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GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND SENSORY PHYSIOLOGY OF NERVOUS SYSTEM

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

a)
Autonomic nervous system and somatic nervous system
b)
Central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS)
c)
Cerebral nervous system and spinal nervous system
d)
Sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system
2.

What is the central nervous system made up of?

a)

Cranial and spinal nerves.

b)

Sensory and motor neurons.

c)
The brain and spinal cord.
d)

Sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

3.

The part of the nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the CNS (central nervous system) and connect to other body parts.

a)

Sympathetic Nervous System

b)

Autonomic Nervous System

c)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

d)
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
4.

The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls conscious activities

a)

Parasympathetic nervous system

b)
Somatic nervous system
c)
Autonomic nervous system
d)
Sympathetic nervous system
5.

The _____ part of the autonomic nervous system is active during resting and digesting

a)
sympathetic
b)
peripheral
c)
parasympathetic
d)

somatic

6.

The​____part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response

a)
somatic
b)

peripheral

c)
sympathetic
d)
parasympathetic
7.

What are the two types of cells found in the nervous system?

a)

Nerve cells and brain cells

b)

Sensory neurons and motor neurons

c)
Neurons and glial cells
d)

Afferent neurons and efferent neurons

8.

Which best describes myelin?

a)

it is a neurotransmitter that triggers muscle contraction

b)

it is a fat that speeds the message along the axon

c)

it is a protein that builds the axon

d)


it is a fat that helps the neuron "hear" messages

9.

Brain is surrounded by three membranes called meninges. These three membranes are:

a)

dura mater

b)

pia mater

c)

subarachnoid mater

d)

arachnoid mater

10.

Cranial nerves contains how many pairs?

a)

31

b)

12

c)

15

d)

5

11.

___ neurons carry messages to the central nervous system.

a)

Motor/efferent

b)

Motor/afferent

c)

Sensory/afferent

d)

Sensory/efferent

12.

What motor/efferent neurons do?

a)

carry messages from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands

b)

carry impulses from sensory neurons to motor neurons

c)

carry impulses from the skin and sends to the spinal cord and brain

d)

store messages

13.

Type of neuron located only in the brain and spinal cord that pass impulses from one neuron to another.

a)

Motor neuron

b)

Interneuron

c)

Sensory neuron

14.

Examples of glial cell types are:

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Ependymal cells

e)

Epithelial cells

15.

Gibbs-Donnan effect is a

a)

phenomenon related to unequal ion distribution across a semipermeable membrane.

b)
A process that describes the movement of solids through liquids.
c)
A type of chemical reaction that occurs in gases.
d)
A method for measuring temperature changes in solutions.
16.

Types of action potential are:

a)

Plateau potential

b)

Spike potential

c)

Resting membrane type

d)

Pacemaker type

17.

The fluid filled in the subarachnoid space around the brain and spinal cord is called as

(a)  

18.

What is the outermost protective membrane of the brain called?

a)
pia mater
b)
arachnoid membrane
c)
dura mater
d)

subarachnoid space

19.

Which cells secrete cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

a)
Astrocytes
b)
Choroid plexus cells
c)
Ependymal cells
d)

Oligodendrocytes

20.

At which level is the lumbar puncture need being inserted for spinal tap procedure?

a)

In between 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebrae

b)


In between 5th and 6th lumbar vertebrae

c)

In between 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae

d)

In between 3rd and 5th lumbar vertebrae

21.

What generates a nerve impulse on the post-synaptic membrane?

a)

Calcium binding with a receptor site

b)

Potassium leaking into the post-synaptic membrane 

c)

Neurotransmitter being removed from the synapse

d)

Neurotransmitter binding with receptor sites

22.

The blue nerve in the image represents a

a)

sensory neuron

b)

relay neuron

c)

interneuron

d)

motor neuron

23.

In order for a neuron to generate an action potential, the neuron must receive more

a)


excitatory neurotransmitters

b)

inhibitory neurotransmitters

c)

antagonistic neurotransmitters

d)

agnostic neurotransmitters

24.

Type of synapse which decreases the chance of the next neuron firing

a)

Excitatory

b)
Electrical synapse
c)

Inhibitory

d)
Chemical synapse
25.

IPSP neurotransmitter causes __________ of the postsynapse.

a)
hyperpolarization
b)
inhibition of neurotransmitter release
c)
no change
d)
depolarization
26.

All of the following are sensory receptor types EXCEPT

a)

neuroreceptors

b)
chemoreceptors
c)
photoreceptors
d)
thermoreceptors
27.

The sense of smell is made possible by

a)

taste receptors

b)

olfactory receptors

c)

sense receptors

d)

nasal receptors

28.

(a)   pain originates in an internal organ yet is felt in another region of the skin.

29.

Laura is upset with the progression of her mother’s memory loss. The family first noticed that she was very confused and often made poor decisions. They slowly watched these symptoms progress to an inability to recognize people. What is the most likely diagnosis for Laura’s mother?

a)

epilepsy

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

meningitis

d)

multiple sclerosis

30.

A reflex reaction is an ___

a)

pain response

b)

voluntary response

c)

conscious response

d)

involuntary response

31.

What does Broca's area do?

a)

Processing language understanding.

b)

Makes associations between a place and name.

c)

Allows production of speech.

d)

Makes associations between a name and a face.

32.

An electroencephalogram allows a researcher to understand ___.

a)

different stages of sleep.

b)

determine specific areas of brain activity.

c)

see structure of the brain.

d)

produces an image to indicate activity of the brain.

33.

During what stages of sleep does sleep walking occur?

a)

In stages 1 and 2

b)

During REM sleep

c)

In stages 3

d)

In stages 1 and 3

34.

When a person does not experience muscle atonia (paralysis), what sleep disorder are they suffering from?

a)

Sleep Apnea

b)

Sleep eating

c)

Night terrors

d)

REM behaviour disorder

35.

90% of dreams occur during what stage of sleep?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

REM

36.

Which stage of sleep is characterized by the presence of sleep spindles and K-complexes on an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

REM

37.

What is the name of the biological clock that regulates the sleep-wake cycle?

a)

Circadian rhythm

b)

Infradian rhythm

c)


Ultradian rhythm

d)

Freudian rhythm

38.

During sleep, your brain rests.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

A sleep disorder characterized by difficulty in falling asleep or remaining asleep is called

a)


Sleep Deprivation

b)

Sleep apnea

c)

Insomnia

d)

Narcolepsy

40.

This is the lightest stage of sleep...

a)

NREM 1

b)

NREM 2

c)

NREM 3

d)

REM

41.

By the end of the night you spend half of your sleep time in this stage.

a)

NREM 1

b)

NREM 2

c)

NREM 3

d)

REM

42.

You sleep most deeply during this stage, which is characterized by slow, delta brain waves.

a)

NREM 1

b)

NREM 2

c)

NREM 3

d)

REM

43.

The brain imaging technique that produces graphs of brain waves is called

(a)  

44.

The human sleep cycle repeats itself about every

a)
60 minutes
b)
120 minutes
c)
30 minutes
d)
90 minutes
45.

Which brain wave is considered the "deep sleep wave"?

a)
Alpha waves
b)
Delta waves
c)
Theta waves
d)
Beta waves
46.

When can Alpha brainwaves be observed?

a)

During intense physical activity

b)

When you look at bacon

c)

Active conversation

d)

Relaxed mind / Yoga / before falling asleep

47.

What type of movement do the saccule and utricle respond to, respectively?

a)

Vertical; rotational

b)

Rotational; vertical

c)

Vertical; horizontal

d)

Horizontal; vertical

48.

Which reflex allows a person to visually focus on an object as the head rotates?

a)

Vestibulocervical reflex

b)

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

c)

Vestibulospinal reflex

d)

Vestibular-cerebellar reflex

49.

Which part of the vestibular system is responsible for detecting rotational movements?

a)
Semicircular canals
b)
Auditory nerve
c)
Otolith organs
d)
Cochlea
50.

What is the purpose of the cupula in the semicircular canals?

a)

To regulate body temperature.

b)

To aid in digestion

c)

To improve vision

d)

To detect changes in head position and movement.

51.

Punishment is one form of operant conditioning. An example of punishment is

a)


receiving an early pass for doing good work.

b)

not being allowed to do practical work due to misbehaviour.

c)

leaving a classroom when the bell rings.

d)

being bitten by a strange dog.

52.

When a rat presses a button to stop a loud buzzer from sounding, the rat is responding to ____.

a)

Positive reinforcement.

b)

Negative reinforcement.

c)

Positive punishment.

d)

Negative punishment.

53.

Pavlov's expirement with the dog;

Pairs bell with food that leads to salivation > after numerous trials of pairing the food and bell the dog salivated at the sound of the bell.

This is an example of what?

a)

Unconditioned responses.

b)

Operant learning.

c)

Conditioned learning.

d)

Conditioned stimulus.

54.

Which brain part is responsible for facilitating explicit memories?

a)
Amygdala
b)
Cerebellum
c)

Brainstem

d)
Hippocampus
55.

Long-term potentiation (LTP) are forms of synaptic plasticity

a)

True

b)

False

56.

All of these are a part of the limbic system EXCEPT

a)
Amygdala
b)
Hippocampus
c)

Olfactory bulb

d)
Cerebellum
57.

Without a functional _____, your sense of smell would be greatly impaired.

a)

occipital lobe

b)
nasal cavity
c)
olfactory bulb
d)
taste buds
58.

What is the primary function of the limbic system?

a)
Regulating heart rate and blood pressure.
b)

Motor control

c)

Emotional regulation

d)

Speech production

59.

Which structure in the limbic system is most associated with the processing of fear and aggression?

a)
amygdala
b)
cerebellum
c)
hippocampus
d)
thalamus
60.

Damage to the hippocampus is most likely to result in which of the following conditions?

a)

Ataxia

b)

Insomnia

c)

Amnesia

d)

Aphasia

61.

Lobes of cerebellum are:

a)

Anterior lobe

b)
Temporal lobe
c)

Posterior lobe

d)

Flocculonodular love

62.

Which structure below regulates many aspects of human experience, including consciousness, the sleep wake cycle, cardiovascular functions, and respiration?

a)

Red nucleus

b)

Reticular Formation

c)

Inferior Olivary nucleus

d)

Tectum

63.

Which of the following is a symptom of cerebellar damage?

a)

Ataxia

b)

Nystagmus

c)

Dysdiadochokinesia

d)

Gout

e)

Asynergia

64.

Hypothalamus is the basal part of

a)
The diencephalon
b)
The medulla oblongata
c)
The brainstem
d)
The cerebellum
65.

Which are the major regions of hypothalamus nuclei?

a)

Mamillary area

b)

Supra optic area

c)

Flocculonodular area

d)

Preoptic area

e)

Tuberal area

66.

The primary role of hypothalamus are:

a)

Regulation of body temperature

b)

Control of hunger and feeding

c)

Control of water intake & thirst

d)

Control of circadian rhytm

e)

Memory storage

67.

Severe damage to the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) would result in which of the following

a)


Narcolepsy

b)

Insomnia

c)

Epilepsy

d)

Loss of consciousness or coma

68.

Which part of the CNS sorts almost all of the ascending sensory information?​

a)
Cerebellum
b)
Thalamus
c)
Medulla Oblongata
d)
Spinal Cord
69.

Which one is NOT a type of pain?

a)

Fast pain

b)

Somatic pain

c)

Poor pain

d)

Visceral pain

70.

According to the "Gate Control Theory of Pain", what can modulate the transmission of pain signals at the spinal cord level?

a)

Painful inputs

b)

Descending signals from the brain

c)

Non-painful inputs

d)

All of the above