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NUR211Exam4 Practice

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

HIV becomes AIDS when ______ cells have been destroyed.

a)

BD4

b)

T Helper

c)

C Helper

d)

D Helper

2.

Which of the following is NOT a way that HIV can be transmitted.

a)

Blood

b)

Sex

c)

Mother to Child

d)

Sitting on a Toilet Seat

3.

Which of the following would be an example of an opportunistic infection?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Common Cold

c)

Herpes Simplex

d)

Staph Infection

4.

A person can be infected with HIV and not show any symptoms early on.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

How long can the HIV virus last outside the body?

a)

forever

b)

a short time

c)

a year

d)

a month

6.

The AIDS virus weakens your immune system by destroying your ________ .

a)

White blood cells

b)

red blood red blood cells

c)

"B" Cells

d)

"T" Cells

7.

The risk of infection from a blood transfusion is very high.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which fluid can spread the aids virus?

a)

saliva

b)

semen

c)

urine

d)

vomit

9.

What fluid can NOT spread the AIDS virus?

a)

blood

b)

vaginal fluids

c)

breast milk

d)

mucus

10.

What is the cure for AIDS?

a)

vaccination

b)

antibiotics

c)

there is no cure

d)

Ibuprofen

11.

What does SLE stand for?

a)

Systolic lupus erythropenia

b)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

c)

Stop losing everything

d)

A. Synovial lupus erythema

12.

Lupus is a form of:

a)

Infection

b)

Cancer

c)

Influenza

d)

Auto-immune disorder

13.

Persons with lupus are generally encouraged to do the following except

a)

Avoid the sun

b)

Not go to work

c)

Engage in exercise

d)

Get enough sleep

e)

Take medications regularly

14.

Which of the following about lupus is false?

a)

Up to 60% of lupus patients can have kidney involvement

b)

Lupus can be treated

c)

Average age at onset is 22 years

d)

Up to 20% of lupus patients are diagnosed as children

e)

Lupus is a short-term illness

15.

Treatment or prevention of disease (such as an autoimmune disorder, allergy, or cancer) that involves the stimulation, enhancement, suppression, or desensitization of the immune system.

a)

immunotherapy

b)

immunosuppressant

c)

immunoglobins

d)

immunodeficiency disorder

16.

An agent that can suppress or prevent the immune response. These medicines are used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ and to treat autoimmune diseases such as psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Crohn's disease. Some treatments for cancer act as in the same manner.

a)

immunoglobins

b)

immunodeficiency disorder

c)

human immunodeficiency virus

d)

immunosuppressant

17.

Any of a class of proteins present in the serum and cells of the immune system, that function as antibodies.

a)

immunosuppressant

b)

immunoglobins

c)

immunotherapy

d)

infectious mononucleosis

18.

This type of disorder makes it easier for you to catch viruses and bacterial infections. These disorders are either congenital or acquired.

a)

immunoglobins

b)

immunosuppressant

c)

immunodeficiency disorder

d)

immunotherapy

19.

This agent interferes with your body's ability to fight the organisms that cause disease. This is a blood and fluid borne pathogen that is a sexually transmitted infection but can be transmitted through bllod transfusions and other means. Can cause AIDS.

a)

immunodeficiency disorder

b)

immunoglobins

c)

hodgkin's disease

d)

human immunodeficiency virus

20.

A protein released by animal cells, usually in response to the entry of a virus, that has the property of inhibiting virus replication.

a)

infiltrating ductal carcinoma

b)

infectious mononucleosis

c)

interferons

d)

lymphadenitis

21.

A large phagocytic cell found in stationary form in the tissues or as a mobile white blood cell, especially at sites of infection.

a)

macrophage

b)

immunodeficiency disorder

c)

lymphoscintigraphy

d)

lymphadenitis

22.

80% of people that have rheumatoid arthritis develop it between ___ and ___ years of age

a)

a. 25-40

b)

b. 30-50

c)

c. 30-60

d)

d. 70 and above

23.

Which of these autoimmune diseases can be cured

a)

a. Lupus

b)

b. Multiple sclerosis

c)

c. Scleroderma

d)

d. None of the above

24.

As seen in many patients with lupus, the hallmark "butterfly rash" appears

a)

a. On the chest or back

b)

b. Across the nose and cheeks

c)

c. Across the pelvis

d)

d. Between the shoulder blades

25.

An illness that occurs when the body tissues are attacked by its own immune system is known as autoimmune disease.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

26.

A patient is diagnosed with a systematic lupus erythematous (SLE). SLE primarily attacks which tissues?

a)

a. Heart

b)

b. Lung

c)

c. Nerve

d)

d. Connective

27.

When the lining of the joints of a person is attacked by their own immune system, this can cause lots of pain and discomfort. This can be classified as

a)

immune disorder

b)

autoimmune disease

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

28.

Sally visits Megan's house to play with Megan's new kitten. Within a few minutes, Sally's nose is runny and she is sneezing. What is most likely causing Sally's symptoms?

a)

Sally caught a cold from Megan.

b)

Sally caught a virus from the cat.

c)

Sally is developing an autoimmune disease.

d)

Sally is having an allergic reaction the cat.

29.

How do T cells and B cells help build the body’s immunity to disease?

a)

T cells and B cells are skin cells that secrete oils which kill pathogens as they come in contact with the body’s surface.

b)

T cells and B cells attach themselves to antigens, gradually absorbing each antigen until it is no longer a threat to the body.

c)

When a body is exposed to a certain pathogen, T cells and B cells remember that pathogen and produce antibodies to fight that pathogen.

d)

Scientists extract T cells and B cells from a killed or weakened pathogen; when injected into a body, these cells trigger the body to make antigens for that pathogen.

30.

Which of the following would most likely cause an immune deficiency disorder?

a)

rapid or uncontrolled cell division

b)

a pathogen impairs the body’s immune system

c)

the production of macrophages by the immune system

d)

an allergic reaction to an ordinarily harmless substance

31.
Where do T cells mature?
a)
lymph node
b)
bone marrow
c)
thymus
d)
liver
32.
What do antibodies attach to on the pathogen?
a)
Anti inflammatory
b)
Antigens
c)
Antiseptic
d)
Antibodies
33.

HLA DR4, HLA DR1 antigens are found in MHC of_____patients

a)

osteoporosis

b)

rheumatoid arthritis

c)

osteoarthritis

d)

gout

34.

Which of the following is the most common pulmonary manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia

b)

Pleuritis

c)

Emphysema

d)

None of the choices

35.

An allergy is an abnormal, destructive immune response with effects that can range from annoying to deadly

a)

true

b)

false

36.

__________________attach to a mast cell, which then produces histamines.

a)

allergens

b)

histamines

c)

anti histamines

37.

__________________are a potent chemical substances that causes blood vessels to leak into tissues.

a)

allergens

b)

histamines

c)

anti histamines

38.

__________________are used to counteract allergic reactions.

a)

allergens

b)

histamines

c)

anti histamines

39.

Name the disease that is related to the inflamation of synovial membrane.

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Gout arthritis

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Osteoporosis

40.

The treatment of tuberculosis takes about ____________.

a)

3 to 5 years

b)

6 to 9 months

c)

10 to 12 months

d)

2 to 3 years

41.

Many countries have started to use the __________________ vaccine in order to stop the development of active tuberculosis.

a)

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin

b)

Flu

c)

Varicella

d)

MMR

42.

Do people who are affected by tuberculosis always experience symptoms right away?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

43.

Which type of TB test requires the person to return to the clinic and have the result "read" by a clinician in 48-72 hours?

a)

TB blood test

b)

TB skin test

c)

TB stool test

d)

TB yo mamma test

44.

Which of the following are considered symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis?

a)

Dry mouth, blurry vision

b)

The ability to talk to animals

c)

Coughing, night sweats, fevers

d)

An insatiable craving for gravy

45.

Tuberculosis can have either an active or latent state. In which state would the patient receive treatment?

a)

Active

b)

Latent

c)

Both

d)

Montana

46.

Why should one of the sputum samples tested for AFB be an early morning sample?

a)

To surprise the bacteria before they've had breakfast.

b)

Coughing is often suppressed at night, thus early morning expectoration represents overnight secretions accumulated in the chest.

c)

I don't know.

d)

I don't know (but in red)

47.

Which of the following is the pathogen of tuberculosis?

a)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

b)

Mycabacterium tubercolosis

c)

Mycibacterium tubercolosis

d)

Mycebacterium tubercolosis

48.

With which part of the nervous system is meningitis associated?

a)

The tissues covering the brain

b)

Neurons

c)

The axon

d)

The spinal cord