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WorksheetsPTB151 Blue Module Final Review
Total questions: 151
Worksheet time: 1hrs 22mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following are classified as antiemetic agents?
a)
Thorazine
b)
Reglan
c)
Compazine
d)
All the above
2.
Which component of a malignant hyperthermia kit is a skeletal muscle relaxant?
a)
Procainamide
b)
Dantrolene
c)
Furosemide
3.
What is not a goal of balanced anesthesia?
a)
Amnesia
b)
Analgesia
c)
Hypertension
4.
A medication order for Ativan 1mg IV q6h prn anxiety is received at the pharmacy. If the first dose is at 1000, when is the next dose due?
a)
2200
b)
1600
c)
2000
5.
Why are most potent anesthetics gases or vapors?
a)
Gases or vapors can be used for general or local anesthesia.
b)
Gases or vapors provide more pain relief than other forms of anesthesia.
c)
Gases or vapors are more easily controlled.
6.
A medication order for Morphine SO4 is received. What does SO4 mean?
a)
Sulfur
b)
Sulfinate
c)
Sulfate
7.
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
a)
Afferent and efferent
b)
Autonomic and somatic
c)
Sympathetic and afferent
8.
A medication order is received for Morphine IV 1-2ml q4-6h prn pain. How many milliliters may be given in a 24 hour period?
a)
14 mL
b)
10 mL
c)
12 mL
9.
What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
a)
Anticholinesterases
b)
Adrenergic agonists
c)
Narcotic antagonists
10.
Which drug is used to treat opiate addiction?
a)
Oxycodone (OxyContin)
b)
Buprenorphine (Buprenex, Subutex)
c)
Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
11.
Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared?
a)
Buprenorphine (Buprenex)
b)
Fentanyl (Actiq)
c)
Morphine
12.
Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance?
a)
Oxycodone (OxyContin)
b)
Meperidine (Demerol)
c)
All of the above.
13.
To what part of the nervous system do the sense organs belong?
a)
Afferent
b)
Somatic
c)
Efferent
14.
What are the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia?
a)
Mu, delta, kappa
b)
Alpha, beta, gamma
c)
D1, D2, D3
15.
Which is a principle of modern pain management?
a)
Withhold pain medication for as long as possible so that patients do not become addicted.
b)
Treat persistent pain first with strong opioids and then with weaker opioids.
c)
Allow patients themselves to regulate the amount of pain medication they receive.
16.
What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign?
a)
Pain
b)
Blood pressure
c)
Respiration
17.
A medication order for Ativan 1 mg IV q6h prn anxiety is received at the pharmacy. If the first dose is at 1000, when is the next dose due?
a)
1600
b)
2000
c)
1800
18.
Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives?
a)
Barbiturates
b)
Benzodiazepines
c)
Phenothiazines
19.
Which drug is used to reverse the effects of a benzodiazepine overdose?
a)
Nalmefene (Revex)
b)
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
c)
Diazepam (Valium)
20.
Which of the following general anesthetics can be administered intravenously or by injection?
a)
Ketamine (Ketalar)
b)
Isoflurane (Forane)
c)
Enflurane (Ethrane)
21.
What class of drugs is primarily used to treat migraine headaches?
a)
Triptans
b)
Corticosteroids
c)
Antihistamines
22.
Which of the following drugs is an example of an inhaled anesthetic?
a)
Enflurane
b)
Propofol
c)
Ketamine
23.
Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist?
a)
Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
b)
Propranolol (Inderal)
c)
Dihydroergotamine (Migranal)
24.
Which drug listed below may administered as a nasal spray?
a)
Almotriptan
b)
Rizatriptan
c)
Zolmitriptan
25.
Which drug listed below can not be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack?
a)
Zolmitriptan (Zomig)
b)
Dihydroergotamine (Migranal)
c)
Prochlorperazine (Compazine)
26.
Which receptor controls the dilation of pupils?
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta-2
c)
Delta
27.
Which is the only neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system?
a)
Acetylcholine
b)
Epinephrine
c)
Serotonin
28.
The property of nitrous oxide that allows it to be used alone in dental procedures is _____.
a)
it induces analgesia only
b)
its effects are long lasting
c)
it is a potent anesthetic
29.
What does norepinephrine act on?
a)
Alpha and beta receptors
b)
Cardiac receptors and bronchodilator adrenergic receptors
c)
Smooth muscle of bronchioles and GI tract
30.
A pharmacy technician can help ensure the accuracy of a prescription for a controlled substance by _____.
a)
checking the ID of each patient or their agent
b)
mathematically verifying a prescriber's DEA number
c)
calling a prescriber to verify each prescription received
31.
Prophylactic therapy for migraines attempts to _____.
a)
prevent or reduce recurrence
b)
treat migraines after they have already started
c)
alleviate post migraine symptoms
32.
Abortive therapy for migraines attempts to _____.
a)
treat migraines after they have already started
b)
prevent or reduce recurrence
c)
cure migraines permanently
33.
A prescription for Valium is presented with 11 refills. What is the next step a pharmacy technician should take?
a)
Call to verify the prescription
b)
Inform the patient the prescription is fake
c)
Ask the patient for ID
34.
Which of the following migraine medications is a controlled substance?
a)
Propranolol (Inderal)
b)
Tramadol (Ultram)
c)
Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
35.
This drug is an antiemetic used to reduce nausea and vomiting.
a)
Butorphanol (stadol)
b)
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
c)
Rizatriptan (Maxalt)
36.
Which nervous system regulates activities that are voluntary?
a)
Central
b)
Afferent
c)
Somatic
37.
A prescription for Ritalin is presented with 3 refills. The next step a pharmacy technician should take is to _____.
a)
call to verify the prescription
b)
inform the patient the prescription is fake
c)
process the prescription
38.
A prescription for Migranal is presented with 3 refills. What is the next step a pharmacy technician should take?
a)
Ask the patient for ID
b)
Process the prescription
c)
Call to verify the prescription
39.
A prescription for propranolol is presented with 3 refills. What is the next step a pharmacy technician should take?
a)
Process the prescription
b)
Ask the patient for ID
c)
Inform the patient the prescription is fake
40.
Which type of receptor increases heart rate?
a)
Beta-1
b)
Beta-2
c)
Alpha
41.
Alcohol (ethanol) is classified as an _____.
a)
antidepressant
b)
anesthetic
c)
anxiety agent
42.
Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms?
a)
t inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain.
b)
It blocks serotonin receptors in the limbic system.
c)
It is an agonist at alpha-2 adrenergic receptors throughout the central nervous system (CNS).
43.
Which drug has the potential to act differently in different parts of the brain depending on endogenous dopmaine activity?
a)
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
b)
Clozapine (Clozaril)
c)
Meclizine (Antivert)
44.
Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder?
a)
Dopamine and serotonin
b)
Histamine and epinephrine
c)
Dopamine and acetylcholine
45.
When does the first episode of bipolar disorder typically occur?
a)
About age 20
b)
About age 30
c)
About age 25
46.
Which of the following newer antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"?
a)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
b)
Thiothixene (Navane)
c)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
47.
What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol?
a)
Disulfiram (Antabuse)
b)
Naltrexone (ReVia)
c)
Diazepam (Valium)
48.
A child with a bed-wetting problem might be prescribed a(n)_____.
a)
antipsychotic
b)
tricyclic antidepressant
c)
tetracyclic antidepressant
49.
Which of the following antianxiety drugs is not a benzodiazepine?
a)
Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
b)
Buspirone (BuSpar)
c)
Alprazolam (Xanax)
50.
Drugs that are used to treat psychotic disorders _____.
a)
reverse memory impairment, confusion, and intellectual deterioration
b)
improve emotional and social withdrawal
c)
reduce thought disorders, hallucinations, and delusions
51.
During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur?
a)
Stages I and II
b)
Stages I and IV
c)
Stages III and IV
52.
Which of the following antianxiety agents might a trembling bride and groom take prior to their wedding ceremony?
a)
Propranolol (Inderal)
b)
Meprobamate (Miltown)
c)
Trifluoperazine (Stelazine)
53.
Which class of antidepressants is also approved for the treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a)
SNRIs
b)
TCAs
c)
SSRIs
54.
A panic attack _____.
a)
has a definite onset and ends spontaneously
b)
is an ongoing, generalized state of uneasiness
55.
Low doses of prochlorperazine (Compazine) are commonly used for _____.
a)
constipation
b)
menstrual cramps
c)
nausea and vomiting
56.
Patients taking lithium must _____.
a)
keep their salt intake at a consistent level
b)
avoid alcoholic beverages
c)
All of the above.
57.
A patient with narcolepsy may be prescribed a _____.
a)
stimulant
b)
neuroleptic
c)
sedative
58.
Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
a)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
b)
Paroxetine (Paxil)
c)
Citalopram (Celexa)
59.
What percent of Americans who have trouble sleeping seek a physician's help?
a)
Less than 10 percent
b)
21 to 30 percent
c)
10 to 20 percent
60.
What is the drug of choice for treating bipolar disorder and acute mania, and for prophylaxis of unipolar and bipolar disorders?
a)
Lithium (Eskalith, Lithobid)
b)
Divalproex (Depakote)
c)
Valproic acid (Depakene)
61.
What term describes one of two or more compounds that contain the same number of and type of atoms but have different molecular structures?
a)
Isomer
b)
Diplopia
c)
Ptosis
62.
Which is a new class of anti-Parkinson agents that increase patient "on-time"?
a)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase inhibitors
b)
Catechol-o-methyl transferase inhibitors
c)
Anistreplase inhibitors
63.
Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance?
a)
Dexmethylphenidate (Focalin)
b)
Atomoxetine (Strattera)
c)
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
64.
Methylphenidate, an agent used to treat children with ADD/ADHD, can best be characterized as a(n)_____.
a)
hypnotic
b)
antidepressant
c)
stimulant
65.
What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return?
a)
Petit mal seizures
b)
Status epilepticus
c)
Grand mal seizures
66.
Patients with myasthenia gravis experience weakness and fatigability due to _____.
a)
degeneration of the myelin sheaths around nerves
b)
autoimmune damage to acetylcholine receptors
c)
pathologic alterations in the extrapyramidal system
67.
Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain?
a)
Gabapentin (Neurontin)
b)
Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)
c)
Clonazepam (Klonopin)
68.
Akinesia, a characteristic sign of Parkinson disease, refers to _____.
a)
a shuffling gait
b)
abnormally increased motor function
c)
an absence of movement
69.
Involuntary contractions or series of contractions of the voluntary muscles are called _____.
a)
convolutions
b)
conversions
c)
convulsions
70.
What percentage of people with epilepsy have partial seizures?
a)
55%
b)
65%
c)
75%
71.
What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism?
a)
Sinemet
b)
Comtan
c)
Tasmar
72.
Which anti-Parkinson agent is associated with the on-off phenomenon?
a)
Levodopa (Dopar)
b)
Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
c)
Pergolide (Permax)
73.
Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects?
a)
Diazepam (Valium) - GABA
b)
Gabapentin (Neurontin) - sodium channels
c)
Divalproex (Depakote) - motor cortex
74.
What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis?
a)
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
b)
Dopamine (D1) antagonists
c)
Muscarinic receptor antagonists
75.
Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders?
a)
Valproic acid (Depakene)
b)
Primidone (Mysoline)
c)
Lithium (Lithobid)
76.
What drug that is used to treat Alzheimer disease is derived from daffodil bulbs?
a)
Galantamine (Razadyne)
b)
Tacrine (Cognex)
c)
Rivastigmine (Exelon)
77.
The use of what anticonvulsant may result in physical or psychological dependence?
a)
Clonazepam (Klonopin)
b)
Divalproex (Depakote)
c)
Levetriracetam (Keppra)
78.
Which of the following is part of the profile for Alzheimer disease?
a)
Depression
b)
Loss of overall muscle control
c)
Seizures
79.
What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients?
a)
Levodopa (Dopar)
b)
Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
c)
Amantadine (Symmetrel)
80.
Which statement is true regarding drug therapy for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
a)
Only one drug has been approved for ALS.
b)
No drugs are currently available to treat ALS.
c)
Drugs for ALS stimulate the release of sodium.
81.
A label for Vancomycin requires 1.2g of the medication. How many milligrams is this?
a)
120 mg
b)
1200 mg
c)
12,000 mg
82.
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) oral suspension is available as a 250mg/5mL concentration. The physician orders a dose of 150mg. How many milliliters of suspension will have to be given for each dose?
a)
10 mL
b)
3 m/L
c)
5 mL
83.
Which measurement system is the legal standard of measure in the United States?
a)
Metric system
b)
Household measure
c)
Avoirdupois system
84.
Which of the following is an advantage of the metric system over other measurement systems?
a)
There are clear correlations among the units of measurement for length, volume, and weight.
b)
The units are described as multiples of ten.
c)
It is used worldwide, especially in scientific measurement.
d)
All of the above.
85.
The prefix micro- means _____.
a)
one millionth
b)
one thousandth
c)
one hundredth
86.
The fraction 5/6 is equal to _____.
a)
83
b)
0.83
c)
1.2
87.
How many grams are equal to 1000mg?
a)
1g
b)
10g
c)
1000g
88.
How many micrograms are equal to 1mg?
a)
1000mcg
b)
1,000,000mcg
c)
10mcg
89.
The number of milligrams in 4.9g is _____.
a)
4900mg
b)
490mg
c)
49 mg
90.
Roman numeral X represents which Arabic number?
a)
5
b)
10
c)
50
91.
What strength aspirin tablet should be given for a 5 grain dose?
a)
325 mg
b)
500mg
c)
650mg
92.
A nurse calls the pharmacy asking you to verify her calculation. Her patient weighs 235 lb. What is the equivalent weight in kg?
a)
107kg
b)
150kg
c)
98kg
93.
Solve for x given x/30 = 2/5.
a)
12
b)
27
c)
75
94.
You receive a prescription for amoxicillin 500 mg/5 mL suspension. The directions are to take one teaspoonful three times daily for 10 days. How much suspension should be dispensed to complete this course of therapy?
a)
105 mL
b)
150 mL
c)
50 mL
95.
A dry powder antibiotic must be reconstituted with 85 ml of distilled water. The label states that the total volume will be 100 ml containing 125 mg/5 ml. How much is the powder volume?
a)
5 mL
b)
10 mL
c)
15 mL
96.
How many fluidrams are in 1 fluid ounce?
a)
6 fluidrams
b)
5 fluidrams
c)
4 fluidrams
97.
You are to dispense 75mL of cefadroxil (Duricef) suspension. If the dose is 3/4 tsp, how many doses will be in the final preparation?
a)
15
b)
20
c)
24
d)
18
98.
How many milliliters of erythromycin ethylsuccinate (EES) suspension should be dispensed if the dose is 1/2 tsp four times daily for 14 days?
a)
120 mL
b)
140 mL
c)
160 mL
99.
You are to prepare 250 mL of dextrose 12.5% w/v using dextrose 10% (D10W) w/v and dextrose 50% (D50W) w/v. How many milliliters of each will be needed?
a)
14 mL D10W; 236 mL D50W
b)
16 mL D10W; 234 mL D50W
c)
234 mL D10W; 16 mL D50W
100.
Care of prescription weights includes _____.
a)
washing them with water after each use
b)
wiping them with 70% isopropyl alcohol prior to each use
c)
storing them in their original container
101.
Ointments and creams are to be used _____.
a)
transdermal
b)
orally
c)
topically
102.
The compounding log is a _____.
a)
patient-specific worksheet for compounding
b)
general recipe for compounding
c)
a list of personnel who compound prescriptions
103.
According to the package insert, Neupogen should be stored at a temperature from 2 degrees C to 8 degrees C. During your morning refrigerator inspections, you find that the fridge thermometer reads 52 degrees F. What is the equivalent temperature in Celsius?
a)
18 degrees C
b)
11 degrees C
c)
8 degrees C
104.
The master control record for a new compound may be prepared by the _____.
a)
physician
b)
pharmacy technician
c)
pharmacist
105.
A solution is to be used to fill syringes containing 25mL each, and 2.75L are on hand. If the entire 2.75L are to be used, how many syringes will be filled?
a)
25 mL
b)
50 mL
c)
100 mL
d)
110 mL
106.
A cream is _____.
a)
water washable
b)
greasy
c)
oil based
107.
Prescription weights are usually made of _____.
a)
gold
b)
silver
c)
iron
d)
brass
108.
How many milligrams are in 1 grain?
a)
50 mg
b)
65 mg
c)
55 mg
109.
You are requested to add 2 g of magnesium sulfate to an IV bag. Magnesium sulfate is available as a 500 mg/mL solution. How many milliliters will you add to the bag?
a)
2 mL
b)
3 mL
c)
5 mL
d)
4 mL
110.
1 lb = _____.
a)
12 oz
b)
14 oz
c)
16 oz
d)
18 oz
111.
What information is typically required on a compounding log sheet?
a)
technician initials
b)
pharmacist initials
c)
expiration dates of ingredients
d)
All of the Above
112.
When weighing powder, how should material be transferred to a balance?
a)
By placing a small amount on a spatula
b)
By dissolving in water prior to the transfer
c)
By using fingers to pinch an approximate amount
113.
_____ should be used to pick up prescription weights.
a)
Forceps
b)
Bare hands
c)
Glassine paper
114.
The best results from trituration are obtained with _____.
a)
slow motion and maximal pressure
b)
rapid motion and minimal pressure
c)
slow motion and minimal pressure
115.
Compounding an ointment involves _____.
a)
adding all the powder at one time to the ointment
b)
pressing the edge of the spatula against the ointment slab
c)
adding a coarse powder to the ointment
116.
Of the following steps in the compounding process, which may be performed by a pharmacy technician?
a)
Final check before going to
b)
Judge the suitability of the prescription
c)
Double-check all calculations
117.
Which type of spatula should be used when corrosive materials are handled?
a)
plastic
b)
steel
c)
Hard rubber
118.
How much lidocaine 5% ointment is required to make 200 g of a 1.5% ointment?
a)
80 g
b)
120 g
c)
50 g
d)
60 g
119.
Select the true statement(s) regarding good compounding practices (GCP).
a)
differs by pharmacy
b)
includes standards regarding pricing
c)
addresses quality issues in compounding
120.
Which of the following situations would require non-sterile compounding?
a)
A bitter-tasting solution prescribed to a pediatric patient
b)
A medication containing a dye the patient is allergic to
c)
A medication ordered as suppositories but available only as oral tablets
d)
all the above
121.
A metronidazole suspension is being made from crushed metronidazole tablets and OraPlus, a suspending agent. It is made on May 31, 2011, from products with the following expiration dates: Metronidazole 500mg tablet Expiration date: Jan 31, 2012 OraPlus Expiration date: April 30, 2012 What should the beyond-use date be?
a)
Jan 31, 2012
b)
Nov 30, 2011
c)
July 31, 2011
122.
What traits are desirable for a technician working in a compounding pharmacy?
a)
attention to detail
b)
eye, hand, and motor coordination
c)
good math skills
d)
all the above
123.
A baby discharged from the NICU is ordered spironolactone 2mg/kg q12h. The baby weighs 2.5kg. A 30-day supply is ordered. How many 50mg tablets would be needed to compound this prescription?
a)
4
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
124.
Good compounding practices regulate which aspect of equipment used?
a)
size
b)
year made
c)
storage
125.
Preparing a medication for an individual patient from several pharmaceutical ingredients is called _____.
a)
blending
b)
manufacturing
c)
repackaging
d)
compounding
126.
Who provides the final product check in the compounding process?
a)
Pharmacist
b)
Technician
127.
An ingredient dissolved in a solution is called a _____.
a)
solid
b)
solute
c)
solvent
128.
What is the pharmacy technician's role in handling compounding ingredients?
a)
Ordering
b)
Storing
c)
Checking for expiration dates
d)
all the above
129.
Suspensions should have an auxiliary label reading _____.
a)
"Do not take when operating equipment."
b)
"For external use only."
c)
"Shake well."
130.
The vehicle that makes up the greater part of a solution is the _____.
a)
solute
b)
suspension
c)
solvent
131.
The need for individually compounded medications is _____.
a)
not measurable
b)
staying the same
c)
decreasing
d)
increasing
132.
In a suspension, the active ingredient is _____.
a)
dispersed throughout the liquid
b)
reconstituted in the liquid
c)
soluble in the liquid
133.
What are some advantages of bio-identical hormonal therapy?
a)
Closer match to individual requirements
b)
Potential for long-lasting relief
c)
No liver metabolism required
d)
all the above
134.
A _____ melts or dissolves when exposed to body heat and fluids.
a)
tablet
b)
capsule
c)
suppository
135.
Ingredients that meet _____ standards should be used in compounding.
a)
DPH
b)
FDA
c)
JCAHO
d)
USP
136.
A prescription for a pediatric patient calls for 60 ml of a diltiazem suspension at a concentration of 12 mg/mL. Diltiazem is available only as extended-release capsules and tablets, an IV solution, and immediate-release tablets (30 mg, 60 mg, 90 mg, 120 mg). How many 60 mg tablets would be needed to compound this prescription?
a)
6
b)
12
c)
14
d)
16
137.
What causes age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
a)
Excessive sun exposure
b)
Adverse reaction to antibiotics
c)
Infection
d)
Unknown
138.
What term defines chemicals that free objects of pathogenic organisms or render the organisms inert?
a)
Germicide
b)
Preservative
c)
Sanitizer
d)
Disinfectant
139.
What are the potential negative consequences for failing to label ear medication as such and given to patients for eye treatment?
a)
Irritation or Blindness
b)
Patients would know wrong medication and would not use
c)
Healing
140.
Failure to label an ear medication as such, could result in _____ to/of the eye.
a)
healing
b)
blindness
c)
irritation
141.
Which of the following is a precancerous condition?
a)
Actinic keratosis
b)
Melanoma
c)
Basal cell carcinoma
142.
What drug is used to treat chronic keratococonjunctivitis (dry eye)?
a)
Cyclosporine (Restasis)
b)
Loteprednol (Alrex, Lotemax)
c)
Olopatadine (Patanol)
143.
What is the most commonly occurring eye disease?
a)
Glaucoma
b)
Cataracts
c)
Conjunctivitis (dry eye)
144.
Which of the following is given orally to treat glaucoma?
a)
Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b)
Betaxolol (Betoptic)
c)
Apraclonidine (Iopidine)
145.
An eye disorder that involves loss of central vision is _____.
a)
Conjunctivitis (dry eye)
b)
Macular degeneration
c)
Glaucoma
146.
Macular degeneration is an eye disorder that involves _____.
a)
loss of central vision
b)
increased tearing and itching
c)
inflammation of the retina
147.
Albuterol solution is available as 2 mg/5 mL. How many milligrams are in 7.5 mL?
a)
3 mg
b)
6 mg
c)
9 mg
d)
12 mg
148.
Albuterol solution is available as 2 mg/5 mL. How many milligrams are in 10 mL?
a)
6 mg
b)
12 mg
c)
8 mg
d)
4 mg
149.
Ibuprofen suspension is available as 100 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters are needed for a dose of 250 mg?
a)
15 mL
b)
10 mL
c)
12.5 mL
150.
You receive an order for Augmentin 875 mg; Take one tablet twice a day for 10 days. How many tablets would you dispense?
a)
10
b)
30
c)
20
151.
A prednisone prescription reads: Take 5 tablets twice a day for 5 days, then take 5 tablets once a day for 5 days, then take 4 tablets twice a day for 5 days, then take 4 tablets once a day for 5 days, then take 3 tablets once a day for 5 days, then take 2 tablets once a day for 5 days, then take 1 tablet once a day for 5 days. How many tablets will be dispensed?
a)
185
b)
200
c)
165
d)
155
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