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WorksheetsChapter 10 - __
Total questions: 93
Worksheet time: 23hrs 15mins
How many layers of tissue does an artery have?
One
Two
Three
Four
The conduction system contains pacemaker cells, nodes, the ___ and the ___.
Bundle of His and electrical system
Purkinje fibers and bundle of His
Heart valves and Purkinje fibers
Electrical system and bundle of His
What part of the cardiovascular system is responsible for the one way flow of blood through the chambers of the heart
Septum
Heart Valves
Bundle of His
Atria
Which main coronary artery bifurcates into two smaller ones
Right
Left
Inverted
Superficial
What is the term for the divider between the heart chamber walls?
SA node
Bundle branch
Septum
Mitral
___ is a term standing for enlargement of the heart.
Cardiorenal
Angiomegaly
Cardiomegaly
Valvuloplasty
Repair of the coronary vessel is called
Endarterectomy
Angioplasty
Aortic
Endovascular
According to the ICD-10-CM Coding Guidelines, which condition has a causal relationship with hypertension?
Diabetes
Asthma
Hyperlipidemia
Chronic Kidney Disease
Which statement is TRUE regarding codes for hypertension and heart disease in ICD-10-CM
Only one code is required to report hypertension and heart failure
Hypertension and heart disease have an assumed causal relationship
Hypertension and heart disease without a stated causal relationship must be coded separately
Hypertension with heart disease is always coded to heart failure
What information is needed in order to accurately code hypertension retinopathy in ICD-10-CM?
The affected eye(s)
The stage of retinopathy
Whether the hypertension is malignant or benign
Which side of the heart is affected
What information is required to accurately code PVD with diabetes in ICD-10-CM
Which side of the body is affected
Whether the patient has gangrene
The state of gangrene
The state of PVD
What parts make up the large intestine
Ileum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum and anus
Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, cecum
Cecum with vermiform appendix, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum and anus
Appendix, cecum, ileum, jejunum, duodenum, rectum, and anus
Where is the vermilion border located
Stomach lining
Upper and lower lips
Underneath the tongue
In the esophagus
What is the term that describes the removal of a portion or all of the stomach
Gastrectomy
Gastrotomy
Gastrostomy
Gastric bypass
What is the eponym for a pancreatoduodenectomy
Hartmann's Procedure
Kasai procedure
Whipple procedure
Meckel's Procedure
Bile empties into the duodenum through what structure?
Biliary artery
Common hepatic duct
Pyloric sphincter
Common bile duct
In the ICD-10-CM, how is Crohn's disease of the small intestine with intestinal obstruction reported?
Crohn's disease of the small intestine is reported first with intestinal obstruction reported as a secondary diagnosis
Crohn's disease of the small intestine is reported as regional enteritis of the small intestines
Intestinal obstruction is reported first with Crohn's disease of the small intestine is reported as secondary
One combination code is reported to indicate Crohn's disease of the small intestine with intestinal obstruction
When reporting an encounter for screening of malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract, what does the 5th character indicate?
Anatomic location being screened in the intestinal tract
Laterality of the intestinal tract
History of malignancy in the intestinal tract
Screening codes for malignant neoplasms of the intestinal tract are only reported with four characters
What are the reproductive glands that produce male hormones
Testes
Vas Defernes
Spermatic Cord
Epididymis
What are the filtering units of the kidney called
Glomerules
Tubules
Calyx
Nephrons
Which statement is TRUE regarding reporting calculi in both the kidney and ureter?
Only the calculi in the kidney are reported
Only the calculi in the ureter are reported
Two codes are reported, one for the calculi in the kidney and the other for the calculi in the ureter
One code identifies both the calculi in the kidney and the ureter
What is the root word for vagina
Ureter/o
Colp/o
Hyster/o
Metri/o
What does the abbreviation VBAC mean
Vaginal birth after cesarean
Vulvar bacterial antimicrobial cyst
Very bad anterior colporrhaphy
Virgin before antenatal care
What is a bilateral structure of the female reproductive system
Bartholin's gland
Fallopian tubes
Ovaries
All of the above
Procedures involving which of the following structures found in the vulva are NOT coded in the female reproductive system section of CPT
Clitoris
Hymen
Introitus
Skene's Gland
Vulvar cancer in situ can also be documented as
VIN I
VIN II
VIN III
Adenocarcinoma of the vulva
What does the abbreviation IVF mean
Intravenous fluids
In Vitro fertilization
Intravaginal foreign body
Infundibulum via Fallopian tube
A pregnant patient presents to the ED with bleeding, cramping, and concerns of loss of tissue and material per vagina. On examination, the physician discovers an open cervical os with no products of conception seen. He tells the patient she has had an abortion. What type of abortion has she had?
Missed
Induced
Spontaneous
None of the above
What procedure is performed to treat vaginal prolapse
Colpopexy
Colposcopy
Colpectomy
Colpotomy
What modifier is appropriate for a separately billable antenatal service during the global OB package period?
24
25
57
No modifier is needed
A pregnant patient presents to labor and delivery with the baby in a breech presentation. During the delivery the doctor attempts to turn the baby while it is still in the uterus. The baby turns but then immediately resumes his previous breech position. Can this service be billed? If so, what is the code
No, because the doctor was unable to successfully turn the baby
No, this procedure is included in the obstetrical global package
Yes, because the doctor did the work, even though the outcome was unsuccessful.
Yes, only billing it with postpartum care
What ICD-10-CM category is used to report the weeks of gestation of pregnancy
E11
O20
I24
Z3A
What does contralateral mean?
Affecting or originating in the opposite side.
Pertaining to the same side of the body
Lateral contractions.
Contractions occurring on opposite sides of the body.
What is a parathyroidectomy
Removal of the bottom part of the thyroid
Removal of the upper part of the thyroid
Removal of glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid
Removal of glands beneath the thyroid
What is a laminotomy
Complete excision of lamina
Removal of glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid
Partial excision of one or more lamina
Removal of glands beneath the thyroid
When coding for surgery performed on the skull base what term describes the method used to gain exposure to the lesion
Definitive procedure
Radical procedure
Repair procedure
Approach procedure
What are the four lobes of the brain
Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital
Sulci, Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla
Frontal, Cerebral, Cerebellum, Pons
Frontal, Cerebrum, Temporal, Occipital
What disease is characterized by enlarged skeletal parts
Acromegaly
Goiter
Hyperthyroidism
Cushing's Syndrome
What is the term for uncontrolled muscle movements?
Paraplegia
Reye's Syndrome
Syringomyelia
Dyskinesia
What is the term for paralysis affecting one side of the body?
Monoplegia
Paraplegia
Quadriplegia
Hemiplegia
Looking in the CPT manual the Nervous System is divided into what subheadings?
Central Nervous System and Peripheral Nervous System
Skull, Meninges, and Brain; Spine and Spinal Cord; Extracranial Nerves, Peripheral Nerves, and Autonomic Nervous System
Skull, Spine, Peripheral Nervous System, Central Nervous System
Brain, Central Nervous System, Autonomic Nervous System
What is a dime sized opening in the skull to access the brain called?
Burr hole
Trephine
Cistern
Craniectomy
In the ICD-10-CM which statement is TRUE regarding type 1 diabetes with peripheral angiopathy with gangrene?
One code is used to reported diabetes with peripheral angiopathy; the gangrene is not reported separately
One code is used to report secondary diabetes with peripheral angiopathy; the gangrene is not reported
Two codes are reported; one to report diabetes with peripheral angiopathy and a second to report the gangrene
Three codes are reported; one for the diabetes, one for the peripheral angiopathy, and a third for the gangrene
How is streptococcal A meningitis reported in ICD-10-CM
Only one code is reported for streptococcal meningitis
Streptococcal meningitis is reported first; Streptococcal, group A, as the cause of diseases classified elsewhere is reported second.
Streptococcal, group A, as the cause of diseases classified elsewhere is reported first; streptococcal meningitis is reported second.
Only streptococcal, group A, as the cause of diseases classified elsewhere is reported
What specificity is added to Alzheimer's disease in ICD-10-CM?
The stage of Alzheimer's disease
The onset of Alzheimer's disease
Neurological manifestations of Alzheimer's disease
Visual disturbances associated with Alzheimer's disease
What is the transparent part of the eye?
Sclera
Cornea
Choroid
Retina
What is exopthtalmos
Excess Sugar in the urine
Protrusion of the eyeballs
A condition resulting from an excess of hormones from the adrenal cortex
Enlargement of the thyroid gland
Which option best describes what is being done during strabismus surgery?
Corrects the condition in which the refractive surfaces of the eye are unequal
Removes the opaque covering on or in the lens
Is a repair of the cornea
Corrects the muscle misalignment
A surgeon performed a cataract extraction with an intraocular lens implant on the right eye of a Medicare patient. What modifier(s) would be reported?
50
E1, E2
E2
RT
What is the abbreviation for EACH EYE
O.D.
O.S.
A.U.
O.U.
What does IOL stand for
Interoptic laser
Intraocular lens
Interdimensional ocular lenghts
Iridescence over lamina
To code for the operating microscope, what verbiage are you looking for in the medical record?
Loupes were donned for magnification
Microdissection may be necessary
Due to the intricate dissection under magnification
The operating microscope was sterilely draped and brought into the surgical field
What information does ICD-10-CM add to many of the codes for eye disorders or injuries
Severity of the injury
Laterality (eye affected)
Manifestations of the disease or illness
Stage of the disease or illness
What are the three classifications of anesthesia
General, Regional and Epidural
General, Regional and Monitored Anesthesia Care
General, MAC and Conscious Sedation
General, Regional and Moderate Sedation
What modifier is used for medically-directed CRNA services?
QK
QS
QX
QZ
What intraperitoneal organs are found in the lower abdomen
Appendix, Cecum, ileum, sigmoid colon
Liver, appendix, gallbladder, ileum, sigmoid colon
Gallbladder, cecum, spleen, ileum, sigmoid colon
Spleen, liver, appendix, stomach, cecum
What physical status modifier best describes a patient who has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life?
P1
P2
P3
P4
What modifier would be appended to a service that is not usually requiring anesthesia?
22
23
47
52
What time is used to report the start of anesthesia time?
When the anesthesiologist begins to prepare the patient for anesthesia
During the pre-anesthesia assessment
Entering the operating room
Surgery start time
A 42 year-old patient was undergoing anesthesia in an ASC and began having complications prior to the administration of anesthesia. the surgeon immediately discontinued the planned surgery. If the insurance company requires a reported modifier, what modifier best describes the extenuating circumstances
53
23
73
74
A 74 year-old patient is undergoing surgery under monitored anesthesia care (MAC). The surgeon has determined the procedure will be markedly invasive. What modifier(s) is/are appropriate for Medicare?
QS
G8
G9
G8 and QS
A CRNA is personally performing a case with medical direction from an anesthesiologist. What modifier is appropriately reported for the CRNA services?
QX
QZ
QK
QS
An anesthesiologist is medically supervising six cases concurrently. What modifier is reported for the anesthesiologist service
AA
AD
QK
QX
An anesthesiologist is medically supervising six cases. what modifier is reported for the CRNA's medically directed service?
AD
QK
QX
QZ
An axillary view might be included in an X-ray of what part of the skeleton?
Neck
Shoulder
Forearm
Pelvis
Which anatomic position has the patient lying at an angle instead of lying flat or directly on their side?
Lateral
Supine
prone
Oblique
Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves
Coronal
Transverse
Sagittal
Axial
In ICD-10-CM when a patient is seen for a routine examination, what additional information is needed in order to accurately code the routine examination?
The frequency of the routine exam (i.e. monthly, yearly)
Whether or not laboratory tests were also performed
Whether or not abnormal findings were identified
When the next routine examination is scheduled
Tests in the Chemistry section of CPT are what types of tests unless specified otherwise
Qualitative
Quantitative
Semi-quantitative
Surgical
What modifier must always be applied to Medicare claims for tests performed in a site with a CLIA Waived certificate?
26
90
91
QW
What does "in vivo" mean?
necropsies
in the living body
fetal
maternal
In what section of the pathology chapter of CPT will a coder find codes fora FISH test?
Cytopathology
Immunology
Chemistry
Other Procedures
The suffix -ology means
Tired
Disease
Fungus
Study of
What modifier identifies the professional component of a service?
26
TC
PC
91
A patient presents with worries she is at risk for cancer. She asks for tests to verify whether she has cancer. The test comes back normal. What type of service is this considered?
Screening services
Signs and symptoms
Cancer
Abnormal findings
HCPCS Level II codes specifically for Pathology and Laboratory services all start with what letter?
A
G
P
Q
What do services in the Reproductive Medicine Procedures section of the Pathology and laboratory chapters of CPT report
Services to test for the health of a pregnant women
Services related to in vitro fertilization
Services to test for the health of a growing fetus
Services to test for multiple gestations
If the findings on examination of a Pap smear are normal and described as "negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy" this is an example of what type of results reporting?
Cytogenics
Non-Bethesda
Bethesda
Surgical pathology
What is usually found in the blood if a person has or used to have an infecting virus
Antigen
Allergen
Antibody
None of the above
A patient has a fine needle aspiration with the specimen sent to cytopathology for examination. Once the specimen is reviewed, it is found to be inadequate to perform the test. A new specimen must be obtained which is then examined and a diagnosis is confirmed. What modifier is appropriate to indicate that two specimens were examined?
76
77
91
No Modifier
A virus is identified by observing growth patterns on cultured media. What is this type of identification called?
Definitive
Qualitative
Quantitative
Presumptive
Which elements of HPI are met in this statement? Patient complains of headache and blurry vision for the past 3 days.
Location, severity and duration
Location, quality and duration
Quality, severity and timing
Quality, duration and timing
A provider admits Mrs. Smith to the hospital. She is there for five days. The provider sees her each day she's in the hospital. What subcategory of E/M codes would be used for days two, three and four?
Office or Other Outpatient Services, Established patient
Subsequent Observation care
Initial Hospital Care
Subsequent Hospital Care
Fred is fishing at the local area lake while on vacation. He gets lightheaded and dizzy and goes to the local hospital Emergency Department. He's evaluated by the ED provider. This is the first time he has been to this hospital. What subsection is used to report the ED visit?
Office or Other Outpatient Services; New Patient
Emergency Department Services
Initial Hospital Care
Office or Other Outpatient Consultations
If the pain is sharp, stabbing or dull, what is the component of the History of Present Illness (HPI)?
Timing
Quality
Duration
Modifying Factor
Where are clinical examples for evaluation and management codes found in the CPT code book?
CPT Assistnat
Appendix A
Appendix B
Appendix C
A PCP transfers a patient to a cardiologist for management of the patient's congestive heart failure. The cardiologist examines the patient, discusses treatment options and schedules a stress test for this new patient. A report is sent to the PCP detailing the findings of the office visit, results of the stress test and intent to manage and treat the congestive heart failure. An E/M code would be selected from what subcategory for the cardiologist?
New Patient Office visit
Established patient office visit
Office consulation
Inpatient consultation
According to CPT guidelines what is the first step in selecting an evaluation and management code?
Determine the level of history
Determine the level of medical decision making
Determine the category or subcategory
Determine if time is the determining component
What category of codes should be used to report an evaluation and management service provided to a patient in a psychiatric residential treatment center?
Hospital inpatient services
Observation services
Nursing facility services
domiciliary, rest home or custodial care
A patient is seen by Dr. B who is covering on call services for Dr. A. The patient is an established patient with Dr. A. but she has not been seen by Dr. B. before. Which E/M subcategory is appropriate to report the services by Dr. B?
Established patient office visit
New patient office visit
Office consultation
Preventive medicine visit
What modifier is used to report an evaluation and management service mandated by a court order?
24
32
57
62
When tissue glue is used to close a wound involving the epidermis layer how is it reported?
As though it was a simple closure
As a 99211
It is not billable
As though it was a complex closure
A patient is diagnosed as having both acute and chronic tonsillitis. How is this reported in ICD-10-CM?
Only the acute tonsillitis is reported
Only the chronic tonsillitis is reported
The chronic tonsillitis is reported first; the acute tonsillitis is reported second
The acute tonsillitis is reported first; the chronic tonsillitis is reported second
