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AP Chemistry Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 2hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What mass of methane (CH4) would contain the same number of carbon atoms as 10.0 g of propane (C3H8)?

a)

5.4 g

b)

3.6 g

c)

1.21 g

d)

10.6 g

2.

The quantity on the (x) axis of a mass spectrum is

a)

mass

b)

electric charge

c)

mass to charge ratio

d)

charge to mass ratio

3.

A metal oxide has the formula M2O3. 10.0 g of the compound contains 3.02 g of oxygen. Choose the chemical formula of the compound.

a)

Al2O3

b)

Fe2O3

c)

V2O3

d)

W2O3

4.

A mixture of solid powdered NaCl and CsCl has a total mass of 10.0 g. The total mass of chloride in the mixture is 3.28 g. Choose the correct approximate combination of NaCl and CsCl in the mixture.

a)

10 g NaCl, 0 g CsCl

b)

3 g NaCl, 7 g CsCl

c)

5 g NaCl, 5 g CsCl

d)

3 g NaCl, 7 g CsCl

5.

Choose the set of species that have the same electron configuration

a)

O2-, S2-, Se2-, Te2-

b)

O2-, Ne, Na+, Mg2+

c)

F-, Ne, Cl-, Ar

d)

F-, Na+, Cl-, K+

6.

How many peaks would you expect to see in the photoelectron spectrum of aluminum?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Six

7.

Choose the correct description of trends across a row of the periodic table.

a)

Atomic size increases; ionization energy increases; electron affinity decreases

b)

Atomic size increases; ionization energy decreases; electron affinity decreases

c)

Atomic size decreases; ionization energy decreases; electron affinity decreases

d)

Atomic size decreases; ionization energy increases; electron affinity increases

8.

Choose the correct ranking of the following metals from most reactive to least reactive

a)

Na, Cu, Ba, Ca, Au

b)

Na, Ba, Ca, Cu, Au

c)

Na, Ca, Cu, Ba, Au

d)

Na, Cu, Ca, Au, Ba

9.

Elements that differ moderately in their electronegativities will undergo what type of bonding?

a)

Covalent

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Metallic

10.

Choose the correct description of the minimum in the bond energy curve for C-O single bond compared to C=O double bond.

a)

The C-O minimum lies to the right and below

b)

The C-O minimum lies to the left and below

c)

The C-O minimum lies to the right and above

d)

The C-O minimum lies to the left and above

11.

Choose the pair that maximizes the Coulomb's law force.

a)

Large r, small q1*q2

b)

Large r, large q1*q2

c)

Small r, large q1*q2

d)

Large r, large q1*q2

12.

An interstitial alloy is likely to be _________ than a substitional alloy.

a)

harder

b)

softer

c)

more dense

d)

less dense

13.

Choose the chemical formula that is most likely to contain a double bond in the primary Lewis structure.

a)

CH3CH2OH

b)

CH3CHOHCH3

c)

CH3CH2CHO

d)

CH2CH2OOCH3

14.

Choose the chemical formula that is the most likely to display resonance.

a)

C (diamond)

b)

C2H2

c)

C2H4

d)

C6H6 (ring)

15.

The bond angle in the water molecule is closest to

a)

90 deg 

b)

105 deg

c)

120 deg

d)

180 deg

16.

Choose the correct order of bond strength from strongest to weakest.

a)

Covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds, London dispersion forces

b)

Covalent bonds, London dispersion forces, hydrogen bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds, covalent bonds, London dispersion forces,

d)

London dispersion forces, hydrogen bonds, covalent bonds

17.

The melting points of transition metals rise in approximate relation to

a)

The molar mass of the metal

b)

The electric conductivity of the metal

c)

The number of unpaired d electrons in the metal

d)

The ratio of neutrons to protons in the metal nucleus

18.

The particle spacing in solids compared to the spacing in liquids and the spacing in gases is

a)

slightly less than in liquids and moderately less than in gases

b)

slightly less than in liquids and much less than in gases

c)

much less than in liquids and much less than in gases

d)

moderately less than in liquids and moderately less than in gases

19.

If the moles and the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas sample are both doubled in a rigid container, the pressure will

a)

quadruple

b)

double

c)

remain the same

d)

decrease by factor of four

20.

If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas sample in a rigid container is doubled, the average kinetic energy of the particles will ________ and the average velocity of the particles will _________.

a)

double, double

b)

double, quadruple

c)

quadruple, double

d)

quadruple, quadruple

21.

The compressibility factor of a real gas, PV/RT, will __________ then _________ as the pressure of the gas increases

a)

decrease, increase

b)

decrease, increase

c)

increase, stay the same

d)

decrease, stay the same

22.

The molarity of 50.0 mL of HCl solution that would neutralize 0.40 g of solid CaCO3 is

a)

0.080 M

b)

0.16 M

c)

0.32 M

d)

0.40 M

23.

Choose the correct ranking of solubilities in water from least to most.

a)

CH3COOH, C2H5CHO, C4H9OH, CH3OH

b)

C4H9OH, C2H5CHO, CH3COOH, CH3OH

c)

C4H9OH, C2H5CHO,

CH3OH, CH3COOH,

d)

C2H5CHO, C4H9OH,

CH3OH, CH3COOH,

24.

If a person wanted to separate a liquid mixture and then use the separated individual components, the best separation technique(s) would be

a)

chromatography

b)

distillation

c)

either chromatography or distillation

d)

neither chromatography nor distillation

25.

THe best solvent for formic acid, HCOOH, would be

a)

Acetone, CH3COCH3

b)

Octane, C8H18

c)

Pyridine, C5H5N

d)

Water

26.

A compound with the formula C2H6O could be ethanol (CH3CH2OH) or it could be dimethyl ether (CH3OCH3). The best type of spectroscopy to determine the compound's identity would be

a)

mass spectrometry

b)

photoelectron spectroscopy

c)

UV-visible spectroscopy

d)

Infrared spectroscopy

27.

Choose the correct order of electromagnetic radiation, from lowest energy to highest.

a)

UV, IR, microwave, X-ray

b)

UV, microwave, X-ray, IR

c)

microwave, IR, UV, X-ray

d)

IR, UV, microwave, X-ray

28.

THe number of variables that determine the level of absorbance in Beer's law is

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

29.

Choose the true statement.

a)

Chemical changes are nearly always more energetic than physical changes.

b)

Physical changes are reversible; chemical changes usually aren't.

c)

Physical changes are endothermic; chemical changes can be endo or exo.

d)

None of these statements are reliably true.

30.

Choose the number of mistakes in this net ionic equation: Ag+(aq) + SO42-(aq) --> AgSO4(aq)

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

31.

The difference in boiling points between CH4, CH3OH, and H2O can be attributed to their differences in

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

covalent bonding

c)

density

d)

reduction potential

32.

If 20.0 L of C2H6(g) at STP are fully oxidized in O2(g), the maximum STP volume of CO2(g) that could be produced is

a)

20.0 L

b)

29.3 L

c)

40.0 L

d)

58.6 L

33.

The molarity of 25.0 mL of an NaOH solution that requires 22.6 mL of 0.15 M H2SO4 for titration to a phenolphthalein endpoint is

a)

0.0678 M

b)

0.136 M

c)

0.271 M

d)

0.401 M

34.

What three considerations are the most important in distinguishing between precipitation, acid-base, and redox reactions?

a)

Solubility, bonding type, and proton exchange

b)

Bonding type, proton exchange, and oxidation number

c)

Proton exchange, oxidation number, and enthalpy change

d)

Proton exchange, solubility,and oxidation number

35.

Identify the conjugate acid/base pair.

a)

HCl, H3O+

b)

H2SO4, SO42-

c)

HF, F2

d)

H2CO3, HCO3-

36.

Choose the best description of a half reaction

a)

It shows the gain and loss of electrons

b)

It shows the gain or loss of electrons

c)

It eliminates the spectator ions from the complete reaction

d)

It shows the exchange of the proton(s) but not the electron(s)

37.

The primary experiment variables that shape the rate of a chemical reaction are

a)

phase, concentration, solubility, temperature

b)

temperature, extent of mixing, concentration, catalysis

c)

catalysis, index of refraction, solubility, entropy

d)

solubility, acidity, entropy, bonding type

38.

A zero-order reaction shows a rate of change of concentration that

a)

remains constant over time

b)

changes in a linear way over time

c)

changes in a logarithmic way over time

d)

changes in an exponential way over time

39.

What is true of an elementary reaction?

a)

Its rate expression can be deduced from its stoichiometry

b)

Its mechanism consists of a single step

c)

Rarely if ever will it be second order

d)

All three statements are true.

40.

If the reaction between A and B is first order in both and we double the molarities of both, the reaction rate will

a)

remain the same

b)

double

c)

triple

d)

quadruple

41.

Choose the most accurate statement regarding chemical reactions.

a)

A large activation energy means that the enthalpy change will be large

b)

A large activation energy means that that reaction will be exothermic

c)

The sizes of the activation energy and the enthalpy change are inversely related

d)

The size of the activation energy is unrelated to the size of the enthalpy change.

42.

The steps of a mechanism will ___________ add up to give the exact overall chemical equation.

a)

always

b)

usually

c)

sometimes

d)

never

43.

Which step of a reaction mechanism is the rate determining step?

a)

The slowest step

b)

The fastest step

c)

The step that contains a solid

d)

The step that contains a gas

44.

If a reaction is first order in an ingredient, the time-vs-molarity function that gives a straight line on a graph contains

a)

square roots

b)

logarithms

c)

reciprocals

d)

sines and cosines

45.

The catalytic converter in a car is an example of

a)

homogeneous catalysis

b)

heterogeneous catalysis

c)

first order catalysis

d)

variable catalysis

46.

Choose the attribute of thermal equilibrium.

a)

There is no overall temperature change

b)

There is no overall heat exchange

c)

There is no capacity to fuel useful work

d)

All of these are attributes of thermal equilibrium

47.

The specific heat capacity of Al is 0.90 J/g/K. The molar heat capacity of Al in J/mol/K is roughly

a)

0.90

b)

24

c)

30

d)

33

48.

The molar heat of fusion of benzene (C6H6) is 9.92 kJ per mole. The heat released when 80.0 g of benzene freezes is

a)

10.2 kJ

b)

8 kJ

c)

1.03 kJ

d)

0.104 kJ

49.

Choose the reaction that will have the largest enthalpy change in kJ per mole.

a)

HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq)

b)

Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq)

c)

Fe3+(aq) + SCN-(aq)

d)

C25H52(s) + O2(g)

50.

We would expect a large enthalpy change for a reaction in which

a)

the reactants have weaker bonds and the products have stronger bonds

b)

the reactants have stronger bonds and the products have weaker bonds

c)

the reactants have covalent bonds and the products have ionic bonds

d)

the reactants have weaker bonds and the products have metallic bonds

51.

Choose the substance that has the lowest enthalpy of formation in absolute value.

a)

HOCl(g)

b)

HCl(g)

c)

OCl-(aq)

d)

Cl2(g)

52.

Choose the useful tool for discerning the onset of chemical equilibrium.

a)

Thermometer

b)

Spectrophotometer

c)

Human eyeball

d)

All can be useful depending on the circumstance.

53.

As a chemical reaction approaches equilibrium, the rate of the forward reaction will ___________ and the rate of the reverse reaction will ___________ .

a)

approach zero; also approach zero

b)

increase to a constant; increase to a constant

c)

increase to a constant; decrease to a constant

d)

decrease to a constant; increase to a constant

54.

If, at a particular point in a reaction, Q > Keq, the reaction will run ______________ to reach equilibrium.

a)

forward

b)

backward

c)

forward then backward

d)

backward then forward

55.

Reactions that have a very small Keq value have a __________ tendency to proceed in the forward direction.

a)

weak

b)

moderate

c)

strong

d)

overwhelming

56.

When a reaction is reversed, the Keq becomes the ___________ compared to the original (forward) reaction.

a)

square root

b)

logarithm

c)

compliment

d)

reciprocal

57.

If we add heat to an exothermic reaction, we will favor the formation of

a)

products

b)

reactants

c)

both reactants and products

d)

neither reactants nor products

58.

The Ksp value for cobalt (II) hydroxide is 5.9 * 10-15. The molar solubility of this compound is

a)

7.7 * 10-8 M

b)

3.8 * 10-8 M

c)

1.8 * 10-5 M

d)

1.14 * 10-5 M

59.

The solubility of AgBr in 0.20 M KBr solution is ___________, (Use 3.3 * 10-13 for the AgBr Ksp.)

a)

5.74 * 10-7 M

b)

1.42 * 10-11 M

c)

1.65 * 10-12 M

d)

3.3 * 10-13 M

60.

Dissolving calcium phosphate in 0.10 M CH3COOH will

a)

increase its solubility

b)

decrease its solubility

c)

leave its solubility unchanged

d)

cause its solubility to increase then decrease

61.

A solution of pH 4.8 has a pOH of

a)

4.8

b)

9.2

c)

1.6 * 10-5

d)

6.3 * 10-10

62.

A 0.22 M solution of H2SO4 has a [H+], [OH-], pH, and pOH of . . .

a)

.22 M, 4.5 * 10-14 M, 0.66, 13.34

b)

0.44, 2.3 * 10-14 M, 0.36, 13.64

c)

0.47, 2.1 * 10-14, 0.33, 13.67

d)

None of these

63.

In a titration experiment in which NaOH(aq) is being titrated with CH3COOH (acetic acid), prior to the equivalence point, excluding the spectator ions, the species that is present in highest concentration is

a)

H+(aq)

b)

CH3COOH

c)

CH3COO-

d)

OH-

64.

In a titration experiment in which NaOH(aq) is being titrated with CH3COOH (acetic acid), after the equivalence point, the weak nature of acetic acid means that the solution pH

a)

doesn't drop below about 3

b)

rapidly drops below 3

c)

remains near 7

d)

never reaches a value as low as 7

65.

Choose the pair that would make a decent buffer solution.

a)

HCl, Cl-

b)

HNO3, H3O+

c)

H2O, OH-

d)

H2PO4-, HPO42-

66.

Choose the statement that best describes why we find Δ\Delta G to be a more helpful function than Δ\Delta S

a)

Δ\Delta G is in kJ but Δ\Delta S is in J

b)

Δ\Delta G is independent of temperature

c)

Δ\Delta G accounts for the system and the surroundings

d)

Δ\Delta G contains the value of the heat change

67.

If a reaction is under kinetic control, it's rate under normal conditions will most likely be

a)

low

b)

high

c)

intermediate

d)

variable

68.

If a reaction has a Δ\Delta G °\degree  = -66 kJ, its equilibrium constant will be closest to

a)

1 * 105

b)

1*108

c)

1*1010

d)

1*1013

69.

If two half cells have half cell potentials of 0.30 V and -1.25 V, the electric potential for the corresponding voltaic cell will be

a)

-0.95 V

b)

-1.55 V

c)

1.55 V

d)

0.95 V

70.

In an electrochemical cell, oxidation occurs at the ____________ and reduction occurs at the ____________ .

a)

anode; cathode

b)

cathode; anode

c)

anode; electrolyte chamber

d)

cathode; electrolyte chamber

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