and circumstances in a specific situation is:
Informed consent
Implied consent
Expressed consent
Explicit consent
Actions that show respect for human dignity, such as being honest and morally sound, best reflects which of the following principles?
Beneficence
Integrity
Nonmaleficence
Justice
What is the term for failure to use or not use the same care as used by a reasonably prudent person?
Abuse
Battery
Negligence
Malpractice
The right of patients to refuse treatment, even if it is in their best interest, is an example of:
Nonmaleficence
Identification of the problem
Respect for autonomy
Integrity of the health professional
A physician bills an insurance company for services not rendered. This is considered:
a violation of the Stark laws.
a violation of the Medical Practice Acts.
noncompliance.
fraud.
A patient’s right to confidentiality is covered under:
OCR
HIPAA
AMA
AHIMA
When a male opts to undergo a vasectomy, this is considered:
involuntary sterilization
contraception
voluntary sterilization
eugenics
OSHA regulates:
safety in the workplace.
discrimination in hiring.
physician licensing.
privacy for patients.
Permanent loss of license is an example of a disciplinary action for a serious infraction.
True
False
Protected health information is:
the patient’s name.
the patient’s address.
any information a patient does not want you to know.
information about any individual that is protected by law.
What is an example of disciplinary action for a minor infraction?
Large fine
Suspension
Corrective action plan
Termination
The term is used to describe the amount of time a plaintiff has after an injury to file a lawsuit is:
Discovery rule
Respondeat superior
Release of tortfeasor
Statute of limitations
The American Bar Association is NOT an agency that can enact rules that become administrative law.
True
False
The main goal of ethical medical research is to restore or prevent illness, death, and disabilities caused by diseases.
True
False
The Latin phrase "res ipsa loquitur" means:
"let the master answer"
"a favor for a favor"
“the thing speaks for itself"
"in fact"
In the United States, the major problem with health insurance is that:
people would rather go to the emergency department for care so they do not have to pay anything up front.
most people without health insurance do not receive any care.
people do not know how to access new health insurance.
many people are denied care because they do not have health insurance.
Which statements about the checks and balances system is untrue?
The legislature can develop statutes and veto the executive branch
The executive branch has veto power and can propose legislation.
The judicial branch interprets laws.
The legislature proposes laws.
Defensive medicine is the practice of ordering unnecessary tests, treatments, and other procedures to protect against medical malpractice.
True
False
In the argument of when life begins, which of the following is NOT part of the argument?
When the fertilized egg becomes an embryo at 8 to 14 days
When it becomes a fetus between the 18th and 19th week
When the child is born
The moment the sperm and ovum are joined
The organization that regulates HIPAA rules is:
AMA (American Medical Association)
OIG (Office of Inspector General)
AHIMA (American Health Information Management Association)
OCR (Office of Civil Rights)
If a man enters surgery to have his left leg amputated and leaves surgery with his right leg amputated, which Latin term of law applies?
Quid pro quo
Stare decisis
Res ipsa loquitur
Respondeat superior
The “Justice is blind” ethics theory is considered justice-based ethics.
True
False
The risk management supervisor is responsible for talking to unruly patients.
True
False
The American Medical Association (AMA) regulates HIPAA rules.
True
False
The term meaning an employee has the right to require all specified procedures outlined in the employee handbook be followed if that employee's employment is in jeopardy is:
contract law
due process
employment protection
double-jeopardy
Libel is spoken or verbal communication in which one person discusses another in terms that harm the other person's reputation.
True
False
What is the main factor in deciding how to treat a patient?
What the physician thinks should happen
What the patient wants
What the family of the patient wants
What is in the best interest of the patient
Which ONE of the following is true about a malpractice case?
No damages can be present.
The cause of the damages does not have to be specific.
There must be proof of a breach of duty.
The person who caused the damages does not have the duty to care for the patient.
The medical record is a legal document.
True
False
The civil cases seen in courts are suits that involve relationships.
True
False
The following key question is raised in debates about voluntary abortion.
Should the father of the child have to approve the abortion?
When does human life begin?
How old must a patient be to receive a voluntary abortion?
Should parents be told about a minor requesting an abortion?
All hospitals that receive Medicare funding are subject to a federal law that requires anyone coming to an emergency department be stabilized and treated, regardless of his or her insurance status or ability to pay. This is known as:
Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)
Nonmaleficence
The Good Samaritan Law
Which of the following choices is TRUE regarding documentation:
It is only for notes, so misspellings are okay.
If it was not documented, it did not happen.
Only patient encounters are documented.
All of the above.
Implanting male sperm into a woman’s vagina to aid in conception is called:
artificial insemination.
in vitro fertilization.
sterilization.
using a surrogate.
Which is primarily a criminal case?
An office assistant accesses medical information about a patient who is not under their care.
An office assistant releases medical information without patient consent.
A physician refuses to repay student loans.
A physician performs a pelvic exam without a glove.
