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Biology AP

Total questions: 213

Worksheet time: 4hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a fixed action pattern?

a)

Unlearned acts, unchangeable patterns, reflecting an animal's innate behavior, carried to completion.

b)

Learned acts, changeable patterns, reflecting an animal's instincts, carried to completion.

c)

Unlearned acts, changeable patterns, unfinished.

d)

Learned acts, unchangeable patterns, unfinished.

2.

An example of FAP is Male stickleback fish. Who first noticed this?

a)

Lorenz

b)

Tinbergen

c)

Frisch

d)

Pavlov

3.

What is Kinesis, Taxis?

a)

Only moving towards a stimulus; moving away from a stimulus.

b)

Only moving away from a stimulus; moving toward a stimulus.

c)

Movement toward or away from a stimulus; change in activity in response to a stimulus.

d)

Change in activity in response to a stimulus; movement toward or away from a stimulus.

4.

Pheromones (chemical signals), visual signals, and auditory signals are the basis for animal connection. Which of the following are correct examples of each? (Doesn't have to be in order)

a)

Birdsong, ant trails, penguin stomping feet

b)

Circling, bees buzzing, formic acid

c)

Birdsong, warning flash of wing, ant trails

d)

Ant trails, formic acid, circling

5.

Associative learning is the ability of animals to associate a feature of their environment with another. What are 2 examples of this?

a)

Imprinting

b)

Classical conditioning

c)

Habituation

d)

Operant conditioning

6.

Which of the following regarding behavior is true? (Think about what controls courtship rituals in fruit flies)

a)

It can be directed by genes

b)

It's never directed by genes

c)

It's solely directed by instinct

d)

It's never directed by instinct

7.

When animal learns to ignore harmless stimuli like a scarecrow, what type of learning is this?

a)

Innate learning

b)

Habituation

c)

Operant

d)

Trial and error learning

8.

A compromise between the benefits of nutrition and the cost of obtaining food is called...

a)

Foraging behavior

b)

Agnostic behaviors

c)

Optimal foraging model

d)

Altruism

9.

What is an example of altruism?

a)

A lizard abandoning its eggs from early on

b)

Blue jay giving an alarm call and attracting attention to its location

c)

Social insects caring for their queen

d)

Monkeys helping out other monkeys they're unfamiliar with

10.

Which choice most accurately explains a temperate grassland?

a)

Marked by seasonal drought, occasional fires. prevent significant growth of trees, soil is rich in nutrients

b)

Sparse rainfall, plants and animals adapted to conserve water, CAM plants and plants with adaptions, hot or cold

c)

Grasses and some trees, fire is a dominant abiotic factor, plants adapted for fire, plant growth is substantial during rainy seasons, migration during drought

d)

Dense, spiny, evergreen shrubs, coastal areas with mild rainy winters, long, hot, dry summers

11.

The photic zone (allowing enough light for photosynthesis to occur), the aphotic zone (where very little light penetrates), and the benthic zone (located at the bottom where it's made up of sand, inorganic matter, and organic sediments) are all aquatic biomes. What is the role of thermoclines in these zones?

a)

Separates a cold upper layer and warm deeper waters

b)

Separates a warm upper layer of water and cold deeper waters

c)

Cycles oxygen through the zones

d)

Organic dead matter in the bottom

12.

In freshwater biomes, like in lakes, what's the difference between the littoral zone and the limnetic zone?

a)

The distance from shore

b)

The depth

c)

The light coverage

d)

The location

13.

What's the difference/what are the differences between Oligotrophic lakes and Eutrophic lakes?

a)

The depth

b)

The oxygen content

c)

The nutrient content

d)

The phytoplankton content

14.

Explain what a neritic zone is. (Try to have correct wording or else it may count your answer as wrong)

(a)  

15.

What is a pelagic zone? (Try to have correct wording or else it may count your answer as wrong)

(a)  

16.

What is the significance of coral reefs?

a)

They grow corals, sponges, and algae

b)

They contain enidarians that secrete hard calcium carbonate shells

c)

They host organisms that produce detritus

d)

They raise the water's nitrogen levels

17.

What is the best description of an intertidal zone?

a)

Where land meets the water

b)

Where the land and water meet, periodically submerged and exposed by twice-daily tides

c)

The place where land meets water, it's periodically submerged

d)

Periodically submerged and exposed

18.

What is abiotic vs. biotic?

a)

Living vs. non-living

b)

Non-living vs. living

c)

Not breathing vs. breathing

d)

Breathing vs. not breathing

19.

What is the most common pattern of dispersion?

a)

Clumped

b)

Uniform

c)

Random

d)

Density

20.

What's the description of clumped, uniform, and random dispersion in order?

a)

Result of antagonistic interactions, antagonistic interactions, unpredictable pacing

b)

Individuals in patches around a required resource, result of antagonistic interactions, unpredictable spacing

c)

Unpredictable pacing, individuals in patches around a required resource, result of antagonistic interactions

d)

Result of antagonistic interactions, unpredictable spacing, individuals in patches around a required resource

21.

What is demography? Out of Type 1, type 2, and type 3, which shows a constant death rate over the organism's life span?

a)

Study of vital stats of a population; type 3

b)

Study of vital stats of a population; type 2

c)

Study of birth and death rates; type 1

d)

Study of birth and death rates; type 1

22.

What equation shows exponential population growth? What is the carrying capacity of a population?

a)

dN/dt=rmaxN; the max population size that a certain environment can support at a particular time

b)

dt/dN=nmaxr; the max population size

c)

rN/rt=dmaxr; the max population size that a certain environment can support at a particular time

d)

rt/rN=rmaxd; the max population size

23.

What is this showing?

a)

Exponential vs. logistic growth of a population

b)

Growth of a population

c)

How population size is determined by carrying capacity in logistic growth charts

d)

How carrying capacy affects a population

24.

What happens to the per capita rate of increase when carrying capacity is reached in a logistic growth model? (dN/dt=rmaxN(K-N)/K)

a)

It goes up

b)

It goes down

c)

It stays the same

d)

It rapidly increases

25.

What are density dependent factors and what is an example of this?

a)

A death rate rises as pop density rises and a birth rate falls as pop density rises; territoriality

b)

A death rate falls as pop density rises and a birth rate falls as pop density falls; disease

c)

A death rate rises as pop density rises and a birth rate rises as pop density rises; predation

d)

A death rate falls as pop density rises and a birth rate rises as pop density falls; competition for resources

26.

What does density independent mean and what are some examples of this?

a)

When a death rate changes with decrease in population density; tsunamis

b)

When a death rate does not change with increase in population density; earthquakes

c)

When a death rate changes with increase in population density; hurricanes

d)

When a death rate does not change with decrease in population density; volcanic eruptions

27.

What is the best answer for what age structure pyramids show?

a)

The ratio of males to females in a population

b)

The relative number of individuals of each age in a population

c)

The demographic patterns

d)

The growth patterns of a population

28.

Ecological footprint examines the total land and water area needed for all the resources a person consumes in a population. Which of these does a typical person in the united states have?

a)

A footprint of 10 hectares

b)

A footprint of 12 hectares

c)

A footprint of 8 hectares

d)

A footprint of 5 hectares

29.

What does the competitive exclusion principle state? (Interspecific competition)

a)

When two species are struggling for a resource, the smarter one will eliminate the other

b)

When two species are struggling for a resource, they both give up and leave it for another

c)

When two species are struggling for a resource, the one with slight reproductive advantage will eliminate the other

d)

When two species are struggling for a resource, they will settle the dispute peacefully and the one in worse condition will be given the resource

30.

What is an organism's ecological, fundamental, and realized niche?

a)

The sum of biotic and abiotic resources that the species uses; niche potentially occupied by the species; the portion of the fundamental niche that the species actually occupies

b)

The sum of biotic and abiotic resources that the species uses; the portion of the fundamental niche that the species actually occupies; niche potentially occupied by the species

c)

The difference of biotic and abiotic resources that the species uses; the portion of the fundamental niche that the species actually occupies; niche potentially occupied by the species

d)

The difference of biotic and abiotic resources that the species uses; niche potentially occupies by the species; the portion of the fundamental niche that the species actually occupies

31.

Predation is a +/- interaction between two species where one eats the other (predator vs. prey). Name a defense mechanism that the prey uses to avoid predation.

(a)  

32.

What is the difference between batesian and mullerian mimicry?

a)

In batesian mimicry, a harmful species mimics the coloration of a harmless species; whereas in mullerian, two bad-tasting species resemble each other and are avoided equally by predators

b)

In batesian mimicry, two bad-tasting species resemble each other and are avoided equally by predators; whereas in mullerian, a harmless species mimics the coloration of a harmful species

c)

In batesian mimicry, a harmless species mimics the coloration of a harmful species; whereas in mullerian, two bad-tasting species resemble each other and are avoided equally by predators

d)

In batesian mimicry, two bad-tasting species resemble each other and are avoided equally by predators; whereas in mullarian, a harmful species mimics the coloration of a harmless species

33.

Herbivory is a +/- situation in which a herbivore eats part of a plant or alga. What is a plant's main protective devices?

a)

Chemical toxins, poison, trapping an organism

b)

Chemical toxins, spines, and thorns

c)

Trapping an organism, spines, weeds

d)

Thorns, spines shooting, gas release

34.

What is one example of symbiosis?

(a)  

35.

Parasitism is a +/- symbiotic interaction, but what is mutualism and why?

a)

+/- and it's because it only benefits one species and it doesn't affect the other, like moss growing on a tree

b)

+/+ and it's because it benefits both species, like pollinators an flowering plants

c)

+/- and it's because it only benefits one species, like parasites and humans

d)

-/+ and it's because it only benefits one species, like predator and prey

36.

Define the terms trophic structure, trophic levels, food chains, and food webs.

a)

Trophic structure (links in the trophic levels), trophic levels (feeding relationships), food chains (two or more food webs linked), food webs (transfer of food energy between trophic structures)

b)

Trophic structure (two or more trophic levels linked), trophic levels (transfer of food energy between food chains), food chains (feeding relationships), food webs (links in the food chains)

c)

Trophic structure (feeding relationships), trophic levels (links in the trophic structure), food chains (transfer of food energy between trophic levels), and food webs (two or more food chains linked)

d)

Trophic structure (transfer of food energy between food chains), trophic levels (two or more trophic structures linked), food chains (links in the food webs), food webs (feeding relationships)

37.

Which level has the most energy? (Primary producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, or tertiary)

a)

Secondary consumers - carnivores/omnivores - snakes, foxes

b)

Primary consumers - herbivores - squirrels, grasshoppers

c)

Tertiary consumers - carnivores - wolves, bears

d)

Primary producers- photosynthesizers - autotrophic - trees, plants, flowers

38.

For top-down and bottom up trophic cascades, which one describes a situation where the top consumer/predator controls the primary consumer population?

a)

The top-down cascade (remove wolves, then deer will reproduce rapidly and the number of primary producers will be minimized)

b)

The bottom-up cascade (remove trees then deer number will decrease significantly and wolves will struggle to find food)

39.

Which of these statements regarding keystone species is true?

a)

They exert control on community structure by their important ecological niches

b)

They lead their surrounding communities

c)

They help out their community by sacrifing themselves as a last resort

d)

They bring food to help out their communities that are struggling

40.

True or false: Primary succession is when plants and animals gradually invade a region that was virtually lifeless where soil has not yet formed

a)

True

b)

False

41.

As distance from the mainland increases, the rate of immigration... whereas extinction rates...

a)

Falls... increase

b)

Rises... decrease

c)

Rises... increase

d)

Falls... decrease

42.

Detritivores/decomposers get their energy from detritus. What is detritus?

a)

Soil

b)

Nonliving organic material

c)

Rock that can sit at the bottom of a lake

43.

What do detritivores do with dead organisms, feces, dead leaves, and wood? (detritus, organic material)

a)

They cycle nutrients through ecosystems

b)

They recycle the material and use it for energy

c)

They use it for energy and don't do anything else

d)

All of the above

44.

What is the formula for an ecosystem's primary production? GPP and NPP

(a)  

45.

What are the key factors that control primary production in terrestrial ecosystems?

a)

Temperature and moisture

b)

Temperature and climate

c)

Nutrient avaliability and moisture

d)

Solar energy and climate

46.

The percent in energy that is transferred from one trophic level to the next is...

a)

50%

b)

1%

c)

110%

d)

10%

47.

What is an example of a biogeochemical cycle?

(a)  

48.

Which of these choices best fits the terms mentioned? ___ fixing bacteria, decomposers, ammonification, denitrifying bacteria, assimilation.

a)

Nitrogen cycle

b)

Phosphorus cycle

c)

Water cycle

d)

Carbon cycle

49.

What is acid precipitation defined as?

a)

Rain

b)

Fog with a pH less than 5.2

c)

Snow

d)

All of the above

50.

What is biological magnification?

a)

Toxins that cannot be broken down biologically or by normal chemical means

b)

Buildup of toxins that cannot be broken down so they magnify as they move through the food chain

c)

Buildup of toxins that can be broken down so they magnify as they move through food webs

d)

Toxins that can be broken down biologically or by normal chemical means

51.

What does the greenhouse effect refer to?

a)

CO2 and water vapor intercept and absorb much reflected infrared radiation, reflecting back to earth

b)

Global warming

c)

Absorption of heat the Earth experiences dye to atmospheric gases

d)

CO2 levels increasing b/c of fossil fuels

52.

What does the ozone layer do?

a)

Blocks the sun

b)

Reduces the amount of UV radiation penetration from the sun through the atmosphere

c)

Blocks the affect of the heat given off from stars

d)

Reduces the UV radiation penetration from the earth through the atmosphere

53.

Which of the following lists the terms corresponding to levels of organization in the correct order?

a)

Cells --> tissues --> organs --> organ systems

b)

Cells --> organs --> organ systems --> tissues

c)

Tissues --> cells --> organ systems --> organs

d)

Cells --> tissues --> organ systems --> organs

54.

True or false: In the endocrine system, hormones (chemical signals) are released into the bloodstream and are broadcast throughout the body.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

What happens in the nervous system?

a)

Neurons communicate via electrical and chemical signals

b)

Neurons transmit info between specific locations

c)

Neurons, muscle cells, and endocrine cells recieve nerve impulses

d)

None of the above

56.

When animals maintain a relatively constant internal environment, even when the external environment changes, what is it called?

a)

Countercurrent exchange

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Metabolic rate

d)

Negative- feedback systems

57.

What happens in negative-feedback systems? Positive-feedback systems?

a)

Animal responds to stimulus in a way that reduces the stimulus; a change in some variable triggers mechanisms that amplify rather than reverse the change

b)

A change in some variable triggers mechanisms that amplify rather than reverse the change; animals maintain their internal temp within a tolerable range

c)

A change in some variable triggers mechanisms that amplify rather than reverse the change; animal responds to stimulus in a way that reduces the stimulus

d)

Animals maintain their internal temp within a tolerable range; animal responds to stimulus in a way that reduces the stimulus

58.

Panting, sweating, shivering, and behaviors such as burrowing and sunning can most commonly be a result of...

a)

Negative-feedback systems

b)

Thermoregulation

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Torpor

59.

What's the difference between endotherms and ectotherms?

a)

Different classification (vertebrates, invertebrates, etc)

b)

Their way of gaining heat

c)

Heat source

d)

Their circulatory systems

60.

Sponges digest their food using... while most animals break their food down using....

a)

Intracellular digestion; extracellular digestion

b)

Extracellular digestion; intracellular digestion

61.

What cells are responsible for blood clotting?

a)

White blood cells

b)

Platlet

c)

Plasma

d)

Red blood cells

62.

What are gametes classified as? What about the zygote?

a)

Diploid (single set of chromosomes); Haploid (two sets of chromosomes)

b)

Diploid (two sets of chromosomes); Haploid (single set of chromosomes)

c)

Haploid (single set of chromosomes); Diploid (two sets of chromosomes)

d)

Haploid (two sets of chromosomes); Diploid (single set of chromosomes)

63.

What is a type of asexual reproduction?

a)

Fission

b)

Budding

c)

Parthenogenesis

d)

Fragmentation

64.

Which organisms reproduce asexually?

a)

Yeast, bacteria, ameoba, protist, snail

b)

Fungi, ameoba, protist, plants, animals

c)

Fungi, bacteria, plants, yeast

65.

What is the period of rapid mitotic cell division that partitions the cytoplasm of the zygote into smaller cells called blastomeres?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Cleavage

d)

Fertilization

66.

What kind of cells are capable of developing into all the different cell types of that species?

a)

Stem cell

b)

Totipotent cells

c)

Pluripotent

d)

Regular cells

67.

What are somatic cells not?

a)

Skin cell

b)

Nerve cell

c)

Germline cell

d)

Reproductive cell

68.

Neurotransmitters are.. (select which ones apply)

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Seratonin

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Dopamine

69.

What is speciation?

(a)  

70.

What is microevolution?

(a)  

71.

What percent of living matter does C, H, O, N make up?

a)

85%

b)

96%

c)

94%

d)

100%

72.

What are trace elements? Include an example.

a)

Elements required by an organism; gold

b)

Elements required by an organism; iodine

c)

Elements required by an organism in only minute quantities; iron

d)

Elements required by an organism in only minute quantities; potassium

73.

Atoms are made up of electrons, neutrons, and protons. Which of these subatomic particles has no charge and is found in the nucleus?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

74.

What is the only subatomic particle that can form isotopes and vary in the same element?

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

75.

What's the difference between polar covalent bonds and nonpolar covalent bonds? Which element is strongly electronegative?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bonds share electrons equally and polar covalent bonds do not; calcium

b)

Nonpolar covalent bonds share electrons equally and polar covalent bonds do not; oxygen

c)

Nonpolar covalent bonds do not share electrons equally and polar covalent bonds do; oxygen

d)

Nonpolar covalent bonds do not share electrons equally and polar covalent bonds do; potassium

76.

What happens in ionic bonds? Hydrogen bonds?

a)

Two atoms attract valence electrons so unequally that the more e-neg atom steals the electron from the other, opposite charges attract; weak bonds that form between partially positively charged h atom of a molecule and the strongly e-neg oxygen or nitrogen of another molecule

b)

Weak bonds that form between partially positively charged h atom of a molecule and the strongly e-neg oxygen or nitrogen of another molecule; two atoms attract valence electrons so unequally that the more e-neg atom steals the electron from the other, opposite charges attract

c)

Weak bonds that form between an h atom and a lower e-neg molecule; two atoms that attract valence electrons so unequally that the less e-neg atom steals the electron from the other, similar charges attract

d)

Two atoms that attract valence electrons so unequally that the less e-neg atom steals the electron from the other, similar charges attract; weak bonds that form between an h atom and a lower e-neg molecule

77.

What are Van der Waal interactions? **Note -Transient = Momentary variation in current, voltage, frequency.

a)

Very strong, transient connections that are a result of asymmetrical distribution of electrons within a molecule

b)

Very weak, transient connections that are a result of asymmetrical distribution of electrons within a molecule

c)

Very weak, transient connections that are a result of equal distribution of electrons within a molecule

d)

Very strong, transient connections that are a result of equal distribution of electrons within a molecule

78.

The point at which the forward and reverse reactions offset one another exactly is called...

(a)  

79.

Water molecules are...

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

80.

Cohesion is...

(a)  

81.

Adhesion is...

(a)  

82.

T or F, cohesion is the linking or joining and adhesion is the clinging or attachment. Cohesion displays surface tension.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

T or F (Capillary action is the process of liquid flowing through a narrow space with the assistance of gravity)

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Water has a high specific heat. Specific heat is the amount of heat required to raise or lower the temperature of a substance by...? What does water's high specific heat do?

a)

1 degree C; makes the temp of Earth's oceans relatively stable and able to support plant and animal life

b)

1 degree C; makes the temp of Earth's oceans completely stable and able to host animal life only

c)

1 degree F; makes the temp of Earth's oceans completely stable and able to host animal life only

d)

1 degree F; makes the temp of Earth's oceans relatively stable and able to support plant and animal life

85.

Knowing that water is less dense as a solid than in it's liquid form, what impact does it have on large bodies of water?

(a)  

86.

What is hydrophillic vs. hydrophobic?

a)

Water-soluble substances (ionic compounds, polar molecules, proteins); non-water soluble substances (oils, nonpolar)

b)

Non-water-soluble substances (oils, nonpolar); water-soluble substances (ionic compounds, polar molecules)

c)

Water-soluble substances (oils, nonpolar); non-water-soluble substances (ionic compounds, polar molecules, proteins)

87.

Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is an important buffer in living systems. What does it do?

a)

Moderates pH changes in blood plasma and the ocean

b)

Donate H+ when they're depleted

c)

Accept H+ from solution when there's a surplus

d)

None of the above

88.

Which functional group has carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Carboxyl

c)

Hydroxyl

d)

Carbonyl

e)

Amino

89.

Proteins are...

(a)  

90.

Carbohydrates include...

a)

Simple sugars (glycine) and polymers like starch

b)

Simple sugars (glucose, fructose..) and polymers like fatty acids

c)

Simple sugars (glucose, fructose..) and polymers like starch

91.

Monosaccharides are the monomers of carbohydrates, polysaccharides are the polymers of monosacchrides. What are two functions of polysaccharides?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Create polymers from monomers

c)

Structural support

d)

Splitting large molecules

92.

Lipids are all

a)

Hydrophobic non-polymers

b)

Hydrophilic non-polymers

c)

Hydrophobic polymers

d)

Hydrophilic polymers

93.

Give an example of a lipid

(a)  

94.

True or false: Triglycerides (fats) are made up of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules

a)

False

b)

True

95.

Fatty acids include hydrocarbon chains of variable lengths that are...

a)

Polar and hydrophillic

b)

Non-polar and hydrophobic

c)

Non-polar and hydrophillic

d)

Polar and hydrophobic

96.

Saturated fatty acids

a)

Are commonly produced by animals

b)

Have no double bonds between carbons

c)

Are lard and butter

d)

Pack solidly at room temp

97.

Unsaturated fatty acids

a)

Are commonly produced by plants

b)

Have some carbon doubke bonds, resulting in kinks

c)

Are linked to cardiovascular disease

d)

Tend to be liquid at room temp; corn oil and olive oil

98.

What are functions of lipids?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Cell membrane bilayer

c)

Protection of vital organs and insulation

d)

Structural support

99.

Phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer which forms the cell membrane, which of the following about the phospholipid bilayer is correct?

a)

The hydrophobic tails are sandwiched in between

b)

The hydrophilic tails are sanwiched in between

c)

There's hydrophilic heads that point towards the cytosol

d)

There's hydrophobic heads that point towards the cytosol

100.

Amino acids contain

(a)  

101.

Amino acids are linked by..

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Covalent bonds

102.

The first level of the protein folding system is

a)

Association of two or more polypeptide chains into a large protein. Hemoglobin is globular protein

b)

The two to three-dimensional shapes that are the result of h bonding. Alpha helix and beta helix.

c)

The unique sequence in which the amino acids are joined

d)

Complex globular shape, interactions between R groups, Van der Waal interactions, hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges

103.

What happens when a protein does not fold correctly?

a)

Function lost due to heat, change in pH

b)

Impacts the health of the cell - denatured - shape lost

c)

Hydrophobic interactions, van der Waal interactions occur

d)

Sickle cell anemia

104.

Chaperonins assist in..

a)

Amino acid sequence

b)

Alpha helix formation

c)

Protein folding

d)

Peptide bond formation

105.

DNA and RNA are..

a)

Two nucleic acids and their polymers are nucleic acids

b)

Two nucleic acids and their monomers are nucleotides

c)

Two nucleotides and their monomers are nucleic acids

d)

Two proteins and their polymers are nucleotides

106.

Nucleotides are made of

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Triglyceride backbone

c)

Nitrogenous bases (A,T,G,C,G,U)

d)

Pentose (5-c sugar)

107.

Nucleic acids are used for/as

a)

Energy, energy storage, structure

b)

An energy source, insulation

c)

Heredity, they code for the amino acid sequence

d)

Enzymes and movement

108.

Select which answers do NOT apply to Prokaryotic Cells

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Cytosol with organelles

d)

Plasma membrane

e)

Internal membranes

109.

The nucleus is surounded by a double membrane called

(a)  

110.

The nuclear envelope contains nuclear pores. What do the nuclear pores do?

a)

They sort, modify, and synthesize molecules that enter

b)

They maintain the shape of the nuclear envelope

c)

They control what enters and leaves the nucleas

d)

They protect the envelope from damage

111.

When the diffuse threads of chromatin condense into visible chromosomes, what is this indicating?

a)

A cell is ending its cell division process

b)

A cell is in its telophase stage of mitosis

c)

A cell is getting ready for cell division

d)

A cell is beginning meiosis

112.

Where are free ribosomes vs. bound ribosomes?

a)

Floating in the RER producing proteins; attached to the cytosol and make proteins for export from the cell

b)

Floating in the cytosol producing proteins; attached to the RER and make proteins for export from the cell

c)

Attached to the RER and make proteins for export from the cell; floating in the cytosol producing proteins

d)

Attached to the cytosol and make proteins for export from the cell; floating in the RER producing proteins

113.

The smooth ER's function is

a)

Package proteins into transport vesicles

b)

Metabolism of carbohydrates

c)

Synthesis of lipids

d)

Detoxification of drugs and poisons

114.

Proteins that are packaged into transport vesicles and are sent off toward the Golgi apparatus are then

a)

Shipped

b)

Modified

c)

Stored

115.

The cis face of the Golgi apparatus... whereas the trans face...

a)

Packages vesicles; ships vesicles

b)

Recieves vesicles; Ships vesicles

c)

Ships vesicles; recieves vesicles

d)

Recieves vesicles; stores vesicles

116.

Membrane bound sacs of hydrolytic enzymes that can digest large molecules, such as proteins, polysaccharides, fats, and nucleic acids, are called

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Vacuoles

d)

Mitochondria

117.

What is the significance of the membrane that surrounds lysosomes?

a)

They maintain a neutral environment within the inside via a proton pump

b)

They maintain water balance

c)

They maintain an acidic environment within the inside via a proton pump

d)

They maintain pH balance

118.

What indicates that population growth is ceasing and carrying capacity is reached?

a)

K-N/K

b)

K

c)

K=N

d)

rmaxN

119.

What is direct evidence of the endosymbiant theory?

a)

Lysosomes and chloroplasts

b)

Mitochondria and Chromatin

c)

Mitochondria and Chloroplasts

d)

Nucleus and lysosomes

120.

Which of the following statements is NOT part of Darwin's theory of natural selection?

a)

Members of the population that are physically weaker than others will be eliminated first by forces in the environment.

b)

Because there are more individuals than the environment can support, this leads to a struggle for existence in which only some of the offspring survive in each generation.

c)

Individuals survive and reproduce with varying degrees of success.

d)

The unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce leads to a gradual change in the population.

e)

Individuals in a population vary in their characteristics, and no two individuals are exactly alike.

121.

Which way does the template strand run? The coding strand? mRna strand?

a)

3' to 5', 5' to 3', 3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3', 3' to 5', 5' to 3'

c)

3' to 5', 5' to 3', 5' to 3'

d)

5' to 3', 5' to 3', 3' to 5'

122.

Why should we rotate our plants at least a quarter every two weeks?

a)

Increase the lean

b)

Minimize the effects of phototropism

c)

It promotes new growth in areas that may be inactive

d)

Even amount of sunlight

123.

What happens when chromosomes are tightly condensed and the DNA is wrapped tightly?

a)

None of the above

b)

Chromatin is accessible to the enzymes involved in DNA transcription, repair, replication

c)

It's difficult for transcription factors to bind to the DNA

d)

It's challenging for proteins to attach

124.

It is assumed that glycolysis was the first metabolic pathway for producing ATP. How is this supported?

a)

It is universal, used in fermentation and respiration

b)

It takes place in the cytoplasm

c)

It produces pyruvate

d)

It's an anaerobic process

125.

What is the plasma membrane in Eukaryotes made out of?

a)

Carbohydrate groups

b)

Proteins

c)

Phospholipid bilayer

d)

Cholesterol

126.

What purpose do the proteins in the cell membrane serve?

a)

Cell to cell signaling

b)

They're ribosome pumps

c)

They're channels that move material into and out of the cell

d)

Maintain fluidity and shape of the cell

127.

What happens if cholesterol is absent in a cell?

a)

Water gets in

b)

There is no signalling

c)

Cell lysis

d)

The lipid bilayer doesn't form

128.

Carb groups in the cell membrane...

a)

Participate in cell recognition and adhesion

b)

Only serve the structural role as a barrier

c)

Only focus on cell to cell signaling

d)

Have a structural role as a barrier

129.

Mitochondria are

a)

Sites of photosynthesis

b)

Sites of cellular resp.

c)

Sites where glycolysis occurs

d)

Sites where fermentation occurs

130.

What shows evidence for the endosymbiont theory with chloroplasts and mitochondria?

a)

Both have cristae folds

b)

Both have their own ribosomes and DNA

c)

Both have a double-membrane structure

d)

Both reproduce independently within the cell

131.

What do peroxisomes do that exemplify how the cell's compartmental structure is crucial to its functions?

a)

They detoxify alcohol by transferring hydrogen from the poison to oxygen

b)

They detoxify alcohol by transferring oxygen from the poison to hydrogen

c)

They break down fatty acids to be sent to the mitochondria for fuel

d)

They break down fatty acids to be sent to the ribosomes for fuel

132.

What makes up the cytoskeleton?

a)

Intermediate filaments, centrioles, microfilaments

b)

Microtubules, intermediate filaments, centrioles

c)

Microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments

d)

Centrosomes, microfilaments, microtubules

133.

Centrosome are microtubule-organizing centers, they contain centrioles in animal cells that

a)

Make sure the microtubules form

b)

Replicate before cell division

c)

Make sure the spindle forms

d)

Replicate during cell division

134.

Flagella are different from cilia because

a)

They're shorter and more numerous

b)

They can't be used for locamotion

c)

They're longer and fewer in number

d)

They're only in prokaryotes

135.

What provides channels between adjacent animal cells through which ions, sugars, and other small molecules can pass?

a)

TIght junctions

b)

Gap junctions

c)

Pores

d)

Desmosomes

136.

What is the primary component of cell walls?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Cellulose

c)

Chromatin

d)

Chlorophyll

137.

Channels that perforate adjacent plant walls and allow the passage of some molecules cell to cell are called

a)

Chaperonin

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Ion channels

d)

Plasmodesmata

138.

Integral proteins are... and peripheral are...

a)

Loosely bound to the membrane surface; completely embedded in the cell membrane

b)

Completely embedded in the cell membrane; loosely bound to the membrane surface

139.

Water moves through special transport proteins termed

a)

Ion channels

b)

Chemiosmosis

c)

Aquaporins

d)

Plasmodesmata

140.

Osmosis is

a)

The active diffusion of water across a membrane

b)

The diffusion of water across a selevtively permeable membrane

c)

The diffusion across a selectively permeable membrane

d)

The active diffusion across a membrane

141.

What is the difference between hypo and hypertonic solutions?

a)

One means equal flow/ no net movement of water, the other means low-high

b)

Hypo means high to low and the cell will lose water to its surroundings and it may shrivel and die; hyper means low to high concentration and water will enter the cell faster than it leaves, cell may swell and burst

c)

Hypo means low to high concentration and water will enter the cell faster than it leaves, cell may swell and burst; hyper means high to low and the cell will lose water to its surroundings and it may shrivel and die

d)

One means equal flow/ no net movement of water, the other means high-low

142.

Ions and polar molecules cannot pass through the membrane easily and need to use facilitated diffusion to pass, how do the transport proteins work to help the molecules pass?

a)

They bind loosely to the molecules and carry them through

b)

They provide a hydrophilic channel

c)

They use active transport to move them against their gradients

d)

They break them down and pass the parts of them that is able to pass freely

143.

Does active transport need ATP? Facilitated diffusion?

a)

No; yes

b)

Yes; Yes

c)

Yes; No

d)

No; no

144.

Which two processes utilize electrochemical gradients as potential energy sources to generate ATP?

a)

Cellular resp.

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Pyruvate oxidation

145.

T or F: Catabolic pathways consume energy to build complicated molecules from simpler ones, an example is when your body links amino acids together to form muscle protein in response to physical exercise

a)

True

b)

False

146.

Energy is released in a _____ reaction

a)

Catabolic

b)

Exergonic

c)

Endergonic

d)

Anabolic

147.

ATP is made of

a)

Ribose and a chain of three phosphate groups

b)

Triglyceride and some side groups

c)

The nitrogenous base adenine

d)

Three phosphate groups and a triglyceride only

148.

How does ATP become ADP?

a)

The nitrogenous base pair changes

b)

A phosphate group is taken off

c)

A phosphate group is transferred through hydrolysis

d)

An amino acid is attached

149.

Do enzymes speed up reactions? Doing what?

a)

Yes; lowering the activation energy of the reaction without changing the free energy change of the reaction

b)

No

c)

Yes; by increasing the activation energy of the reaction with changing the free energy change of the reaction

150.

Protein enzymes' 3d shapes are dramatically affected by changes in

a)

Temp

b)

Bonds

c)

pH

d)

Amino acid side groups

151.

Cofactors are

a)

Protein helpers; function to make coenzymes; vitamins

b)

Protein helpers; function to make catalysis occur; vitamins

c)

Nonprotein helpers; function to make coenzymes; metal ions

d)

Nonprotein helpers; function to make catalysis occur; metal ions

152.

What do noncompetitve inhibitors do?

a)

None of the above

b)

Like competitive, they directly compete with the substrate molecule, but unlike competitive, they change the shape of the enzyme by binding to the active site

c)

Unlike competitive, they do not directlhy compete with the substrate molecule and instead they impede enzyme activity by binding to another part of the enzyme causing shape change and rendering the active site nonfunctional

d)

They compete for the active site on the eznyme

153.

An elaborate example of cell signaling is a program of controlled cell suicide called

a)

Cytosis

b)

Cell lysis

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Phosphorylation cascadee

154.

What are examples of two catabolic pathways?

a)

Photosynthesis (aerobic)

b)

Cellular resp (aerobic)

c)

Fermentation (partial degradation of sugars that occurs anaerobically)

d)

Glycolysis (anaerobic)

155.

When a reactant is oxidized it

a)

Loses electrons

b)

Gains energy

c)

Gains electrons

d)

Loses energy

156.

Where is the electron transport chain and what does it do

a)

The mitochondrial matrix; electron transport and ATP synthesis powered by the flow of protons back across the membrane

b)

The outer membrane of the mitochondria; electron transport and pumping of protons to create a proton gradient across the membrane, the final electron acceptor is O2

c)

The inner membrane of the mitochondria; electron transport and pumping of protons to create a proton gradient across the membrane, the final electron acceptor is O2

d)

The cristae of the mitochondria; electron transport and ATP synthesis powered by the flow of protons back across the membrane

157.

Chemiosmosis is an energy-coupling mechanism that

a)

None of the above

b)

Uses energy stored in the form of a proton gradient (H+) to drive oxidative phosphorylation

c)

Uses energy stored in the form of a proton gradient (H+) to drive ATP synthesis (cellular work)

d)

Allows hydrogen ions to flow down their gradient through a channel in the transmembrane protein known as ATP synthase

158.

What is the reaction for photosynthesis?

(a)  

159.

What is the equation for cellular respiration?

(a)  

160.

What means the wrong number of chromosomes?

a)

Monosomy

b)

Polyploid

c)

Aneuploid

d)

Trisomy

161.

Where does glycolysis take place?

a)

Stroma

b)

The mitochondrial matrix

c)

The cytoplasm

d)

The mitochondria

162.

Where does the krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

Mitochondrial matrix

d)

Cytoplasm

163.

Where does the electron transport chain take place?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

d)

Mitochondria

164.

Where does pyruvate oxidation occur?

a)

Mitochondrial matrix

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

165.

Low concentration in protons in the

a)

Stroma

b)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

c)

Mitochondrial matrix

d)

Cytoplasm

166.

For glycolysis, what goes in and what goes out?

a)

Glucose (6-C) with high energy e- in bonds, 2NAD+ (high energy e- carrier), 2ATP; 2 pyruvate (3-C, waste product, high energy e- in bonds), 2NADH (full e- carrier), 4 ATP (SLP)

b)

2 pyruvate (3-C, waste product, high energy e- in bonds), 2NADH (full e- carrier), 4 ATP (SLP); glucose (6-C) with high energy e- in bonds, 2NAD+ (high energy e- carrier), 2ATP

c)

Glucose (6-C) with high energy e- in bonds, 2NADH (high energy e- carrier), 2ATP; 2 pyruvate (3-C, waste product, high energy e- in bonds), 2NAD+ (full e- carrier), 4 ATP (SLP)

167.

What is substrate-level phosphorylation (SLP)?

a)

Direct transfer of phosphate of organic molecule to ATP

b)

Direct transfer of an amino acid of organic molecule to ADP

c)

Direct transfer of phosphate of organic molecule to ADP

d)

Direct transfer of an amino acid of organic molecule to ATP

168.

2-acetyl coA (2-C). 2 CO2(waste), 2NADH out indicates that this process is

a)

Fermentation

b)

Electron transport chain

c)

Pyruvate oxidation

d)

Krebs cycle

169.

2 acetyl coA, 6 NAD+, and 2FAD going in shows that this process is

a)

The electron transport train

b)

The calvin cycle

c)

The citric acid cycle

d)

Pyruvate oxidation

170.

What comes out of the krebs cycle?

a)

4CO2, 6 NADH, 2FADH2, 2 ATP (SLP)

b)

4CO2, 6NADH, 2FAD, 2 acetyl coA

c)

2 acetyl CoA, 6NAD+, 2 FAD

d)

2 ATP, 2FADH2, 6NAD+

171.

Which of the following correctly depicts the in and out products of the electron transport chain?

a)

10 NADH, 2 FAD, O2; 10 NADH, 2 FADH2, H2O (waste)

b)

10 NADH, 2 FAD, H2O (waste); 10 NAD+, 2 FADH2, O2

c)

10 NADH, 2 FADH2, O2; 10 NAD+, 2 FAD, H2O (waste), 32 ATP (chemiosmosis)

d)

10 NAD+, 2 FAD, H2O (waste), 32 ATP (chemiosmosis); 10 NADH, 2 FADH2, O2

172.

What is oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

Using the energy from protons to make ATP

b)

Using the energy from electrons to make ADP

c)

Using the energy from electrons to make ATP

d)

Using the energy from protons to make ADP

173.

What is used to create proton gradient by activating proton pumps?

a)

Energy/ATP itself

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Potential energy

d)

Ionic energy

174.

For both fermentation processes (lactic acid and alcoholic), which is true?

a)

Purpose is to regenerate NAD+

b)

Pyruvate and NADH goes in

c)

Anaerobic process

d)

They occur in the cytoplasm

e)

All of the above

175.

What do both fermentations (lactic acid and alcoholic) have in common with their out products?

a)

Ethanol (2-C)

b)

Lactic acid (3-C)

c)

NAD+

d)

CO2

176.

How do pigments work?

(a)  

177.

What does p stand for and what is its meaning?

a)

None of the above

b)

Protons; hydrogen ion; governs the behaviors of all matters in our world

c)

Photons; packets of light

d)

Peak absorption; wavelength of light that causes the greatest excitation of electrons

178.

What is the primary pigment for photosynthesis?

a)

All of the above

b)

Carotenoids

c)

Chlorophyll A

d)

Chlorophyll B

179.

What transfers energy through resonance (photon of light strikes photosystem; vibrates and passes energy)?

a)

Photophosphorylation

b)

Accessory pigments

c)

Antenna pigment molecules

d)

Peak absorption

180.

Accessory pigments are all pigments except

a)

Chlorophyll A

b)

Chlorophyll B

c)

Caretenoids

d)

Antenna pigments

181.

From photosystem 2 to 1, what is produced?

a)

NADPH

b)

NADP+

c)

H2O

d)

ATP

182.

Light reactions occur where in specific

a)

Mitochondria

b)

The thylakoid

c)

In the stroma

d)

Chloroplast

183.

If H2O(electron donor)(H+ donor), NADP+ (electron carrier), and light energy go into a reaction, what is it called?

a)

Krebs cycle

b)

Noncyclic photophosphorylation

c)

Calvin cycle

d)

Cyclic photophosphorylation

184.

Which photosystem only produces ATP?

a)

Photosystem 2 - noncyclic photophosphorylation

b)

Photosystem 1 - cyclic photophosphorylation

c)

Trick question, it's both

185.

What happens in photosystem 1?

a)

Catalyze the photo-oxidation of water by using light energy.

b)

Makes ATP through chemiosmosis and returns to reaction center

c)

Electrons booted to a higher energy level

d)

Energized by light and drops into electron transport chain

186.

What is an indicator for CAM plants?

a)

Calvin cycle occurs

b)

Carbon fixing plant

c)

CO2 unable to diffuse

d)

Bundle sheath cells

187.

Why is rubisco a bad enzyme?

(a)  

188.

Plants can't regulate high temps well so they control the CO2 to O2 ratio using

a)

All of the above

b)

Bundle sheath cells where CO2 is converted

c)

Carbon fixation

d)

Rubisco

189.

Where does the calvin cycle occur?

a)

The stroma

b)

The chloroplast specifically

c)

The thylakoid

d)

The mitochondria

190.

What goes in and out of the calvin cycle

a)

NADPH, G-3 (PGAL)(3-C carb; high energy electrons in bonds); NADP+, ATP, O2

b)

NADP+, G-3 (PGAL)(3-C carb; high energy electrons in bonds); NADPH, ATP, CO2

c)

NADP+, ATP, O2; NADPH, G-3 (PGAL)(3-C carb; high energy electrons in bonds)

d)

NADPH, ATP, CO2; NADP+, G-3 (PGAL)(3-C carb; high energy electrons in bonds)

191.

Somatic cells are

a)

Diploid

b)

All body cells except gametes

c)

Gametes

d)

Sperm and egg cells

192.

Germline cells refer to

a)

Gametes (egg and sperm cells)

b)

All cells of the body except gametes

c)

Haploid

d)

Diploid

193.

Humans have a diploid chromosome number of

a)

6

b)

12

c)

23

d)

46

194.

Haploid gametes are ___ the number of chromosomes as a diploid cell

a)

Thrice

b)

Half

c)

A quarter

d)

Twice

195.

After chromosomes are replicated, _____ are formed and attached by a ______

a)

Kinetochore; spindle fibers

b)

Centromeres; microtubules

c)

Sister chromatids; centromere

d)

Sister chromatids; kinetochore

196.

The division of a cell's cytoplasm is called

a)

Cleavage

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

197.

In the G1 phase, the cell

a)

Experiences a gap after the chromosomes have been duplicated before mitosis

b)

Carries out its unique functions, but also duplicates its chromosomes

c)

Rests and stays there performing its actions forever

d)

Grows while carrying out cell functions unique to its cell type

198.

What happens in prophase?

a)

The nucleoli disappear

b)

The mitotic spindle begins to form in the cytoplasm

c)

The chromatin becomes more tightly coiled into discrete chromosomes

d)

All of the above

199.

What happens in metaphase?

a)

Cell elongates, opposite ends of the cell contain equal sets of chromosomes by the end

b)

Microtubules move the chromosomes to the equator of the cell, spindle.

c)

Centrioles migrate to opposite poles on the developing spindle

d)

Sister chromatids begin to separate

200.

What best describes anaphase?

a)

Cell elongates

b)

Nuclear envelopes re-form around the sets of chromosomes at the opposite ends of cell

c)

Sister chromatids separate and interact with the kinetochore microtubules

d)

Centrioles migrate to opposite poles in the cell

201.

What happens in telophase?

a)

All of the above

b)

Splitting of the cytoplasm of the cell, in animal cells cleavage furrow forms, in plant cells a cell plate forms.

c)

None of the above

d)

Prokaryotes replicate their genome by binary fission rather than mitosis

202.

This image is a pedigree of a family which passed down the gene for Tay sachs disease. What is the correct answer for what this disease falls under?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

Y-linked

d)

X-linked dominant

e)

Autosomal recessive

203.

This image shows a pedigree where the trait for cystic fibrosis was passed down. Which answer best describes the condition?

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

Autosomal dominant

e)

Y-linked

204.

In guinea pigs, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). No tail (T) is dominant over tail (t). What fraction of the dihybrid cross BbTt X BbTt will have black fur and tails?

a)

3/16

b)

6/18

c)

1/16

d)

9/16

205.

In the Hardy-Weinberg equation p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, what is q2 recognized as?

a)

Homozygous dominant (AA)

b)

Homozygous recessive (aa)

c)

Heterozygous (Aa)

206.

The bottleneck effect supports what?

a)

Gradualism

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Punctuated equilibrium

207.

Gene flow is the

a)

All of the above

b)

Alteration of allele frequency in a gene pool

c)

Evolution of new species

d)

Movement of genes into or out of a population

208.

T or F: Mitosis ends when MPF switches itself off by starting a process that leads to the destruction of cyclin molecules (which make CDK inactive)

a)

False

b)

True

209.

Crossing over is

a)

The pairing of homologous chromosoms in any combination

b)

When an unfertilized egg begins to divide

c)

Genetic exchange between homologous chromosomes

d)

The process of two gametes fusing to form a zygote

210.

What supports the fact that sexual reproduction increases genetic variation?

(a)  

211.

What is it called when dominance in which the heterozygote and the homozygotes for the dominant allele are indistinguishable?

a)

Codominance

b)

Complete dominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Polygenic inheritance

212.

The example of if two plants, one with white flowers and one with red, were crossed and all the offspring had pink flowers, explains

a)

Epistasis

b)

Complete dominance

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Codominance

213.

Pleiotrophy is when

a)

A gene has more than two alleles (blood types)

b)

A gene at one locus alters the effects of a gene at another locus (albinism)

c)

The property of a gene causes it to have multiple phenotypic effects (sickle-cell disease)

d)

Two or more genes have an additive effect on a single character in the phenotype