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Worksheets

Biology - Final Review

Total questions: 184

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cavity including the lungs and heart (ventral)

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Cranial

e)

Spinal

2.

Cavity including the stomach, liver, spleen, gallbladder, and intestines (ventral)

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Cranial

e)

Spinal

3.

Cavity including the bladder, reproductive organs, and rectum (ventral)

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Cranial

e)

Spinal

4.

Cavity including the brain (dorsal)

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Cranial

e)

Spinal

5.

Cavity including the dorsal nerval cord

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Cranial

e)

Spinal

6.

Tissue which lines surfaces and cavities, protects underlying structures, secretes hormones, and is used for absorption, excretion, and filtration

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscular

d)

Nervous

7.

Tissue which supports and bonds body parts, binds organs, fills spaces, and produces blood cells

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscular

d)

Nervous

8.

Tissue which moves the body

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscular

d)

Nervous

9.

Tissue which receives stimuli and conducts impulses

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Muscular

d)

Nervous

10.

Epthelial tissue with flattened outer cells (lung, blood vessels)

a)

Squamous

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Columnar

d)

Transitional

11.

Epthelial tissue with cube-shaped cells (kidney)

a)

Squamous

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Columnar

d)

Transitional

12.

Epthelial tissue with rectangular cells (digestive tract)

a)

Squamous

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Columnar

d)

Transitional

13.

Epthelial tissue which expands and resists (urinary, bladder, ureter)

a)

Squamous

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Columnar

d)

Transitional

14.

Epithelial tissue with a single layer (capillaries)

a)

Simple

b)

Stratified

c)

Pseudostratified

15.

Epithelial tissue with multiple layers (nose, mouth, esophagus)

a)

Simple

b)

Stratified

c)

Pseudostratified

16.

Epithelial tissue which appears to have multiple layers, but all cells are touching the base (goblet cells secreting mucus)

a)

Simple

b)

Stratified

c)

Pseudostratified

17.

Types of matrix in connective tissue

4 lines
18.

Types of fibers in connective tissue

4 lines
19.

These produce fibers and other substances (connective)

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Loose fibrous tissue

c)

Dense fibrous tissue

d)

Reticular connective tissue

20.

Supports epithelium and many organs

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Loose fibrous tissue

c)

Dense fibrous tissue

d)

Reticular connective tissue

21.

Found in tendons and ligaments

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Loose fibrous tissue

c)

Dense fibrous tissue

d)

Reticular connective tissue

22.

Forms the meshwork in spleen, thymus, bone marrow

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Loose fibrous tissue

c)

Dense fibrous tissue

d)

Reticular connective tissue

23.

Lies in small chambers called lacuna, lack direct blood supply, heal slowly (nose, ear)

(a)  

24.

Fine collagen fibers with white translucent parts (nose, trachea)

a)

Hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

25.

Higher proportion of flexible fibers (outer ear)

a)

Hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

26.

Strong collagen

a)

Hyaline

b)

Elastic

c)

Fibrocartilage

27.

Most rigid form of connective tissue

(a)  

28.

Shafts of long bones, cylindrical units called osteons, concentric circles

a)

Compact

b)

Spongy

29.

Ends of long bones contain numerous bars and plates

a)

Compact

b)

Spongy

30.

Which type of tissue is blood?

a)

Epithelial

b)

Connective

c)

Nervous

d)

Muscular

31.

What are some functions of blood?

a)

Transports nutrients and oxygen

b)

Distributes heat

c)

Balances ions and pH

d)

Protects from disease

32.

Which component of blood takes up the largest volume (55%)?

a)

Plasma

b)

Red Blood Cells

c)

White Blood Cells

d)

Platelets

33.

Variety of inorganic and organic substances dissolved or suspended in water

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs

d)

Platelets

34.

Contain hemoglobin for transport of oxygen (erythrocytes)

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs

d)

Platelets

35.

Fights infection (leukocytes)

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs

d)

Platelets

36.

Cell fragments involved with blood clotting (thrombocytes)

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs

d)

Platelets

37.

Which of these elements has the largest-sized cells?

a)

Plasma

b)

RBCs

c)

WBCs

d)

Platelets

38.

What are muscle cells called?

(a)  

39.

Which two filaments are present in muscle fibers?

a)

Actin

b)

Myosin

c)

Keratin

d)

Melanin

40.

Occurs in muscles attached to skeleton (striated, multinucleated, voluntary)

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

41.

Occurs in blood vessels and digestive tracts (spindle-shaped, mononucleated, no striations, involuntary)

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

42.

Occurs in the heart (branching, striated, mononucleated, involuntary)

a)

Skeletal

b)

Smooth

c)

Cardiac

43.

Nervous cells are known as

a)

neural fibers

b)

neurons

c)

axons

d)

none of the above

44.

What three parts make up a nerve cell?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Cell body

c)

Axon

d)

Photon

45.

Which part(s) of a nerve cell receives signals?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Cell body

c)

Axon

d)

Photon

46.

Which part(s) of a nerve cell sends signals?

a)

Dendrites

b)

Cell body

c)

Axon

d)

Photon

47.

Which glial cell regulates the chemical environment of the cell and provides nutrients?

a)

Microglia

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Oligodendrocytes

48.

Which glial cell forms myelin sheaths around the nerve cell to insulate the axon?

a)

Microglia

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Oligodendrocytes

49.

What is the relative constancy of the body's internal environment known as?

(a)  

50.

What blood glucose level is needed for homeostasis?

(a)  

51.

What blood pH level is needed for homeostasis?

(a)  

52.

What body temperature in Celsius is needed for homeostasis?

(a)  

53.

What blood pressure is needed for homeostasis?

(a)  

54.

Primary mechanism that keeps a variable close to a set point (resist change)

a)

Negative feedback

b)

Positive feedback

55.

Change brings about a greater change in the same direction (embrace change)

a)

Negative feedback

b)

Positive feedback

56.

What form of thermoregulation is exhibited through sweating?

a)

Radiation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Convection

d)

Conduction

57.

What form of thermoregulation is exhibited through the reflection of heat by dry skin?

a)

Radiation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Convection

d)

Conduction

58.

What form of thermoregulation is exhibited through the current of the air passing through dry skin (cycles)?

a)

Radiation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Convection

d)

Conduction

59.

What form of thermoregulation is exhibited through direct contact from one surface to another?

a)

Radiation

b)

Evaporation

c)

Convection

d)

Conduction

60.

How does the digestive tract contribute to homeostasis?

a)

Ingesting food

b)

Digesting food into nutrients

c)

Absorbing nutrients

d)

Eliminating indigestible remains

61.

Monogastric (one stomach) system, enlarged small intestine and cecum for plant material, re-ingested food (eating poop)

a)

Humans

b)

Herbivores

c)

Birds

d)

Ruminants

62.

Two stomachs, begins in crop (stores food), then proventriculus (1st stomach, digestive juices), then gizzard (2nd stomach, grinds food), no separate openings, uric acid secreted into large intestine, excreted through cloaca

a)

Humans

b)

Herbivores

c)

Birds

d)

Ruminants

63.

Four stomachs, first two (rumen and reticulum) contain bacteria and protists that digest cellulose, cud regurgitated and chewed, omasium (3rd stomach) removes water, abomasum (4th stomach) has enzymes to digest

a)

Humans

b)

Herbivores

c)

Birds

d)

Ruminants

64.

Where does the digestive tract begin?

a)

In the mouth

b)

In the anus

c)

In the esophagus

d)

In the stomach

65.

Comprised of skeletal muscles and taste buds

a)

Tongue

b)

Pharynx

c)

Uvula

d)

Jaw

66.

Posterior portion of palate, made of muscle, includes uvula and tonsils

a)

Hard palate

b)

Soft palate

67.

Anterior portion of palate, contains several bones

a)

Hard palate

b)

Soft palate

68.

What is food known as after it is chewed and broken down in the mouth?

(a)  

69.

Which of these is the muscular tube that extends from the pharynx to the stomach?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Larynx

c)

Ureter

d)

None of the above

70.

What force is responsible for pushing food along the digestive tract?

(a)  

71.

What type of muscle closes the esophagus from the stomach

(a)  

72.

What causes heartburn?

4 lines
73.

Which of these is continuous with the esophagus and the duodenum, receives food from the esophagus, and starts the digestion of proteins?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Liver

74.

What is inside the stomach that allows it to expand to hold up to 4 liters?

(a)  

75.

Which of these is approximately 6 meters long and is composed of three sections?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Liver

76.

Which section of the small intestine is the first 25 cm. of the intestine, receives bile from the liver to emulsify fat, and receives pancreatic juice to digest nutrients and neutralize acidic pH?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Ileum

c)

Jejunum

77.

Which section of the small intestine is the middle section?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Ileum

c)

Jejunum

78.

Which section of the small intestine is the remainder leading to the large intestine and contains Peyer's patches, which are an immune response to intestinal pathogens?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Ileum

c)

Jejunum

79.

What are the fingerlike projections on the small intestines known as?

a)

Villi

b)

Flagella

c)

Cilia

d)

Microvilli

80.

What components do villi include for nutrient absorption and digestion?

a)

Blood capillaries (sugar and amino acids)

b)

Lacteals (lymph) - digested fats

c)

Alveoli

d)

None of the above

81.

What are the microscopic extensions on the surface of epithelial cells of villi known as?

a)

Villi

b)

Flagella

c)

Cilia

d)

Microvilli

82.

What parts comprise the large intestine?

4 lines
83.

Which of these are functions of the large intestine?

a)

Absorbs water, salts, vitamins

b)

Stores indigestible materials

c)

Digests fats

d)

Excretes urine

84.

Which of these produces bile and regulates pH levels?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

85.

Which of these produces insulin and glucagon as well as pancreatic juice which digests nutrients?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

86.

Which of these stores bile?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

87.

Digestion in which larger pieces of food are grinded into smaller ones (chewing)

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

88.

Digestion in which enzymes break down macromolecules into smaller molecules that can be absorbed

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

89.

Name the enzyme:

- Produced by salivary glands, acts in mouth

- Polysaccharides (starch) --> Disaccharides (maltose), oligosaccharides

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Pancreatic amylase

c)

Oligosaccharidases

90.

Name the enzyme:

- Produced by pancreas, acts in small intestine

- Polysaccharides (starch) --> Disaccharides (maltose), monosaccharides

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Pancreatic amylase

c)

Oligosaccharidases

91.

Name the enzyme:

- Produced by the lining of the intestine, acts in small intestine

- Disaccharides --> Monosaccharides (glucose, fructose)

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Pancreatic amylase

c)

Oligosaccharidases

92.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the stomach chief cells, acts in stomach

- Proteins --> Peptides

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin/Elastase/Chymotrypsin

c)

Carboxypeptidase

d)

Aminopeptidase/Dipeptidase

93.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the pancreas, acts in small intestine

- Proteins --> Peptides

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin/Elastase/Chymotrypsin

c)

Carboxypeptidase

d)

Aminopeptidase/Dipeptidase

94.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the pancreas, acts in small intestine

- Peptides --> Peptides and amino acids

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin/Elastase/Chymotrypsin

c)

Carboxypeptidase

d)

Aminopeptidase/Dipeptidase

95.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the lining of the intestine, acts in small intestine

- Peptides --> Amino acids

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin/Elastase/Chymotrypsin

c)

Carboxypeptidase

d)

Aminopeptidase/Dipeptidase

96.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the pancreas, acts in small intestine

- Fats --> glycerol and fatty acids

a)

Pepsin

b)

Trypsin/Elastase/Chymotrypsin

c)

Carboxypeptidase

d)

Lipase

97.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the small intestine, acts in small intestine

- Nucleotides --> base, sugar, and phosphate

a)

Pepsin

b)

Nucleosidases

c)

Nuclease

d)

Lipase

98.

Name the enzyme(s):

- Produced by the pancreas, acts in small intestine

- RNA and DNA --> nucleotides

a)

Pepsin

b)

Nucleosidases

c)

Nuclease

d)

Lipase

99.

What is the science of food and nutrients known as?

(a)  

100.

What are the six major classes of nutrients?

4 lines
101.

Describe a healthy diet.

4 lines
102.

Functions of Urinary System: excreting nitrogenous end products such as urea, ammonium, creatinine, uric acid

a)

Excretion of Metabolic Wastes

b)

Maintenance of Water-Salt Balance

c)

Maintenance of Acid-Base Balance

d)

Secretion of Hormones

103.

Functions of Urinary System: Blood volume and pressure are related to NaCl, also regulating K+

a)

Excretion of Metabolic Wastes

b)

Maintenance of Water-Salt Balance

c)

Maintenance of Acid-Base Balance

d)

Secretion of Hormones

104.

Functions of Urinary System: Keep blood pH around 7.4, excrete hydrogen ion, reabsorb bicarbonate

a)

Excretion of Metabolic Wastes

b)

Maintenance of Water-Salt Balance

c)

Maintenance of Acid-Base Balance

d)

Secretion of Hormones

105.

Functions of Urinary System: secrete renin, erythropoietin, and helps activate vitamin D for calcium absorption

a)

Excretion of Metabolic Wastes

b)

Maintenance of Water-Salt Balance

c)

Maintenance of Acid-Base Balance

d)

Secretion of Hormones

106.

Leads to secretion of aldosterone (sodium reabsorption

a)

Renin

b)

Erythropoietin

107.

Stimulates red blood cell production

a)

Renin

b)

Erythropoietin

108.

Organs of Urinary System:

- Located in lumbar region

- Behind peritoneum

- Covered by tough capsule of fibrous tissue

- Concave side has a depression called hilum

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureters

c)

Urinary Bladder

d)

Urethra

109.

Organs of Urinary System:

- Conduct urine from kidney to bladder

- 3-layered wall (mucosa, smooth muscle, outer connective tissue)

- Peristalsis

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureters

c)

Urinary Bladder

d)

Urethra

110.

Organs of Urinary System:

- Stores urine

- 3 openings (2 for ureters, 1 for urethra)

- Expandable wall

- 2 sphincter muscles control release

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureters

c)

Urinary Bladder

d)

Urethra

111.

Organs of Urinary System:

- Small tube leading from bladder to external opening

- Remove urine from body

- Longer in males than females

- Transports semen in males

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureters

c)

Urinary Bladder

d)

Urethra

112.

Stretch receptors in the wall of the bladder send impulses when the bladder fills to how much?

(a)  

113.

Which of these are regions of the kidney?

a)

Renal cortex

b)

Renal medulla

c)

Renal pelvis

d)

Renal neuron

114.

What is the functional unit of a kidney known as?

(a)  

115.

In a nephron, where does blood go from the renal artery through an afferent arteriole?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Peritubular capillaries

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Renal vein

116.

In a nephron, where does blood go from the glomerulus through an efferent arteriole?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Peritubular capillaries

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Renal vein

117.

Parts of a Nephron:

- Also known as Bowman's capsule

- Cuplike structure

- Inner layer has podocytes which form pores

- Forces small solutes out

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

e)

Collecting Ducts

118.

Parts of a Nephron:

- Cuboidal epithelial cells with microvilli

- Reabsorbs ions, water, and nutrients

- Adjusts filtrate pH

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

e)

Collecting Ducts

119.

Parts of a Nephron:

- U-shaped tube

- Simple squamous epithelium

- Descending and ascending

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

e)

Collecting Ducts

120.

Parts of a Nephron:

- Lack microvilli, numerous mitochondria

- Designed for tubular excretion rather than reabsorption

- Selectively secretes different ions to maintain pH

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

e)

Collecting Ducts

121.

Parts of a Nephron:

- Several nephrons connect to one

- Reabsorbs solutes and water into filtrate, forms urine

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Proximal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Distal convoluted tubule

e)

Collecting Ducts

122.

This limb of the loop of Henle is water permeable, so it allows water to pass from filtrate into interstitial fluid

a)

Descending

b)

Ascending

c)

Transverse

123.

This limb of the loop of Henle reabsorbs Na and Cl from filtrate to interstitial fluid

a)

Descending

b)

Ascending

c)

Transverse

124.

Nitrogenous waste: excreted by many invertebrates and aquatic species

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

125.

Nitrogenous waste: excreted by mammals, amphibians, and some marine species

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

126.

Nitrogenous waste: excreted by insects, land snails, birds, many reptiles

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

127.

Circulatory system in which blood is always pumped through the vessels by the heart (separate from interstitial fluid)

a)

Closed

b)

Open

128.

Circulatory system in which blood flows to cells, includes hemolymph which is pumped through blood vessels to body cavities

a)

Closed

b)

Open

129.

2-chambered heart, blood only goes from heart to gills (1 Atrium, 1 Ventricle)

a)

Fish

b)

Amphibians

c)

Reptiles

d)

Mammals and birds

130.

2 circulatory routes (1 for oxygenation of blood through lungs and skin, 1 for the rest of the body) - 2 Atrium, 1 Ventricle

a)

Fish

b)

Amphibians

c)

Reptiles

d)

Mammals and birds

131.

2 circulatory routes, blood only oxygenated through lungs, partially separated ventricles - 2 Atrium, 1 Ventricle

a)

Fish

b)

Amphibians

c)

Reptiles

d)

Mammals and birds

132.

Completely separated oxygenated (left) and deoxygenated (right) sides - 2 Atria, 2 Ventricles

a)

Fish

b)

Amphibians

c)

Reptiles

d)

Mammals and birds

133.

Oxygen carrier in most vertebrates (humans and birds); heme group associated with it, needs iron

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hemocyanin

c)

Hemerythin

134.

Oxygen carrier in most mollusks and arthropods; copper binds to oxygen instead of iron (blue-green)

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hemocyanin

c)

Hemerythin

135.

Oxygen carrier in annelids and invertebrates; also has iron associated with it, but no heme group

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Hemocyanin

c)

Hemerythin

136.

Cells including neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils characterized by a lobed nucleus and granular inclusions (first responders)

a)

Granulocytes

b)

Agranulocytes

137.

Includes lymphocytes and monocytes

a)

Granulocytes

b)

Agranulocytes

138.

Includes B cells and T cells responsible for adaptive immune response

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

139.

Includes macrophages and dendritic cells, respond to infection or injury

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

140.

What are the large cells from which platelets are formed?

a)

Megakaryocytes

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Astrocytes

d)

Monocytes

141.

What are platelets required for?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Oxygen transport

c)

Immune response

d)

Signal conduction

142.

What is released from damaged tissue cells which triggers a blood clot?

a)

Prothrombin activator

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Actin

d)

None of the above

143.

Cell Types: Produce Anti-B antibodies in plasma

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

144.

Cell Types: Produce Anti-A antibodies in plasma

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

145.

Cell Types: Produce neither antibodies in plasma (universal acceptor)

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

146.

Cell Types: No antigens, anti-A and anti-B bodies (universal donor)

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type AB

d)

Type O

147.

Deoxygenated blood --> right atrium --> right ventricle

Lungs --> left atrium --> left ventricle --> aorta --> body

a)

Systemic circuit

b)

Pulmonary circuit

c)

Coronary circuit

148.

Blood goes to lungs to be oxygenated then returns to heart

a)

Systemic circuit

b)

Pulmonary circuit

c)

Coronary circuit

149.

Provides blood to heart (arteries and veins)

a)

Systemic circuit

b)

Pulmonary circuit

c)

Coronary circuit

150.

True or false: blood flow is one-way.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Valves transporting deoxygenated blood to heart

a)

Venae cavae

b)

Tricupsid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Mitral valve

e)

Aortal valve

152.

Valve from right atrium to right ventricle

a)

Venae cavae

b)

Tricupsid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Mitral valve

e)

Aortal valve

153.

Valve from right ventricle to lungs

a)

Venae cavae

b)

Tricupsid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Mitral valve

e)

Aortal valve

154.

Valve from left atrium to left ventricle

a)

Venae cavae

b)

Tricupsid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Mitral valve

e)

Aortal valve

155.

Valve from left ventricle to body

a)

Venae cavae

b)

Tricupsid valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Mitral valve

e)

Aortal valve

156.

True or false: the ventricles contract before the atria

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Contraction of the heart muscle

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

158.

Relaxation of the heart muscle

a)

Systole

b)

Diastole

159.

Intrinsic control: the sinoatrial node of the heart in the right atrium sends an excitatory impulse how often?

(a)  

160.

What node receives the excitatory impulse after the SA node?

(a)  

161.

What is the intrinsic control of the heart also known as (Sa & AV)

(a)  

162.

Blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart (oxygenated) - thickest walls

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Valves

163.

Blood vessels which carry blood toward the heart (deoxygenated)

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Valves

164.

Blood vessels which permit exchange of gas and nutrients with tissues

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

d)

Valves

165.

Arteries and veins: outer layer of connective tissue

a)

Tunica externa

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica intima

166.

Arteries and veins: middle layer of smooth tissue

a)

Tunica externa

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica intima

167.

Arteries and veins: inner layer of epithelial tissue

a)

Tunica externa

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica intima

168.

Which of these is the only one which capillaries have?

a)

Tunica externa

b)

Tunica media

c)

Tunica intima

169.

What type of muscle regulates the flow of blood through capillaries?

(a)  

170.

Respiration by diffusion across the outer membrane

a)

Flatworms

b)

Fish

c)

Insects

d)

Humans

171.

Respiration by gills (capillary exchange)

a)

Flatworms

b)

Fish

c)

Insects

d)

Humans

172.

Respiration by tracheal system (pores)

a)

Flatworms

b)

Fish

c)

Insects

d)

Humans

173.

Air enters through nasal cavity --> pharynx --> trachea --> bronchi --> bronchiole, then alveoli

a)

Flatworms

b)

Fish

c)

Insects

d)

Humans

174.

What are the trachea and bronchi made of?

(a)  

175.

The _____ lung is smaller in order to accommodate the heart.

a)

Right

b)

Left

176.

This substance is secreted into the airways to lubricate them.

(a)  

177.

Which of these are in the bronchioles to move mucus and other particles out of the lungs?

a)

Villi

b)

Flagella

c)

Cilia

d)

Microvilli

178.

Amount of air moving in and out with normal breath

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Expiratory reserve volume

e)

Residual volume

179.

What percent of the tidal volume reaches the alveoli?

(a)  

180.

Maximum volume moved in and out (deep breath)

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Expiratory reserve volume

e)

Residual volume

181.

Maximum inhalation > tidal volume

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Expiratory reserve volume

e)

Residual volume

182.

Maximum exhalation > tidal volume

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Expiratory reserve volume

e)

Residual volume

183.

Amount of air always remaining in lungs

a)

Tidal volume

b)

Vital capacity

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Expiratory reserve volume

e)

Residual volume

184.

What tissue surrounds the lungs and interior of the thoracic cavity?

(a)