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8th Grade MCA Review 2022

Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 2hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which particle has a positive charge?
a)
electron
b)
orbital
c)
proton
d)
neutron
2.
An electron has a _____ charge.
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
3.

What are the maximum number of electrons that go on the first 4 electron shells? (That we discussed)

a)

2, 4, 8, 16

b)

2, 8, 8, 2

c)

2, 8, 8, 8

d)

2, 8, 16, 32

4.

Knowing the Atomic number can tell you the number of?

a)

neutrons

b)

protons and electrons

c)

protons and neutrons

d)

atomic mass

5.

A Carbon atom has 6 protons and 7 electrons. What is it's charge?

a)

+1

b)

0/neutral

c)

-1

d)

-2

6.

How many protons are in this atom?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

7.

What is the charge of this atom?

a)

-2

b)

-1

c)

0 (neutral)

d)

+1

e)

+2

8.

Which describes a metal?

(select all that apply)

a)

Shiny and silver (except gold and copper)

b)

Hard

c)

Malleable and Ductile

d)

Does not conducts heat & electricity

e)

Melts easily

9.

From the list below, which are characteristics of Alkali-Metals?

(select all that apply)

a)

Melt Easily

b)

Explode in water

c)

Are hard

d)

Are soft

10.

What type of bond is between Na and Cl?

(Metal and Non-Metal)

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)
11.

How many Lithium (donate 1) does it take to balance out one Oxygen (wants 2)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

Oxygen is fake

12.

How many Be does it take to balance out one Carbon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

Oxygen is fake

13.

Which of the following is NOT one of the 5 characteristics of minerals?

a)

Naturally Occurring

b)

Organic Processes

c)

Definite Chemical Composition

d)

Solid

14.
What does the Mohs Scale measure?
a)
Streak
b)
Luster
c)
Hardness
d)
Cleavage
15.
________________ describes how light reflects off a mineral.
a)
Luster
b)
Hardness
c)
Fracture
d)
Color
16.
Which of the following is an example of luster?
a)
Soft
b)
White
c)
Metallic
d)
Hard
17.

Atomic patterns that repeat over and over again within a mineral are called

a)

Crystal Shape

b)

Inorganic Processes

c)

Definite Chemical Composition

d)

Solid

18.
When a mineral breaks in an uneven, rough, or jagged way
a)
Luster
b)
Cleavage
c)
Hardness
d)
Fracture
19.
When a mineral breaks smoothly and evenly.
a)
Luster
b)
Cleavage
c)
Hardness
d)
Fracture
20.
What is the hardest mineral on the Moh's Hardness Scale?
a)
Talc
b)
Gypsum
c)
Diamond
d)
Calcite
21.

What is the LEAST reliable way to identify a mineral?

a)

luster

b)

streak

c)

color

d)

density

22.

What luster does this mineral have?

a)

Metallic

b)

Waxy

c)

Glassy

d)

Pearly

23.

a)

Hemitite

b)

Muscovite Mica

c)

Quartz

d)

Galena

24.

a)

Hemitite

b)

Magnetite

c)

Quartz

d)

Galena

25.
Intrusive Igneous rocks will be 
a)
coarse grain
b)
fine grain
26.

If an Igneous rock is dark-colored, what will we call it?

a)

mafic

b)

felsic

c)

intermediate

27.
Metamorphic rocks that have grains arranged in parallel layers or bands are called...
a)
Foliated
b)
Nonfoliated
28.

What can sedimentary rocks tell us that other rock types cannot?

a)

History of plants and animals on Earth

b)

A good bed time story

c)

What earth looked like in the past

d)

How the earth was made

29.

What type of sedimentary rock is this?

a)

Clastic

b)

Chemical

c)

Bioclastic

30.

What type of sedimentary rock is this?

a)

Clastic

b)

Chemical

c)

Bioclastic

31.

The process of sediment getting packed down and squeezed together.

a)

Cementation

b)

Weathering

c)

Deposition

d)

Compaction

32.

The movement of sediment to a new location by wind/rain/ice.

a)

Erosion

b)

Weathering

c)

Deposition

d)

Cementation

33.

The process of breaking rock into smaller pieces.

a)

Erosion

b)

Weathering

c)

Deposition

d)

Cementation

34.

Describe this rock

a)

Intrusive , High Silica, extrusive

b)

Intrusive , felsic, vesicles

c)

Extrusive , mafic, vesicles

d)

Extrusive, felsic, vesicles

35.
Coarse or Fine?
a)
coarse
b)
fine
36.
Which texture best describes the rock above?
a)
porphyritic 
b)
nonfoliated
c)
foliated
d)
clastic
37.

Name this rock

a)

Granite

b)

Sandstone

c)

Gneiss

d)

Marble

38.

High grade metamorphism is when a rock has been...

a)

Not changed at all

b)

Has a high grade in school

c)

Has been in lots of heat and pressure that change the rock a lot

d)

Has been in small amounts of heat and pressure that change the rock a little

39.
A person would weigh more on Jupiter than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Jupiter has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Jupiter has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Jupiter has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Jupiter has less mass and therefore less gravity
40.
Two objects with a greater mass have
a)
less gravitational force
b)
stronger gravitational force
c)
no clue
d)
a way to break apart
41.

The closer two objects are to each other

a)

the harder they will land

b)

they will have no gravitational force

c)

the stronger gravitational force

d)

yep

42.

Two factors effecting the magnitude of gravitational force between 2 objects are...

a)

mass and distance

b)

mass and matter

c)

distance and weight

d)

weight and mass

43.
Which model has greater gravitational attraction (if any)
a)
Model A
b)
Model B
c)
Both Model A and Model B (same gravity)
44.
What is the thickest layer of the Earth?
a)
the crust
b)
the mantle
c)
the outer core
d)
the inner core
45.
What is the core made of?
a)
steel
b)
iron 
c)
aluminum
d)
iron and nickel
46.

Early Earth is molten, meaning less dense materials rise to the top, while more dense material sink to the center of the planet

a)
True
b)
False
47.
The thinnest layer of the Earth is the ___________.
a)
mantle
b)
crust
c)
core
48.

What is the consistency of the outer core?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

viscous

d)

gas

49.
Why is the inner core solid?
a)
its unknown
b)
what it's made of
c)

the extreme pressure

d)
it is colder than the outer core
50.

Which layer(s) of Earth are liquid or can flow?

a)

Outer Core and mantle

b)

Inner Core and outer core

c)

Asthenosphere and outer core

d)

Lithosphere and outer core

51.
What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth's layers?
a)
crust, outer core, inner core, mantle
b)
mantle, outer core, inner core, crust
c)
crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
d)
outer core, inner core, crust, mantle
52.

What happens to pressure as we move from the crust to the inner core?

a)

Pressure Decreases

b)

Pressure Increases

c)

Nothing

53.

What happens to temperature as we move from the crust to the inner core?

a)

Decreases

b)

Increases

c)

Nothing

54.

The asthenosphere is part of what larger layer?

a)

Part of the mantle

b)

Part of Crust, mantle, Core

c)

Part of Crust and upper mantle

d)

Only the crust

55.

What layer is "liquidy" and allows our tectonic plates to move?

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Mantle

c)

Asthenosphere

d)

crust

56.
Who is the person credited with developing the theory of continental drift?
a)
Harry Hess
b)
Galileo
c)
Alfred Wegener
d)
Newton
57.

What is this a picture of?

a)

plate tectonics

b)

continental drift

c)

Pangea

d)

glacier scaring

58.
Which type of information was NOT collected by Wegener to support his continental drift hypothesis?
a)
glacial deposits
b)
 fossils
c)
seafloor magnetic data
d)
rocks
59.
How does fossil evidence support Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift?
a)
Similar fossils are found along continental margins that appear to join together.
b)
Fossils are found in areas where the present-day climate could not have supported the organisms that made the fossils.
c)
Similar fossils of giant, land-dwelling dinosaurs are found on continents separated by oceans.
d)
all of the above
60.
Why was Wegener's theory not accepted?
a)
He had no proof of how they were moving
b)

He had no evidence to show they have moved

c)

He had not evidence to support any theories

d)

He was not a geologist

61.
The Theory of Continental Drift states that Pangaea broke apart and the continents "drifted" away from each other
a)
True
b)
False
62.

Most tectonic plates have both oceanic and continental crust. How are they different?

a)

Oceanic is thinner and less dense than continental.

b)

Continental is thinner than more dense than oceanic.

c)

Continental is thicker and less dense than oceanic.

d)

Oceanic is thicker and more dense than continental.

63.
What does the theory of continental drift state?
a)
The continents were once joined in a super-continent and have moved over time
b)
Continents are stationary and do not move
c)
The Earth is broken into lithospheric plates that move due to convection currents
d)
none of the above
64.

What technology has proven the existence of Continental drift?

a)

GPS/Satellites

b)

Planes/Helicopters

c)

Ancient Maps of Earth

d)

Aliens told Alfred Wegener in his dreams

65.

In the future, scientists predict that the African continent will...

a)

Break up into smaller tectonic plates

b)

Move north, running into current day Europe

c)

Travel East and hit current day China

d)

Become the exact middle of the next supercontinent

66.

What has been the pattern for continental motion over the course of billions of years?

a)

Continents stay in the same locaitons

b)

Continents are always moving but never join up even over millions of years

c)

Continents will meet up, break up and repeat this process over hundreds of millions of years

d)

Continents will meet up, break up and repeat this process over thousands of years

67.
The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....
a)
Convergent Boundary
b)
Divergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Plate Boundary
68.

Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?

a)

Energy from the Sun

b)

Magnetic Pole Reversal

c)

Convection currents in the asthenosphere

d)

Faults in Mountain Ranges

69.
What type of plate boundary is this?
a)
Plate
b)
Divergent
c)
Convergent
d)
Transform
70.
What type of event will occur at this boundary?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Volcano Eruption
c)
Tornado
d)
Mountain Building
71.
How is it possible for new crust to be formed without increasing the surface area of the Earth?
a)
Crust is destroyed at the same time it is created
b)
New crust is underwater where it sinks
c)
New crust breaks more easily than old crust
72.
Mountains are created when....
a)
Two continental plates collide
b)
Two oceanic plates pull apart
c)
An Oceanic plate subducts under a Continental Plate
d)
Two continental plates pull apart
73.

Most volcanoes and earthquakes occur on

a)

The center of tectonic plates

b)

The boundaries of tectonic plates

c)

Randomly anywhere on Earth

d)

Where ever the land and ocean meet

74.

Which type of boundary is shown between the North American and Eurasion plates? (Brown and green plates)

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

75.

Which type of boundary is shown between the Pacific and Nazca Plates? (yellow and light blue)

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

76.
From YOUNGEST to OLDEST
a)
A-D-C-B-E
b)
B-E-C-D-A
c)
A-B-E-C-D
d)
A-C-B-E-D
77.
From YOUNGEST to OLDEST
a)
C-E-D-B-A
b)
A-B-D-E-C
c)
A-D-B-E-C
d)
D-A-B-E-C
78.
From OLDEST to YOUNGEST
a)
B-C-D-A-M-E-F-G-H
b)
E-M-A-D-C-B-H-G-F
c)
H-G-F-E-M-A-D-C-B
d)
H-G-A-D-C-B-F-E-M
79.
From OLDEST to YOUNGEST
a)
F-B-K-N-A-J-D-M-H-C-L-G-E
b)
F-H-B-K-E-G-L-C-N-M-D-J-A
c)
E-G-L-C-H-M-D-J-A-N-K-B-F
d)
F-M-H-C-L-G-E-B-K-N-A-J
80.

If we start with 500g of carbon-14, how many half lives until we have 62.5g left?

a)

1 half-life

b)

2 half-lives

c)

3 half-lives

d)

4 half-lives

81.
Which division on the geologic time scale is the shortest?
a)
epoch
b)
era
c)
eon
d)
period
82.

The dinosaurs were dominant in which Era?

a)

Precambrian

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Cenozoic

83.
Known as the age of the mammals?
a)
Mesozoic Era
b)
Holocene Epoch
c)
Cenozoic Era
d)
Cambrian
84.

What happens to the density (thickness)/air pressure of the air as you leave Earth?

a)

air gets thicker

b)

air gets thinner

c)

air stays the same

d)

air disappears

85.
Where you will find the ozone layer.
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
exosphere
d)
mesosphere
86.
Where weather occurs.
a)
stratosphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
87.

Which order is correct from the space to Earth?

a)

thermosphere

troposphere

exosphere

mesosphere

stratosphere

b)

thermosphere

troposphere

stratosphere

exosphere

mesosphere

c)

exosphere

thermosphere

mesosphere

stratosphere

troposphere

d)

troposphere

thermosphere

troposphere

stratosphere

exosphere

mesosphere

88.

What causes the layers of atmosphere to form?

a)

Wind currents

b)

Visible lines in the sky

c)

Change in temperature pattern

d)

Scientists wanted to make it hard to learn

89.

What percentage of air is oxygen gas?

a)

78

b)

12

c)

21

d)

0.04

90.

These gases are in the permanent gases group. (select all that apply)

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Argon

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Ozone

91.
What causes wind to blow?
a)
Differences in longitude 
b)
Shock waves from clouds 
c)
Differences in air temperature and pressure 
d)
The rotation of the earth
92.

What can you conclude about prevailing westerly winds from their name?

a)

They blow from west to east

b)

They blow all the time

c)

The air they contain is very warm

d)

The air they contain is very cool

93.

How are the winds in the northern hemisphere different from winds in the southern hemisphere?

a)

Winds in the northern are deflected right; winds in the southern are deflected left

b)

winds in the northern are deflected south; winds in the southern are deflected north

c)

winds in the northern are deflected east; winds in the southern are deflected west

d)

winds in the northern are deflected left; winds in the hemisphere are deflected right

94.
When Earth's rotation causes the wind to curve 
a)
cloudy 
b)
Coriolis effect
c)
high pressure
d)
low pressure 
95.
Winds that blow from the west are called ____.
a)
Easterlies
b)
Polars
c)
Westerlies
d)
Temperates
96.
Winds that blow from the east are called ____.
a)
Polars
b)
Westerlies 
c)
Easterlies
d)
Temperates
97.

What winds belt is Minnesota in?

a)

prevailing westerlies

b)

polar easterlies

c)

trade winds

d)

jet streams

98.

What type of energy transfer is this?

a)

Magic

b)

Convection

c)

Conduction

d)

Fro Fro the Science Pro

99.
What is greenhouse effect?
a)
the process by which gasses hold heat in the air .
b)
water vapor and dioxide.
c)
particles in the atmosphere.
d)
heat
100.

This picture is an example of ________.

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Mechanical wave

d)

Radiation

101.

Which property of light is being demonstrated in this image?

a)

absorption

b)

diffraction

c)

reflection

d)

bending

102.

According to the diagram, what can happen when solar energy hits clouds in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

it can be reflected or absorbed

b)

it can only be absorbed

c)

it can only be reflected

d)

it is neither reflected nor absorbed

103.

About how much of the Sun's energy actually hits the ground?

a)

23%

b)

47%

c)

12%

d)

The Sun is not real

104.

About how much energy is emitted by Earth upwards?

a)

23%

b)

116%

c)

47%

d)

12%

105.

What happens if the energy from the sun INCREASED to 200%?

a)

Nothing would change

b)

Every other number would have to change, and temperature would likely go up

c)

Only the energy reflected would go up

d)

Only the energy with convection would change

106.

Thick, fluffy clouds with flat bases,formed by vertically rising air currents.

a)

cumulus

b)

stratus

c)

cirrus

d)

hail

107.

High-altitude clouds that are thin,feathery tufts of ice crystals.

a)

cumlus

b)

stratus

c)

cirrus

d)

hail

108.

Cloud formation occurs when

a)

warm air rises and water condenses

b)

cold air sinks and water condenses

c)

warm air sinks and water condenses

d)

cold air goes north and water condenses

109.
Which condition usually means cloudy, stormy weather?
a)
high pressure
b)
low pressure
110.
What is the temperature at this station
a)
75 degrees
b)
61 degrees
c)
987 degrees
d)
11 degrees
111.
What is the dew point at this station?
a)
75 degrees
b)
61 degrees
c)
987 degrees
d)
11 degrees
112.

What is the wind speed?

a)

15 knots

b)

30 knots

c)

25 knots

d)

6 knots

113.

What is the wind direction?

a)

North

b)

South

c)

North East

d)

North West

e)

South West

114.

_______ pressure systems are characterized by fair weather.

a)

High

b)

Low

115.
This is the symbol for which type of front?
a)
cold front
b)
warm front
c)
occluded front
d)
stationary front
116.
This is the symbol for which type of front?
a)
cold front
b)
warm front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
117.

The moon orbits the Sun.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Why does the moon shine?

a)

it has its own light

b)

it reflects Earth's light

c)

it reflects the Sun's light

119.

What phase is the Moon in?

a)

Third quarter

b)

New Moon

c)

Full Moon

d)

First quarter

120.

We can't see the moon when it is in which phase?

a)

waning crescent

b)

new moon

c)

waxing gibbous

d)

full moon

121.

When does a lunar eclipse happen?

a)

when the sun is hidden by the moon

b)

when the Earth is hidden by the sun

c)

when the full moon passes through Earth's shadow

122.

What phase is the Moon in?

a)

Waxing gibbous

b)

Waning crescent

c)

Waning gibbous

d)

Waxing crescent

123.

What phase is the Moon in?

a)

Waxing gibbous

b)

Waning crescent

c)

Waxing crescent

d)

Waning gibbous

124.

How does a Solar Eclipse happen?

a)

When a New Moon passes in front of the Sun, casting a shadow on Earth

b)

When the Moon gets scared of the Sun and goes back into its hole, we will have winter for two more weeks

c)

It doesn't happen ever because it is too hard to line them up

d)

When the Moon passes through Earth's shadow

125.

Why doe we always see the same "face" of the Moon

a)

The Moon does not rotate as it revolves around the Earth

b)

The Earth spins just as fast as the Moon

c)

The Moon's period of rotation is equal to its period of revolution

d)

The Earth revolves around the Moon slowly

126.

The movement of one object around another is called a ____.

a)

Rotation

b)

Equinox

c)

Revolution

127.

The Earth makes 1 complete rotation in _________.

a)

24 hours

b)

365 days

c)

52 weeks

128.

How long does it take for the Earth to revolve around the sun? (1 complete revolution)

a)

24 hours

b)

365.25 days

c)

24 days

129.

The Earth's seasons are caused by the _____ of the Earth on its axis

a)

tilt

b)

revolution

c)

equinox

130.

More direct sunlight in your region causes...

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

131.

According to this image, what season would Minnesota have?

a)

Spring

b)

Winter

c)

Summer

d)

Fall

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