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PDPK Final Exam

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 4hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety is absorbed from a drug product and becomes available at the site of action is known as:

a)

Bioavailabilty

b)

Metabolism

c)

Distribution

d)

Rate of elimination

2.

What formula would you use to determine bioavailability?

a)
b)
c)

=1/2(C1+C2)(t2-t1)

d)

=total drug concentration x fu

3.

The movement of drug from site of administration/absorption to the rest of the body is known as:

a)

Bioavailabilty

b)

Metabolism

c)

Distribution

d)

Rate of elimination

4.

What formula would you use to determine the volume of distribution (proportionally related to the amount of drug in body to concentration)?

a)
b)
c)

=1/2(C1+C2)(t2-t1)

d)

=total drug concentration x fu

5.

Which of the following are true for rate of elimination?

a)

The the absolute amount of drug that leaves the body per time

b)

Rate of elimination (mg/hr) ≠ Rate constant of elimination (K)

c)

Rate of elimination (mg/hr) ≠ Clearance (CL)

d)

Units: R (mg/hr)

6.
a)

First order elimination

b)

Linear graph paper

c)

Concentration-time

d)

Semi-log graph paper

e)

Ln (concentration)-time

7.

a)

First order elimination

b)

Linear graph paper

c)

Concentration-time

d)

Semi-log graph paper

e)

Ln (concentration)-time

8.

a)

First order elimination

b)

Linear graph paper

c)

Concentration-time

d)

Semi-log graph paper

e)

Ln (concentration)-time

9.

a)

Zero order elimination

b)

Linear graph paper

c)

Drug concentration-time

d)

Semi-log graph paper

e)

Ln (concentration)-time

10.

Which of the following are true for first-order elimination rates?

a)

A constant fraction of drug in the body leaves the body per hour

b)

Drug elimination rate is proportional to drug concentration

c)

Drug elimination follows linear kinetics

d)

A constant amount of drug in the body leaves the body per hour

e)

No relevant half-life

11.

Which of the following are true for zero-order elimination rates?

a)

A constant fraction of drug in the body leaves the body per hour

b)

Drug elimination rate is independent to drug concentration

c)

Drug elimination follows linear kinetics

d)

A constant amount of drug in the body leaves the body per hour

e)

No relevant half-life

12.

Blood facilitates Drug Distribution. Multiple equilibria will determine how much drug will be free and totally present in plasma or tissue. At equilibrium, free levels in tissue and plasma will be identical while tissue and plasma

bound drug might differ.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What formula would you use to determine the free drug concentration?

a)
b)
c)

=1/2(C1+C2)(t2-t1)

d)

=total drug concentration x fu = (1-%protein binding)*total drug

e)

[(total drug-unbound drug)/total drug]*100 = (1-fu)*100

14.

Which of the following are true regarding perfusion?

a)

Limited distribution

b)

Cell membrane between blood and tissue shows very high permeability for drug

c)

Slow blood flow = slow uptake into tissues

d)

Fast blood flow = fast uptake, until tissue free drug levels in blood and tissues are the same

15.

Which of the following are true regarding permeability?

a)

Drug enters tissue very slowly

b)

Blood flow is not important for rate of uptake

c)

Uptake is determined by FICK’s Law (Surface area of membrane, membrane thickness , Concentration gradient,

Partition coefficient, Ionization)

d)

It’s not any more the number of vehicles (buses) driving by, but

how fast alumni is being pushed out (remember they are slow

leaving the bus).

16.
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17.

Protein binding is especially important if:

a)

The drug shows a narrow therapeutic window

b)

The drug shows a high degree of protein binding (small differences in protein binding will affect the unbound fraction significantly)

c)

The drug shows a wide therapeutic window

d)

The drug shows a low degree of protein binding (large differences in protein binding will affect the unbound fraction significantly)

18.

A pharmacist receives a call from a provider asking for assistance with two patients in the clinic. Both patients have a seizure disorder and are taking phenytoin. Patient A is seizure free but is experiencing symptoms of toxicity. Patient B has a higher phenytoin level and is doing fine. Both patients have normal renal function. Which of

the following statements is/are true for this scenario?

a)

Patient B’s corrected phenytoin level will be lower than the total level reported

b)

Patient A’s corrected phenytoin level will be lower than the total level reported

c)

Patient A’s corrected phenytoin level will be higher than the total level reported

d)

Patient A has a greater percentage of bound phenytoin

e)

Patient A has a greater percentage of free phenytoin

19.

Due to the nature of biological membranes, drugs with with the following properties are more likely to cross most membrane barriers?

a)

Ionized

b)

Lipophilic

c)

Nonionized

d)

Hydrophilic

20.

Which of the following formulas are a first-order elimination equation?

a)
b)
c)

=1/2(C1+C2)(t2-t1)

d)

=total drug concentration x fu

e)

C2=C1 * e-KΔt

21.

Which of the following are half-life of compartmental analysis?

a)

T1/2 = 0.693/k or Ln(2)/k

b)

T1/2 = 0.693/λz or Ln(2)/λz

22.

Which of the following are half-life of non-compartmental analysis?

a)

T1/2 = 0.693/k or Ln(2)/k

b)

T1/2 = 0.693/λz or Ln(2)/λz

23.
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24.

Consider a lipophilic, protein bound, low extraction drug. What effects would an increase in plasma protein binding have on CLH?

a)

Increase CLH

b)

No effect

c)

Decrease CLH

25.

Consider a lipophilic, protein bound, low extraction drug. What effects would an increase in liver blood flow have on CLH?

a)

Increase CLH

b)

No effect

c)

Decrease CLH

26.

Consider a lipophilic, protein bound, low extraction drug. What effects would a decrease in metabolic liver enzymes have on CLH?

a)

Increase CLH

b)

No effect

c)

Decrease CLH

27.

Which of the following statements are true?

a)

The larger CL, the larger k or the shorter t1/2

b)

The larger Vd, the smaller k or the longer t1/2

c)

Change in dose will not impact k, t1/2, or CL

d)

The larger CL, the smaller k or the longer t1/2

e)

The larger Vd, the larger k or the shorter t1/2

28.

AUC is dependent on dose and CL. Choose the true statements about AUC.

a)

The larger the dose, the larger the AUC

b)

The larger the CL, the smaller the AUC

c)

The larger the dose, the smaller the AUC

d)

The larger the CL, the larger the AUC

29.

Which of the following are true for the PK process after IV infusion?

a)

In a constant IV infusion, drug solution is infused at a

constant or zero-order rate, K0.

b)

During the IV infusion, the drug concentration increases in the plasma and the rate of drug elimination increases because rate of elimination is concentration dependent (first-order elimination).

c)

Cp keeps increasing until steady state is reached at which time the rate of drug input (IV infusion rate) equals rate of drug output (elimination rate).

d)

After the cessation of infusion, the remaining drug in body

continues to be eliminated at a first-order rate.

30.

Which of the following are true for IV bolus and IV infusion?

a)

Adding an iv bolus at the start of the infusion will result in achieving steady state condition immediately

b)

The total concentration Ctot at t hours after the start of infusion would be equal to Cbol + Cinf

c)

Adding an iv bolus at the start of the infusion will result in reaching steady state conditions significantly slower

d)

The total concentration Ctot at t hours after the start of infusion would be equal to Cbol * Cinf

31.

Which of the following statements are true regarding single dose oral medications?

a)

tmax: After oral drug administration, the maximum plasma concentration (Cmax) is reached at time tmax when the rate of change of drug in the body is zero (i.e., Rate In = Rate Out).

b)

Tmax is independent of dose and fraction absorbed

c)

The smaller ka, the later tmax, the lower Cmax

d)

The larger ka, the shorter tmax, the higher Cmax

32.

AUC for oral single dose meds are independent of ka, and directly related to dose and bioavailability.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

What are the steps for designing dosage regimens?

a)

Step 1. Calculate K, Vd and Clearance

b)

Step 2. Select Cavg and f based on therapeutic concentration range.

c)

Step 3. Choose Div and τ – restricted by the size of the

available doses and convenient dosing interval (i.e., τ = 4,

6, 8, 12, 24 hours for best compliance by the patient).

d)

Step 4. Check Cmax,ss and Cmin,ss to confirm that the dosage regimen is suitable.

34.

eGFR - Estimated glomerular filtration rate is the test to measure your level of kidney function and determine your stage of kidney disease.

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35.

Which of the following are true regarding fe and 1-fe?

a)

“fe” tells us about need to adjust in renal or liver disease

b)

fe cutoff for dosage reduction in renal or hepatic disease: >0.25

c)

fe > 0.25 –reduce dose in renal disease

d)

1-fe >0.25 – reduce in liver disease

36.

Which of the following are true regarding mean residence time (MRT)?

a)

Statistical moment analogy to half-life.

b)

Provides a useful estimate of the persistence of drug in the body

c)

Represents the time for 63.2% of an iv bolus dose to be

eliminated

d)

Function of both distribution and elimination parameters

e)

Measure of the average time a drug molecule remains in the body

37.

Which of the following are advantages of NCA vs. compartmental models?

a)

No assumptions of compartments

b)

Simple calculation

c)

Do not require sophisticated software

d)

Less variations among analysts

e)

Intensive sampling

38.

Which of the following are disadvantages of NCA vs. compartmental models?

a)

No assumptions of compartments

b)

No model for visualization or prediction

c)

Some information may be lost (V1, K10, micro rate constants after IV dosing).

d)

Less variations among analysts

e)

Intensive sampling

39.

Which of the following are associated with linear dose-independent PK?

a)

ADME all obey first-order kinetics

b)

PK parameters (CL, Vd, F, K and t1/2) is dose independent

c)

AUC is proportional to dose

d)

At least one of the ADME processes is saturable

e)

At least one PK parameters is dose dependent

40.

Which of the following are associated with nonlinear dose-dependent PK?

a)

ADME all obey first-order kinetics

b)

PK parameters (CL, Vd, F, K and t1/2) is dose independent

c)

AUC is disproportional to dose

d)

At least one of the ADME processes is saturable

e)

At least one PK parameters is dose dependent

41.

For nonlinear PK, what form of the Michaelis-Menen equation would be used when Cp is very small (Km>>Cp)

a)

v= (Vm/Km) * Cp (first order)

b)

v=Vm (zero order)

c)

v=Vm/2 (Km=concentration associated with Vmax/2)

42.

For nonlinear PK, what form of the Michaelis-Menen equation would be used when Cp is very large (Cp>>Km)

a)

v= (Vm/Km) * Cp (first order)

b)

v=Vm (zero order)

c)

v=Vm/2 (Km=concentration associated with Vmax/2)

43.

For nonlinear PK, what form of the Michaelis-Menen equation would be used when Cp = Km ?

a)

v= (Vm/Km) * Cp (first order)

b)

v=Vm (zero order)

c)

v=Vm/2 (Km=concentration associated with Vmax/2)

44.

Which of the following are true for nonlinear kinetic characteristics?

a)

Drug concentration is high: close to zero order kinetics

b)

Drug concentration is low: close to first order kinetics

c)

K and half-life are drug concentrations dependent, which are NOT constants

d)

AUC is disproportional to dose

45.

Which of the following are FDA guidance on starting dose design?

a)

Empirical approach: Dose by factor approach

b)

The no observed adverse effect levels (NOAEL) of drug is scaled by making use of allometry to derive the maximum recommended starting dose (MRSD) for clinical studies.

c)

NOAEL: the highest dose level that does not produce a

significant increase in adverse effects in comparison to the

control group.

d)

Full send

46.
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47.

Which of the following are true for applying a safety factor from HED to MRSD?

a)

A safety factor provides a margin of safety for protection of human subjects receiving the initial clinical dose.

b)

The MRSD for the clinical trial should be determined by dividing the HED by the safety factor (Default value is 10).

c)

A safety factor of 10 may not be appropriate for all cases. It could be adjusted based on drug properties.

d)

There are no safety factors

48.

Which of the following are true for why SAD and MAD are conducted?

a)

Phase I trial

b)

Identify the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics natures of the trial molecule

c)

Emphasize on safety and tolerability of the subjects participating in Clinical Trials

d)

Help in identifying the intolerable side effects of any drug molecule at a particular dose level

e)

Define maximum tolerated dose

49.
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50.

Which of the following are key measurements in bioequivalence studies?

a)

AUC: the extent of absoption

b)

Cmax: the rate of absorption

c)

t1/2

d)

CL

51.

Which of the following are statistical analysis for AUC and Cmax in bioequivalence studies?

a)

Geometric means

b)

Arithmetic means

c)

Geometric mean ratios

d)

90 percent Confidence intervals (CI)

52.

BE is generally determined if the 90% confidence intervals for Cmax and AUC fall within 80% to 125% of the reference listed drug.

a)

True

b)

False

53.
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54.

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55.

How many half lives does it take to eliminate >95% of the drug is the body?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

56.

Which of the following are units for clearance?

a)

mg/hr

b)

L/hr

c)

1/hr or hr-1

57.

Which of the following are units for the rate constant of elimination (k)?

a)

mg/hr

b)

L/hr

c)

1/hr or hr-1

58.

The process of drug elimination from the body or from a single organ, which is defined as the Volume of fluid cleared of drug from the body per unit of time is known as:

a)

Bioavailabilty

b)

Clearance

c)

Distribution

d)

Rate of elimination

59.

What parameters are the same for drugs C and D?

a)

C0

b)

K

c)

t1/2

60.

What parameters are the different for drugs C and D?

a)

C0

b)

K

c)

t1/2

61.

Amoxicillin shows a decrease in AUC and in increase in clearance in pregnant women. This concludes that amoxicillin is not appropriate to treat anthrax in pregnant women.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of following descriptions is NOT the advantage of noncompartmental analysis (NCA)?

a)

Can be used for sparse sampling PK analysis

b)

Less variations among analysts

c)

Do not rely upon the assumptions of compartments

d)

Fast and more cost- efficient than compartmental analysis

63.

What is the drug concentration at which the rate of metabolism is ½ maximal?

a)

Cmin

b)

Cmax

c)

Km

d)

Vmax

64.

Dosing strategies for aminoglycosides includes:

a)

Traditional dosing

b)

Extended interval dosing

c)

Synergy dosing

d)

Anergy dosing

65.

Uses lower doses more frequently, two-three times daily if renal function is normal, or dose is reduced or dosing interval is extended in patients with decreased renal function describes:

a)

Traditional dosing

b)

Extended interval dosing

c)

Synergy dosing

66.

Uses higher doses (to attain higher peaks) less frequently, once daily if renal function is normal, or interval is extended past 24 h in renal disease patients describes:

a)

Traditional dosing

b)

Extended interval dosing

c)

Synergy dosing

67.

Utilization of a low dose of an aminoglycoside in conjunction with a beta-lactam or given every 8 to 24 h depending on infection describes:

a)

Traditional dosing

b)

Extended interval dosing

c)

Synergy dosing

68.

In traditional dosing, the dose is base off of:

a)

Indication

b)

Weight

c)

Medication

d)

Kidney function

69.

In traditional dosing, the frequency is base off of:

a)

Indication

b)

Weight

c)

Medication

d)

Kidney function

70.

Which of the following are true for ionization of acids?

a)

Higher pH, more ionization, better solubility, low membrane permeability

b)

Lower pH, less ionization, less solubility, high membrane permeability

c)

Lower pH, more ionization, better solubility, low membrane permeability

d)

Higher pH, less ionization, less solubility, high membrane permeability

71.

Which of the following are true for ionization of bases?

a)

Higher pH, more ionization, better solubility, low membrane permeability

b)

Lower pH, less ionization, less solubility, high membrane permeability

c)

Lower pH, more ionization, better solubility, low membrane permeability

d)

Higher pH, less ionization, less solubility, high membrane permeability

72.

What kind of interactions are present here?

a)

Pharmacokinetic

b)

Pharmacodynamic

c)

Drug-drug

d)

Drug-food

73.

Penicillamine must be taken with an empty stomach. If this is not done what type of interactions can occur?

a)

Pharmacokinetic

b)

Pharmacodynamic

c)

Drug-drug

d)

Drug-food

74.

Digoxin interacts with sucralfate and causes yellow vision. They form a chelate which is insoluble meaning it will not be abosrbed.

a)

True

b)

False