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AP Gov Final Review Session

Total questions: 191

Worksheet time: 2hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which aspect of government BEST expresses majoritarian democracy?

a)

state ballot initiatives and referendums

b)

the election of Senators before the 17th amendment

c)

the Electoral College

d)

the life terms of federal judges

2.

In Federalist 10, James Madison advocates specifically for

a)

pluralism

b)

anti-federalism

c)

elite democracy

d)

majoritarian democracy

3.

Which of these does NOT reflect the elite democracy model?

a)

the original method of electing senators

b)

the election of the House of Representatives

c)

the life terms of federal judges

d)

the Electoral College

4.

Which is NOT true of the House of Representatives?

a)

They initiate impeachment hearings.

b)

They serve shorter terms than their counterparts in the Senate.

c)

They are the tea, hot with the passions of the people.

d)

They were originally chosen by state legislatures.

5.

Which amendment changed the way Senators were elected?

a)

16th

b)

17th

c)

18th

d)

20th

6.

Which of these best addresses the concerns of the anti-federalists?

a)

the Electoral College

b)

the Necessary and Proper Clause

c)

the 10th Amendment

d)

the 14th Amendment

7.

Which is NOT true of factions, according to James Madison?

a)

They are inevitable in society.

b)

They are made possible by freedom.

c)

They can have a detrimental effect on the public good.

d)

Fewer will exist in a larger republic.

8.

Which is NOT true of the government created by the Articles of Confederation?

a)

It lacked the ability to collect taxes or raise an army.

b)

The legislature was much stronger than the executive branch.

c)

The Articles were nearly impossible to amend.

d)

It proved to be too weak to protect the citizens' property rights.

9.

Smaller states got what they wanted in the

a)

Senate, which had equal representation

b)

Senate, which had proportional representation

c)

House, which had proportional representation

d)

House, which had equal representation

10.

Proposing an amendment to the Constitution requires

a)

2/3 of both houses of Congress

b)

3/4 of both houses of Congress

c)

2/3 of the state legislatures

d)

3/4 of the state legislatures

11.

Ratifying an amendment to the Constitution requires

a)

2/3 of both houses of Congress

b)

3/4 of both houses of Congress

c)

2/3 of the state legislatures

d)

3/4 of the state legislatures

12.

The process of amending the Constitution reflects which principle?

a)

federalism

b)

checks and balances

c)

separation of powers

d)

pluralism

13.

California, with its 40 million people, is

a)

underrepresented in the Senate

b)

overrepresented in the Senate

c)

underrepresented in the House

d)

overrepresented in the House

14.

Who decides guilt or innocence in an impeachment trial?

a)

the Senate

b)

the House of Representatives

c)

the Supreme Court

d)

the states

15.

Which of the following gives states the GREATEST latitude?

a)

block grants

b)

categorical grants

c)

mandates

d)

federal aid programs

16.

Which was NOT part of the case McCulloch v. Maryland?

a)

the Necessary and Proper Clause

b)

the Supremacy Clause

c)

Implied powers

d)

the Full Faith and Credit Clause

17.

Which of these is NOT typically a reserved power?

a)

laws dealing with marriage

b)

regulating elections

c)

issuing licenses

d)

issuing currency

18.

Which of these is NOT a concurrent power?

a)

setting foreign policy

b)

establishing courts

c)

borrowing money

d)

collecting taxes

19.

In US v. Lopez, the Court

a)

struck down the law in question as an overreach of the commerce clause

b)

struck down the law in question because of the supremacy clause

c)

upheld the law in question as a justified use of the commerce clause

d)

upheld the law in question based on the supremacy clause

20.

Overriding the President's veto requires

a)

2/3 of the Senate

b)

2/3 of both houses of Congress

c)

3/4 of the Senate

d)

3/4 of both houses of Congress

21.

Who has the power of Advice and Consent?

a)

the Senate

b)

the House

c)

the President

d)

the Supreme Court

22.

"The federal government's power under the commerce clause is as broad as the needs of the nation."


This would most likely be said by

a)

a Democrat

b)

a Republican

23.

Which of these is NOT a check on the executive branch?

a)

the veto

b)

Senate confirmation of Cabinet appointees

c)

impeachment

d)

judicial review of executive actions

24.

Which of these is NOT a legislative check on another branch?

a)

power of the purse

b)

impeachment

c)

reviewing laws for constitutionality

d)

Advice and Consent

25.

Which is NOT an argument made by Brutus?

a)

It is easier to hold leaders accountable in a smaller republic.

b)

Giving taxing power to the national government will weaken the states.

c)

It is easier to identify and promote the public good in a smaller republic.

d)

Diversity of opinions and experiences is crucial to avoid tyranny of the majority.

26.

In return for giving Congress the power to regulate inter-state commerce,

a)

southern states demanded 20 years of protection for the slave trade

b)

northern states demanded that slaves would not count toward the census

c)

larger population states demanded proportional representation

d)

anti-federalists demanded a Bill of Rights

27.

Which clause protects you against arbitrary government interference in your life?

a)

Establishment

b)

Due Process

c)

Free Exercise

d)

Equal Protection

28.

Which clause states that the government cannot interfere with your religious practices (without a compelling interest)?

a)

Establishment

b)

Due Process

c)

Free Exercise

d)

Equal Protection

29.

In which of these cases did the Supreme Court outlaw school-SANCTIONED prayer?

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

d)

Schenck v. US

30.

In which of these cases did the Supreme Court decide that Amish families couldn't be compelled to send children to school after 8th grade?

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

d)

Schenck v. US

31.

In which of these cases did the Supreme Court decide that speech present a "clear and present danger" COULD be limited in the interests of national security?

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

d)

Schenck v. US

32.

SCOTUS's decision in Engel v. Vitale was based on the [ ] clause.

a)

Establishment

b)

Due Process

c)

Free Exercise

d)

Prior restraint

33.

SCOTUS's decision in Wisconsin v. Yoder was based on the [ ] clause.

a)

Establishment

b)

Due Process

c)

Free Exercise

d)

Prior restraint

34.

Schenck's punishment under the Espionage Act was [ ] because his speech presented a "clear and present danger" to national security.

a)

upheld

b)

struck down

35.

Originally, the Bill of Rights applied only to actions by [ ], but over time, it was applied to [ ] as well.

a)

the national government, the states

b)

the states, the national government

c)

public actors, private actors

d)

private actor, public actors

36.

Which clause was used to apply the Bill of Rights to the states?

a)

14th amendment due process

b)

5th amendment due process

c)

14th amendment equal protection

d)

Necessary and Proper

37.

Laws that restrict your civil liberties face [ ] by the courts.

a)

strict scrutiny

b)

incorporation

c)

defamation

d)

content-neutral

38.

False statements that damage someone's reputation are called

a)

strict scrutiny

b)

incorporation

c)

defamation

d)

content-neutral

39.

Time, place, and manner restrictions are

a)

fine, but will face strict scrutiny

b)

unconstitutional in all cases

c)

usually constitutional, as long as they are content-neutral

d)

unconstitutional in most cases

40.

Which case requires police to remind suspects of their 5th amendment right to remain silent and 6th amendment right to an attorney?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Mapp v. Ohio

d)

Texas v. Johnson

41.

The exclusionary rule applies to the

a)

4th amendment

b)

5th amendment

c)

6th amendment

d)

1st amendment

42.

Which is NOT part of the 5th amendment?

a)

double jeopardy

b)

eminent domain

c)

speedy, public trial

d)

right to remain silent

43.

Public school students have free speech rights to wear armbands to peacefully protest

a)

Tinker v. Des Moines

b)

Engel v. Vitale

c)

Wisconsin v. Yoder

d)

Schenck v. US

44.

Which amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures?

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

45.

Which amendment protects against cruel and unusual punishment?

a)

4th

b)

5th

c)

6th

d)

8th

46.

In order to pat you down for weapons, police need

a)

reasonable suspicion

b)

probable cause

c)

a warrant

d)

eminent domain

47.

A policy that forbids Muslim students from wearing hijab (or headscarves) would probably

a)

violate the free exercise clause

b)

violate the establishment clause

c)

be constitutional because of the free exercise clause

d)

be constitutional because of the establishment clause

48.

A county courthouse displaying the Ten Commandments outside the courtroom would probably

a)

violate the free exercise clause

b)

violate the establishment clause

c)

be constitutional because of the free exercise clause

d)

be constitutional because of the establishment clause

49.

If a student read a prayer each morning on the school news, that would probably

a)

violate the free exercise clause

b)

violate the establishment clause

c)

be constitutional because of the free exercise clause

d)

be constitutional because of the establishment clause

50.

If a student led his/her table in a prayer before eating lunch, that would probably

a)

violate the free exercise clause

b)

violate the establishment clause

c)

be constitutional because of the free exercise clause

d)

be constitutional because of the establishment clause

51.

SCOTUS has ruled that requesting digital metadata from your provider

a)

requires a search warrant

b)

does not require a search warrant

52.

Which case requires that states must provide indigent defendants with an attorney in a felony case?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Mapp v. Ohio

d)

Texas v. Johnson

53.

The Good Faith and Public Safety Exceptions were created by

a)

conservative courts who favor order over liberty

b)

conservative courts who favor liberty over order

c)

liberal courts who favor order over liberty

d)

liberal courts who favor liberty over order

54.

The concept of prior restraint is associated with

a)

freedom of the press

b)

the right to an abortion

c)

freedom of speech

d)

freedom of religion

55.

Due process appears in which two amendments?

a)

5th and 14th

b)

5th and 10th

c)

6th and 14th

d)

6th and 10th

56.

New York Times v. US was decided in favor of

a)

the US and liberty

b)

the US and order

c)

the New York Times and liberty

d)

the New York Times and order

57.

Which case created the "clear and present danger test"?

a)

Schenck v. US

b)

New York Times v. US

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines

d)

Gideon v. Wainwright

58.

"A well-regulated militia being necessary to the security of a free state,"


This is the [ ] clause of the 2nd amendment, which...

a)

operative, gun-control activists

b)

prefatory, gun-control activists

c)

operative, gun-rights activists

d)

prefatory, gun-rights activists

59.

In which case did the Supreme Court FIRST hold that an individual has a right to keep and bear arms in their home for self-defense.

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

DC v. Heller

c)

US v. Lopez

d)

Griswold v. Connecticut

60.

In which case did the Supreme Court selectively incorporate the right to keep and bear arms against the states?

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

DC v. Heller

c)

US v. Lopez

d)

Griswold v. Connecticut

61.

In which case did the Supreme Court first identify a right to marital sexual privacy in the context of birth control?

a)

McDonald v. Chicago

b)

DC v. Heller

c)

US v. Lopez

d)

Griswold v. Connecticut

62.

The House has [ ] members, while the Senate was [ ].

a)

435, 100

b)

100, 435

c)

538, 100

d)

100, 538

63.

Representatives serve [ ] year terms, while Senators serve [ ] year terms.

a)

2, 6

b)

6, 2

c)

4, 2

d)

2, 4

64.

What vote does it take to override the President's veto?

a)

2/3 of both chambers

b)

3/4 of both chambers

c)

2/3 of the Senate

d)

2/3 of the House of Representatives

65.

In which house are filibusters possible?

a)

the House of Representatives only

b)

the Senate only

c)

both houses

66.

Rules are much [ ] in the [ ], which is why filibusters are NOT possible.

a)

stricter, House

b)

stricter, Senate

c)

looser, House

d)

looser, Senate

67.

The Framers gave the power to initiate revenue-raising bills to the [ ] because of its [ ] terms.

a)

the House of Representatives, shorter

b)

the Senate, shorter

c)

the House of Representatives, longer

d)

the Senate, longer

68.

Check ALL that apply: Powers UNIQUE to the Senate

a)

ratifying treaties

b)

confirming the President's appointments

c)

choosing the President when the Electoral College is tied

d)

initiating tax revenue bills

e)

deciding impeachment trials

69.

In the Great Compromise, larger states wanted representation to be [ ], so they are better represented in the [ ].

a)

equal, Senate

b)

proportional, Senate

c)

equal, House

d)

proportional, House

70.

Which house brings impeachment charges against an official?

a)

the House of Representatives

b)

the Senate

c)

both

71.

Which of the following are ENUMERATED powers of Congress? (Check ALL that apply.)

a)

passing a budget

b)

coining money

c)

conducting elections

d)

maintaining the military

e)

chartering a national bank

72.

Which is NOT something standing committees do?

a)

narrow down the number of bills to be considered

b)

invite experts to give feedback on proposed bills

c)

markup and make changes to bills

d)

decide when the bill will be placed on the legislative calendar

73.

Who decides WHEN a bill will be considered in the House of Representatives?

a)

the Calendar Committee

b)

the Speaker of the House

c)

the House Rules Committee

d)

a conference committee

74.

Representatives must be [ ], while Senators must be [ ].

a)

25, 30

b)

30, 25

c)

30, 35

d)

35, 30

75.

The most powerful person in the House of Representatives is the [ ], who is always from the majority party.

a)

Speaker

b)

Majority Leader

c)

Vice President

d)

Chief Representatives

76.

What percentage of bills die in committee and never receive a full floor vote?

a)

90%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

10%

77.

When the President is from one party and one or both houses is controlled by the other party, that is called

a)

divided government

b)

separation of powers

c)

gridlock

d)

checks and balances

78.

Based on changes in population, some states gain or lose seats in the House of Representatives. This is called [ ]

a)

census

b)

reapportionment

c)

redistricting

d)

gerrymandering

79.

When the number of seats your state gets changes, you must re-draw the district lines so that every district has roughly the same population. This is called [ ]

a)

census

b)

reapportionment

c)

redistricting

d)

gerrymandering

80.

Which statement about the lawmaking process is TRUE?

a)

Anyone can introduce a bill in Congress.

b)

The President's veto can be overridden by the Supreme Court.

c)

Most bills make it through committee easily.

d)

It is easier to pass bills in the House than in the Senate.

81.

After a bill passes both houses with the same exact wording, it is sent

a)

to the President for consideration

b)

to the Supreme Court for judicial review

c)

to the states for approval

d)

to a conference committee

82.

Who draws the boundary lines for congressional districts in most states?

a)

the governor

b)

the state legislature

c)

the State Supreme Court

d)

the state Supervisor of Elections

83.

Which of the following types of committees is a temporary one formed to reconcile (or bring together) two different versions of a bill?

a)

joint

b)

standing

c)

conference

d)

select

84.

If a bill is pigeonholed or held up in committe, a [ ] petition can bring it to the full chamber with a majority vote.

(a)  

85.

Passing a cloture motion requires [ ] of the Senate.

a)

a majority

b)

3/5

c)

2/3

d)

3/4

86.

The purpose of a cloture motion is to

a)

prevent a bill from coming to a vote

b)

end debate on a bill so a vote can happen

c)

override the President's veto

d)

force a committee to deliver a report

87.

The purpose of a filibuster is to

a)

prevent a bill from coming to a vote

b)

end debate on a bill so a vote can happen

c)

override the President's veto

d)

force a committee to deliver a report

88.

Mandatory spending makes up [ ] of the budget, with the largest chunk going to [ ].

a)

2/3, Social Security

b)

1/3, Social Security

c)

2/3, Defense

d)

1/3, Defense

89.

Our government is bicameral because

a)

power is divided between two branches of government

b)

legislative power is divided between two houses

c)

power is divided between the national and state governments

d)

each state has two Senators

90.

Gerrymandering is a problem

a)

only in the House of Representatives

b)

only in the Senate

c)

in both houses of Congress

d)

only in states controlled by Republicans

91.

Someone living in a representative's district is called his/her [ ].

a)

constituent

b)

incumbent

c)

trustee

d)

delegate

92.

The person who currently holds an elected office is called the [ ].

a)

constituent

b)

incumbent

c)

trustee

d)

delegate

93.

A representative who votes according to the wishes of the people living in his/her district is called a(n) [ ], which is more likely in the [ ].

a)

trustee, Senate

b)

trustee, House

c)

delegate, Senate

d)

delegate, House

94.

A mark-up session is one in which

a)

A standing committee makes changes in the original version of a bill

b)

The party leadership assigns priority ratings to numerous bills.

c)

A conference committee makes key compromises before reporting back to both houses

d)

A bill is changed or altered by the President

95.

A committee chair in the House of Representatives is always

a)

the member with the longest service on the committee

b)

a member of the majority party in the chamber

c)

a trusted ally of the President

d)

a member of the minority party in the chamber

96.

Which does NOT describe Republicans?

a)

favor smaller government

b)

prefer lower taxes

c)

support more government regulation of business

d)

favor traditional social values

97.

If Congress adjourns (goes out of session) during the President's 10 days considering a bill, it

a)

automatically becomes law

b)

is considered vetoed

c)

is picked up by the President again when Congress comes back into session

d)

is sent to the Supreme Court for consideration

98.

Which of the following has NOT been used to expand Congress's power?

a)

Necessary and Proper Clause

b)

Supremacy Clause

c)

Commerce Clause

d)

Tenth Amendment

99.

According to the Constitution, the President of the Senate is the [ ], but the actual most powerful person in the Senate is the [ ].

a)

Vice President, Majority Leader

b)

Vice President, President Pro Tempore

c)

President Pro Tempore, Majority Leader

d)

President Pro Tempore, Vice President

100.

Incumbents in the [ ] have a better chance of being re-elected.

a)

House

b)

Senate

101.

Earmarks in the budget set aside for particular projects that benefit one legislator or district are called [ ]-barrel spending.

(a)  

102.

Lowered voting age to 18

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

103.

Outlawed poll taxes

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

104.

Prevents voting discrimination based on sex

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

105.

Prevents voting discrimination based on race

a)

15th

b)

19th

c)

24th

d)

26th

106.

Majority-minority districts drawn solely based on race may violate the equal protection clause, particularly if they are bizarrely shaped.

a)

Baker v. Carr

b)

Shaw v. Reno

c)

Shelby County v. Holder

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland

107.

Urban (black) voters in Tennessee challenged redistricting map which had not been re-drawn to reflect population shifts - SCOTUS ruled it WAS a justiciable issue.

a)

Baker v. Carr

b)

Shaw v. Reno

c)

Swann v. Charlotte-Mecklenburg County

d)

McCulloch v. Maryland

108.

Race can be used as ONE factor in college admissions, but strict quotas are violation of equal protection clause

a)

Buckley v. Valeo

b)

Bipartisan Campaign Finance Reform Act

c)

Citizens United v. FEC

d)

UC Regents v. Bakke

109.

Proposed by Congress but never ratified by required 3/4 of the states

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

c)

Equal Rights Amendment

d)

Title IX

110.

Required schools receiving federal funds not to discrimination on the basis of sex in any program or activity (equal funding for women's sports)

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

c)

Equal Rights Amendment

d)

Title IX

111.

Created DOJ preclearance of voting laws for states with a history of discrimination and allowed for federal poll watchers

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

c)

Equal Pay Act of 1963

d)

Title IX

112.

Made discrimination in public/private accommodations (hotels, restaurants) illegal, using the commerce clause

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965

c)

Equal Pay Act of 1963

d)

Title IX

113.

Judges should defer to elected officials

a)

judicial review

b)

judicial activism

c)

stare decisis

d)

judicial restraint

114.

Judges should overturn actions by elected officials in order to protect constitutional rights

a)

judicial review

b)

judicial activism

c)

stare decisis

d)

judicial restraint

115.

Legalized gay marriage - required states to allow it AND to recognize those conducted in other states

a)

Griswold v. Connecticut

b)

Lawrence v. Texas

c)

Roe v. Wade

d)

Obergefell v. Hodges

116.

Curbs on the power of majorities to make policies that benefit some at the expense of minority (protected) groups

a)

establishment clause

b)

civil rights

c)

free exercise clause

d)

civil liberties

117.

Each term SCOTUS agrees to hear about [ ]% of the cases appealed to it.

a)

1

b)

10

c)

15

d)

5

118.

Which term describes a legal brief by an outside party who wishes to influence a case?

a)

certiorari

b)

amicus curiae

c)

stare decisis

d)

quid pro quo

119.

Which term describes a petition to request that SCOTUS hear your case?

a)

certiorari

b)

amicus curiae

c)

stare decisis

d)

quid pro quo

120.

How many justices are needed to render a decision on a case?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

3

121.

How many justices are needed to agree to hear a case?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

9

d)

3

122.

The federal judiciary is described in

a)

Article III

b)

Article II

c)

Article I

d)

Article IV

123.

In Federalist 78, Hamilton reiterated that the judiciary was the [ ] branch as a means of arguing that they needed [ ].

a)

weakest, life terms

b)

weakest, frequent elections

c)

strongest, life terms

d)

strongest, frequent elections

124.

The goal of giving judges life terms is to

a)

grant them independence from the other branches (and public opinion)

b)

ensure that they can be held accountable for their actions

125.

Hamilton envisioned the judiciary as a bulwark protecting the

a)

people's rights from encroachments of the legislature or executive

b)

elected branches from the public

c)

legislature from the encroachments of the executive

d)

executive from the encroachments of the legislature

126.

The judiciary was the weakest because it had "no influence over sword or purse." Who DOES have the sword (or the power to enforce/ignore their decisions)?

a)

the President

b)

Congress

c)

the states

127.

In the case Marbury v. Madison, SCOTUS ruled that

a)

the Judiciary Act of 1789 was constitutional

b)

SCOTUS could not issue writs of mandamus to force the Secretary of State to deliver commissions

c)

judicial review was part of the Court's enumerated Article III powers

d)

the Necessary and Proper Clause gave Congress implied power to create a national bank

128.

Hamilton also called the judiciary the weakest because it had "neither FORCE nor WILL, only JUDGEMENT."


Who has WILL, in our system?

a)

Congress

b)

the President

129.

Which is NOT an executive check on the judiciary?

a)

pardon power

b)

appointment power

c)

implementing decisions

d)

impeachment charges

130.

The idea that judges should follow earlier precedents to maintain consistency in application of the law is called

a)

judicial review

b)

judicial activism

c)

stare decisis

d)

judicial restraint

131.

In Brown v. Board of Education, SCOTUS rejected the principle of stare decisis and overturned which earlier decision, which had created the principle of "separate but equal"?

a)

Dred Scott v. Sandford

b)

Plessy v. Ferguson

c)

UC v. Bakke

d)

Barron v. Baltimore

132.

Which constitutional amendment was introduced in Congress as a direct contradiction of SCOTUS's decision in Dred Scott v. Sandford?

a)

13th amendment

b)

14th amendment

c)

15th amendment

d)

24th amendment

133.

Who controls SCOTUS's jurisdiction?

a)

themselves

b)

Congress

c)

the President

d)

the bureaucracy

134.

The justices who decided Roe v. Wade and Brown v. Board engaged in

a)

judicial activism

b)

judicial restraint

c)

stare decisis

d)

originalism

135.

After SCOTUS's decision in Worcester v. Georgia, the court instructed the President to honor treaties made with the Native Americans, to which President [ ] allegedly replied, "Chief Justice [ ] has made his decision. Now let him enforce it."

a)

Jackson, Marshall

b)

Adams, Jay

c)

Jackson, Jay

d)

Adams, Marshall

136.

Which interest group was central to the women's movement?

a)

NAACP

b)

NARAL

c)

NOW

d)

ACLU

137.

Which is NOT a protected class established by the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (though in 2020 SCOTUS re-interpreted to include it)?

a)

race

b)

national origin

c)

religion

d)

sexual orientation

138.

Which constitutional clause has been MOST important for various civil rights movements?

a)

equal protection clause

b)

due process clause

c)

supremacy clause

d)

commerce clause

139.

Who was the majority in the Shaw v. Reno decision?

a)

Liberal justices who argued the Constitution should be colorblind

b)

Liberal justices who argued the Constitution forbids only those racial classifications intended to harm minorities, not help them

c)

Conservative justices who argued the Constitution should be colorblind

d)

Conservative justices who argued the Constitution forbids only those racial classifications intended to harm minorities, not help them

140.

In UC v. Bakke, SCOTUS ruled that

a)

affirmative action was unconstitutional

b)

affirmative action was constitutional

c)

affirmative action was constitutional if race was considered as ONE factor among many

141.

A college affirmative action program is likely to be ruled constitutional if its goal is to

a)

promote diversity on campus

b)

redress historic minority under-representation

c)

is a strict quota system

d)

is based on race, not socioeconomic status

142.

Who provides Advice and Consent on many presidential appointments?

a)

the House

b)

the Senate

c)

the Cabinet

d)

Congress

143.

Who negotiates treaties?

a)

the President

b)

the Senate

c)

the House

d)

the Speaker of the House

144.

Who must ratify treaties for them to take effect?

a)

the President

b)

the Senate

c)

the House

d)

the Speaker of the House

145.

Who has the power to impeach federal officials?

a)

the President

b)

the Senate

c)

the House

d)

the Speaker of the House

146.

Who conducts the trial for impeached officials?

a)

the President

b)

the Senate

c)

the House

d)

the Speaker of the House

147.

Which clause describes how the President should enforce the laws?

a)

Take Care Clause

b)

Supremacy Clause

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

Due Process Clause

148.

Which of these is NOT a presidential power?

a)

recognizing foreign nations

b)

declaring war

c)

appointing federal judges

d)

negotiating treaties

149.

Which of these is NOT a presidential power?

a)

appointing Cabinet members

b)

vetoing laws

c)

commander-in-chief of the military

d)

removing federal judges from office

150.

Which of these is not a FORMAL presidential power?

a)

giving the State of the Union address

b)

vetoing legislation

c)

writing executive orders

d)

issuing pardons for federal crimes

151.

Which is NOT true of executive orders?

a)

They have the force of law.

b)

They must receive congressional approval to take effect.

c)

They can be overturned by the next President.

d)

They are an informal power of the President.

152.

Where is the executive branch described in the Constitution?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article IV

153.

The goal of the War Powers Resolution was to

a)

limit the President's ability to use troops without Congress's approval

b)

increase the President's power to act in times of a crisis

c)

prevent the President from using troops without a declaration of war

d)

limit Congress's control over the use of troops

154.

The President may use an [ ] in order to get around the treaty ratification process.

a)

executive agreement

b)

executive order

c)

executive instruction

d)

signing statement

155.

The vast majority of bureaucrats are

a)

hired

b)

appointed

c)

elected

156.

Only the highest level of bureaucrats are

a)

appointed

b)

elected

c)

hired

157.

The Framers of the Constitution created the electoral college to

a)

ensure the people had the greatest say in choosing the executive

b)

be a filter for public opinion, which they didn't trust

158.

Which department oversees our interactions with foreign countries?

a)

Department of State

b)

Department of Defense

c)

Department of Foreign Affairs

d)

Department of the Interior

159.

Most regulatory commissions exist to control or limit the activities of

a)

business and industry

b)

Congress

c)

other bureaucratic agencies

d)

interest groups

160.

Which is NOT true of cabinet secretaries?

a)

They are usually chosen for political reasons.

b)

They must be confirmed by the Senate.

c)

They lead one of the 15 executive departments.

d)

They are elected by the voters.

161.

Who can override a presidential veto?

a)

2/3 of the Supreme Court

b)

2/3 of the Senate

c)

2/3 of both chambers of Congress

d)

2/3 of the state legislatures

162.

All cabinet departments are headed by a secretary EXCEPT

a)

Homeland Security

b)

Justice

c)

Health and Human Services

d)

Education

163.

Which of these is NOT part of the President's role as the Chief Diplomat?

a)

negotiating treaties

b)

meeting with foreign leaders

c)

appointing and receiving ambassadors

d)

vetoing legislation

164.

Under the Constitution as ratified, which person/body was directly elected by the people?

a)

only the House of Representatives

b)

only the Senate

c)

only the President

d)

the House and the Senate

165.

What vote is needed to convict and remove an impeached official?

a)

2/3 of the Senate

b)

2/3 of the House of Representatives

c)

a majority of the Senate

d)

2/3 of both chambers of Congress

166.

The bureaucracy does all of the following EXCEPT

a)

create and enforce specific rules based on laws passed by Congress

b)

help the President implement the law

c)

advise the President and provide specialized expertise

d)

decide if laws are constitutional or not

167.

Which of the following are regulatory commissions?

a)

EPA, FCC, FEC

b)

Departments of State and Justice

c)

Amtrak and the Post Office

d)

CIA and NASA

168.

Currently, who is DIRECTLY elected by the people? (Check ALL that apply.)

a)

the House of Representatives

b)

the Senate

c)

the President

d)

federal judges

169.

In which house are filibusters possible?

a)

the House of Representatives only

b)

the Senate only

c)

both houses

170.

A representative who votes according to his/her own conscience is called a(n) [ ], and this is more common in the [ ].

a)

delegate, Senate

b)

delegate, House

c)

trustee, Senate

d)

trustee, House

171.

The person who currently holds an elected office is called the [ ].

a)

constituent

b)

incumbent

c)

trustee

d)

delegate

172.

Gerrymandering is a problem

a)

only in the House of Representatives

b)

only in the Senate

c)

in both houses of Congress

d)

only in states controlled by Republicans

173.

Our government is bicameral because

a)

power is divided between two branches of government

b)

legislative power is divided between two houses

c)

power is divided between the national and state governments

d)

each state has two Senators

174.

Which is NOT true of the Congress?

a)

The Senate was intended to be the mature and enlightened body.

b)

Representation in the Senate is equal for each state.

c)

Revenue-raising (or tax bills) must originate in the Senate.

d)

The House is a larger body.

175.

The purpose of a filibuster is to

a)

prevent a bill from coming to a vote

b)

end debate on a bill so a vote can happen

c)

override the President's veto

d)

force a committee to deliver a report

176.

The purpose of a cloture motion is to

a)

prevent a bill from coming to a vote

b)

end debate on a bill so a vote can happen

c)

override the President's veto

d)

force a committee to deliver a report

177.

Passing a cloture motion requires [ ] of the Senate.

a)

a majority

b)

3/5

c)

2/3

d)

3/4

178.

After a bill is introduced in Congress and given a number, it is sent to

a)

the full House of Representatives for debate

b)

a standing committee for amendments and markup

c)

the Supreme Court for evaluation

d)

the President for feedback

179.

Which of the following types of committees is a temporary one formed to reconcile (or bring together) two different versions of a bill?

a)

joint

b)

standing

c)

conference

d)

select

180.

Who draws the boundary lines for congressional districts in most states?

a)

the governor

b)

the state legislature

c)

the State Supreme Court

d)

the state Supervisor of Elections

181.

Which statement about the lawmaking process is TRUE?

a)

Anyone can introduce a bill in Congress.

b)

The President's veto can be overridden by the Supreme Court.

c)

Most bills make it through committee easily.

d)

It is easier to pass bills in the House than in the Senate.

182.

When the party in power draws the lines in a way that favors their own candidates, that's called [ ]

a)

census

b)

reapportionment

c)

redistricting

d)

gerrymandering

183.

When the number of seats your state gets changes, you must re-draw the district lines so that every district has roughly the same population. This is called [ ]

a)

census

b)

reapportionment

c)

redistricting

d)

gerrymandering

184.

Based on changes in population, some states gain or lose seats in the House of Representatives. This is called [ ]

a)

census

b)

reapportionment

c)

redistricting

d)

gerrymandering

185.

What percentage of bills die in committee and never receive a full floor vote?

a)

90%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

10%

186.

The most powerful person in the House of Representatives is the [ ], who is always from the majority party.

a)

Speaker

b)

Majority Leader

c)

Vice President

d)

Chief Representatives

187.

Oversight is practiced by

a)

the executive over Congress

b)

Congress over the executive

c)

the judiciary over Congress

d)

the federal government over the states

188.

[ ] spending is required by legislation and makes up about [ ]% of the annual budget.

a)

Mandatory, 66%

b)

Mandatory, 60%

c)

Discretionary, 34%

d)

Discretionary, 40%

189.

A congressional committee chair is always

a)

the most senior member of a committee

b)

a member of the majority party in the chamber

c)

a member of the minority part in the chamber

d)

appointed by the Speaker of the House

190.

Which of the following makes up the largest percentage of the discretionary budget each year?

a)

Medicare

b)

Social Security

c)

Military

d)

Interest on the debt

191.

The congressional party leader who counts the votes and ensures all members know how to vote on prospective bills is called the [ ].

(a)  

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