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State Test Review

Total questions: 241

Worksheet time: 5hrs 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Compared to the amount of chromosomes in a human body cell, how many chromosomes are contained in a sex cell?

a)

1/4 the amount

b)

1/2 the amount

c)

the same amount

d)

2 times the amount

2.

What process in humans results in the production of gametes?

a)

meiosis

b)

fertilization

c)

zygote

d)

mitosis

3.

Which type of cell division is responsible for the repair of your skin following a sunburn?

a)

neither mitosis or meiosis

b)

both mitosis and meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

meiosis

4.

How many chromosomes would you find in a human gamete cell?

a)

92

b)

46

c)

23

d)

12

5.

Which of the following is NOT associated with mitosis?

a)

Production of egg and sperm cells

b)

Repair of a cut

c)

Growth of a fetus in the womb

d)

Growth in the height of a child

6.

Binary fission in bacteria is similar to mitosis in eukaryotic cells because both:

a)

Produce two daughter cells genetically identical to the parent cell.

b)

Produce gametes.

c)

Produce cells with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.

d)

Are forms of sexual reproduction.

7.

Crossing over and independent assortment during meiosis increases:

a)

The number of gametes produced

b)

Genetic variation

c)

Cancerous growths

d)

The amount of evil cells

8.

Which of the following cells is produced through meiosis?

a)

Sperm cells

b)

Skin cells

c)

Bacteria cells

d)

Liver cells

9.

How do healthy cells differ from cancer cells?

a)

Cancer cells are bigger than ordinary cells.

b)

Cancer cells reproduce at much faster rates than healthy cells.

c)

Cancer cells contain viruses and bacteria that aren't present in healthy cells.

d)

Cancer cells divide - healthy cells do not.

10.

Which process produces two daughter cells identical to the parent cell?

a)

Mitosis only

b)

Both mitosis and meiosis

c)

Meiosis only

11.

Which process occurs in humans?

a)

Mitosis only

b)

Both mitosis and meiosis

c)

Meiosis only

12.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a carcinogen (factor that causes cancer)?

a)

Exposure to toxins

b)

Inhalation of cigarette smoke

c)

Excess UV light

d)

A healthy diet

13.

What are the TWO main purposes of mitosis?

a)

Growth (making more cells)

b)

Producing sex cells

c)

Repair of damaged cells

d)

Fighting off pathogens

14.

Mitosis maintains complex organisms by which of the following processes?

a)

The removal of waste from the body

b)

The exchange of gas with the environment

c)

The formation of sperm and egg

d)

The healing of a cut after an injury

15.

Which of the following statements best describe the location of sister chromatids in metaphase?

a)

they line up in the center of the cell

b)

they move to the opposite sides of the cell

c)

they are located in the cell

d)

they make a circular pattern in the center of the cell

16.

During which phase of the cycle does the cytoplasm of the cell divide?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

prophase

d)

anaphase

17.

What are the stages of mitosis in order?

a)

metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

18.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
19.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
20.

Plate Tectonics supports the idea that all continents were once fused together called _____________ .

a)

The rock cycle

b)

Supercontinent

c)

The crust

d)

Pangea

21.

The evidence is in ______________________, where coastlines and mountain ranges appear to fit together like a puzzle all over the world

a)

Continental drift

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

The Rock Cycle

d)

Divergent boundaries

22.
Which type of plate boundary would cause folded mountains to form? 
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
23.

Transform boundaries are most likely to produce what phenomenon?

a)

volcanoes

b)

deep sea trenches

c)

underwater mountain ranges

d)

faults

24.
When an oceanic plate and a continental plate collide, which one will subduct? 
a)
oceanic
b)
continental
c)
neither
d)
both
25.
A rift valley forms at a 
a)
convergent plate boundary
b)
divergent plate boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
deep ocean trench
26.
Name this plate boundary.
a)
divergent 
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
transformers
27.
Name this plate boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent 
c)
transform
d)
insurgent
28.
Name this plate boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
allegiant 
29.
The islands pictured mostly formed at what type of boundary?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
30.
What type of boundary is located between Nazca and Pacific Plate?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
31.
Where would the oldest rock be found?
a)
L
b)
M
c)
N
d)
O
32.
The transfer of heat by movements of a heated fluid
a)
Radiation
b)
Convection
c)
Conduction
d)
Infrared Radiation
33.

Which of the following is an accurate description of the movement of the tectonic plates in the diagram?

a)

Plate A is sliding past plate B.

b)

Plate A and plate B are diverging.

c)

Plate A and plate B are of equal density and are colliding.

d)

Plate A is denser than plate B, which results in subduction.

34.

Where is the densest material located in Earth?

a)

Inner Core

b)

Outer Core

c)

Mantle

d)

Crust

35.

Sea-floor spreading occurs near _______________ plate boundaries.

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

36.

Define porosity.

a)

The measure of a rock’s ability to hold water

b)

The starting material of soil, made of rock or sediment that weathers and forms soil

c)

The measure of the ability of water to flow through rock and sediment.

d)

Part of the environment that supplies material useful or necessary for the survival of living things

37.

Define permeability.

a)

The measure of a rock’s ability to hold water

b)

The starting material of soil, made of rock or sediment that weathers and forms soil

c)

The measure of the ability of water to flow through rock and sediment.

d)

Part of the environment that supplies material useful or necessary for the survival of living things

38.

Define natural resources.

a)

A resource that is used faster than it can be replaced by natural processes.

b)

A resource that can be replenished by natural processes at least as quickly as it is used.l

c)

The measure of the ability of water to flow through rock and sediment.

d)

Part of the environment that supplies material useful or necessary for the survival of living things

39.

Define non-renewable resources.

a)

A resource that is used faster than it can be replaced by natural processes.

b)

A resource that can be replenished by natural processes at least as quickly as it is used.l

c)

The measure of the ability of water to flow through rock and sediment.

d)

Part of the environment that supplies material useful or necessary for the survival of living things

40.

Define renewable resources.

a)

A resource that is used faster than it can be replaced by natural processes.

b)

A resource that can be replenished by natural processes at least as quickly as it is used.

c)

The measure of the ability of water to flow through rock and sediment.

d)

Part of the environment that supplies material useful or necessary for the survival of living things

41.

What are the 3 factors that form soil?

a)

type of parent rock that formed the soil

b)

human interaction with the area

c)

climate & topography of the region

d)

length of time the rock was weathered

42.

What happens to the water table during a drought?

a)

It rises.

b)

It stays the same.

c)

It falls.

d)

It bubbles up through the surface and floods the area.

43.

Which four are renewable energy resources.

a)

solar

b)

oil

c)

wind

d)

water

e)

geothermal

44.

Which 4 are non-renewable resource?

a)

solar

b)

coal

c)

oil

d)

natural gas

e)

uranium

45.

Where would you expect soil to form the fastest?

a)

At the top of a mountain.

b)

At the bottom of a slope.

c)

In a fast moving river.

d)

At the bottom of the ocean.

46.

How do humans impact groundwater resources?

a)

Groundwater is pulled from aquifers faster than it can be replaced.

b)

Groundwater isn't affected by humans.

c)

Groundwater can be easily replaced.

d)

Groundwater is not a natural resource.

47.

An aquifer (water that collects in cracks and pores in underground soil and rock layer) is also known as:

a)

Sea Water

b)

Ground Water

c)

An oil Well

d)

A funny word

48.

Why do some power plants use fossil fuels to make electricity?

a)

Fossil fuels are better for the environment

b)

Fossil fuels slow down global climate change

c)

Fossil fuels are less expensive than other power sources

d)

Fossil fuels are renewable

49.

Which of the following is an advantage of using hydroelectric power?

a)

It doesn't harm the environment.

b)

It doesn't pollute.

c)

It is nonrenewable.

d)

It only works during the daytime.

50.

Which will most likely occur if fossil fuels continue to be used globally as the primary energy resource?

a)

The amount of available food will increase.

b)

The amount of pollution in the oceans will decrease.

c)

The amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere will increase.

d)

The amount of health concerns affecting the human population will decrease.

51.

Some environmentally friendly options have negative consequences. Which is a correct example?

a)

Hybrid cars use less gasoline, but their batteries are difficult to recycle.

b)

Nuclear power plants use renewable fuel, but their waste is radioactive.

c)

Coal power plants use non renewable energy, but they don't make any air pollution.

52.
This type of renewable energy converts the power of the wind to electricity.
a)
steam engines
b)
solar power
c)
wind turbines
d)
nuclear power
53.
Hydroelectric plants perform which type of energy conversion?
a)
Water to Electricity
b)
Electricity to Water
c)
Wind to Electricity
d)
Wind to Chemical
54.

Uranium atoms are split to create a tremendous amount of energy in a _____ power plant.

a)

biomass

b)

geothermal

c)

nuclear

d)

hydroelectric

55.
Which of the following resources is collected by the panels on the roof of his home?
a)
air
b)
water
c)
wind
d)
sunlight
56.
Wind turbines spin faster when there is _____ wind.  As a result, we get _____ energy.
a)
more, less
b)
more, more
c)
less, more
d)
less, less
57.
What is one disadvantage of Wind Energy?
a)
They work under water
b)
They only work when it is Sunny outside
c)
They cause pollution
d)
Birds are killed
58.
Hydroelectric power plants can only be built where there is ______ ______.
a)
fresh water
b)
salt water
c)
still water
d)
moving water
59.

What are the benefits of nuclear energy?

a)

It is renewable

b)

It produces radioactive waste.

c)

It causes heat pollution to cooling ponds.

d)

Does not cause air pollution, global warming or acid rain.

60.

Most of the energy consumed in the United States is used for

a)

residential electrical needs

b)

commercial electrical needs

c)

transportation

d)

industrial purposes

61.

Which of the following is the fastest-growing source of energy in the world?

a)

solar heating

b)

photovoltaic cells

c)

fuel cells

d)

wind power

62.
Mechanical waves are created when a source of energy causes a medium to...
a)
Move
b)
Expand
c)
Vibrate
d)
Compress
63.
Waves that move the particles of the medium parallel to the direction in which the waves are traveling are called
a)
Surface Waves
b)
Combination Waves
c)
Longitudinal Waves
d)
Transverse Waves
64.
What occurs when vibrations traveling through an object match the object’s natural frequency?
a)
Refraction
b)
Reflection
c)
Diffraction
d)
Resonance
65.
The maximum distance that the particles of a medium move from the rest position is the
a)
Wavelength of the Wave
b)
Frequency of the Wave
c)
Amplitude of the Wave
d)
Speed of the Wave
66.
The distance between two corresponding parts of a wave is the wave’s
a)
Wavelength
b)
Frequency
c)
Amplitude
d)
Speed
67.
The interaction between two waves that meet is called
a)
refraction
b)
reflection
c)
diffreaction
d)
interference
68.
The speed of a wave is its wavelength multiplied by its
a)
Vibration
b)
Frequency
c)
Amplitude
d)
Reflection
69.
Why do you see lightning from a distant storm before you hear thunder?
a)
Your eyes react faster than your ears
b)
Light travels faster than sound
c)
The thunder is produced after the lightening
70.
Waves combine to produce a smaller or zero-amplitude wave in a process called
a)
Destructive Interference
b)
Reflection
c)
Refraction
d)
Constructive Interference
71.
Mechanical waves are classified according to
a)
how they move
b)
their source
c)
their shape 
d)
their size
72.
As the frequency of a wave traveling at constant speed increases, its ____________________ decreases.
a)
wavelength
b)
amplitude
c)
speed
d)
reflection
73.
           In a longitudinal wave moving along a spring, areas where the coils are farthest apart are called ____________________.
a)
interference
b)
Compression
c)
Rarefraction
d)
Diffraction
74.
The more ____________________ a mechanical wave has, the greater its amplitude.
a)
reflection
b)
energy
c)
speed
d)
frequency
75.
           In ____________________ interference, the energy of the combined wave is greater than the energy of each of the two waves.
a)
constructive
b)
destructive
c)
rarefraction
d)
combination
76.
Surface waves combine the properties of transverse and longitudinal waves so that the particles in the wave move with a(n) up-and-down motion.
a)
True
b)
False
(Circular)
77.
What happens when you increase the amplitude of a sound?
a)
it makes the sound louder
b)
it makes the sound travel faster
c)
it increases the wavelength of the sound
d)
it increases the frequency of the sound
78.

What kind of wave is pictured below?

a)

compressional wave

b)

transverse wave

c)

sound wave

d)

mechanical wave

79.
What can electromagnetic waves travel through?
a)
mediums
b)
empty space
c)
solely solids
d)
both mediums and empty space
80.
What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
81.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
82.
What do waves carry from place to place?
a)
Energy, but not matter or particles
b)
Energy and matter or particles
c)
Matter or particles but not energy
d)
Neither energy nor matter or particles
83.
Which wave is pictured?
a)
Transverse
b)
Longitudinal
c)
Both
d)
Neither
84.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
85.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
86.
Which of the following can sound travel through?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
all of the above
87.
The highest point on a wave is:
a)
the crest
b)
the trough
c)
the top
d)
the coast 
88.
The lowest point on a wave is the:
a)
Amplitude
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Wavelength
89.

To transmit means to

a)

go to lunch

b)

send

c)

go west

d)

call

90.

Which transverse wave has the highest frequency?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

91.

Which diagram shows the wavelength of a wave?

a)
b)
c)
92.

What is this called?

(a)  

93.
Wave with the longest wavelength
a)
microwave
b)
radio
c)
gamma
d)
visible light
94.
The EM wave with frequency higher than infrared and lower than UV.
a)
radio
b)
visible light
c)
xray
d)
gamma
95.

Which of these lists the EM waves from Highest to lowest frequency?

a)

Radio - Micro - Gamma - Visible light - UV - Xrays - Infrared - Xrays

b)

Radio - Micro - Infrared - Visible light - UV - X - Gamma waves

c)

Gamma - Xray - UV - Visible light - Infrared - Micro - radio

d)

none

96.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
97.
Which color has the least amount of energy?
a)
red
b)
orange
c)
green
d)
blue
98.
Cancer can be treated with_______________waves.
a)
Penicillin
b)
Radio
c)
Infrared
d)
Gamma
99.
This type of Electromagnetic wave shows a break in bones.
a)
gamma ray
b)
x-ray
c)
brokenometer
d)
radio wave
100.

Which type of electromagnetic radiation is used extensively in communications?

a)

radio waves

b)

gamma rays

c)

infrared rays

d)

X-rays

101.
How are EM waves different from Mechanical waves?
a)
EM waves need a medium
b)
Mechanical waves need a medium
c)
EM waves can travel through empty space only
d)
Mechanical waves transfer matter
102.

A EM wave is an example of a

a)

transverse wave

b)

longitudinal wave

c)

both

d)

none

103.
Frequency is a measure of...
a)
length of the wave
b)
height of the wave
c)
number of waves a second
d)
number of waves an hour
104.
7 is 
a)
Radio
b)
UV
c)
Infrared
d)
Gamma
105.
All EM waves travel at  
a)
different speeds
b)
the speed of sound
c)
the speed of light
d)
the speed of a vacuum
106.
You might see lights that give off Infrared radiation
a)
At AppleBee's warming your food
b)
In the super market  cooling the icecream
107.

The complete range of electromagnetic waves placed in order of increasing is called the ______________.

a)

radar spectrum

b)

mechanical spectrum

c)

electromagnetic spectrum

d)

gamma spectrum

108.

__________ have shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies than radio waves do.

a)

Microwaves

b)

Ocean waves

c)

P-waves

d)

S-waves

109.

Sun block protects against what electromagnetic wave?

a)

Radio Wave

b)

Infared

c)

Ultra Violet Rays

d)

Gamma Rays

110.

If the wave has a high frequency, what will the energy of the wave be?

a)

higher energy

b)

lower energy

111.

5. Ultraviolet radiation is used to detect fake money and sterilize medical equipment. Which of the following is the main source of UV radiation on Earth?

a)

comet

b)

moon

c)

ozone layer

d)

sun

112.

When light hits a translucent object and bends

a)

absorbtion

b)

refraction

c)

reflection

113.

When light bounces off of an object into a different direction

a)

absorbtion

b)

refraction

c)

reflection

114.

when light is stored inside of an object and turns into heat energy

a)

absorbtion

b)

refraction

c)

reflection

115.

How is white light able to separate through a prism?

a)

the light is being absorbed

b)

the light is being refracted

c)

the light is being reflected

116.

We are able to see a mirrored image of the mountains on the water through...

a)

refraction

b)

reflection

117.
a)

reflection

b)

refraction

118.
a)

reflection

b)

refraction

119.
a)

reflection

b)

refraction

120.

What color is being reflected?

a)

green

b)

blue and yellow

c)

red, orange, yellow, blue, indigo, violet

121.

What colors are being reflected?

a)

all of the colors in the color spectrum

b)

none of the colors in the color spectrum

122.

Which is true about white light?

a)

it reflects all color of light

b)

it absorbs all color of light

c)

it only reflects red, blue, and yellow light

123.
_______ waves need matter to travel but ________ waves do not.
a)
Sound; light
b)
Light; sound
c)
Sound; electrical
d)
Electrical; light
124.
Which wave has the greatest amplitude?
a)
The blue wave
b)
The red wave
125.
Which picture best shows the law of reflection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
126.

What word means the bending of a wave as it passes around a barrier?

a)

Diffraction

b)

Interference

c)

Resonance

d)

Trough

127.

Two students are modeling waves using a length of rope between them, as shown below.

Based on the information above, what will most likely occur when the two waves interact?

a)
b)
c)
d)
128.

Which wave represents past technology?

a)

Analog

b)

CD Audio

c)

DVD Audio

129.

How are analog signals sent?

a)

continuous wave

b)

wave pulse

130.

How are digital waves sent?

a)

continuous wave

b)

wave pulses(1,0)

131.

What is one pro of analog signals?

a)

preserves the original wave sound

b)

distorts sound

c)

components wear down

d)

distorts over long distance

132.

What are the cons of analog signals?

a)

preserves the original wave sound

b)

distorts sound

c)

components wear down

d)

distorts over long distance

133.

What are the pros of digitized signals?

a)

More information

b)

Easier to transfer information

c)

Transmits information faster

d)

Lasts longer without wearing down

134.

What are the cons of digitized signal?

a)

can break

b)

becomes out dated

c)

distorts

135.

Hollow, light weight bones is an adaptation that...

a)

is an internal structure that helps birds fly

b)

is an external structure that helps birds fly

c)

disables birds ability to fly

d)

helps birds walk

136.

Adaptation is

a)

the process that makes an organism look better

b)

the process in which weak organisms are killed off

c)

the process in which an organism becomes better adapted to its environment

d)

the process in which oxygen is transformed into glucose

137.

Breeding means

a)

Asexual reproduction that results in offspring

b)

Sexual reproduction that results in offspring

c)

Copying of genetic material in the nucleus

d)

To produce offspring with unfavorable traits

138.

The squirrel in the picture is using an adaptation called

a)

camouflage

b)

hibernation

c)

migration

d)

retention

139.

An example of stuctural/physical adaptation is...

a)

blood type

b)

bioluminescence

c)

camouflage

d)

migration

140.

In selective breeding humans select the most desirable traits

a)

True

b)

False

141.
In recent years "SuperBugs" (bacteria that aren't effected by antibiotics) are becoming more and more common. How could natural selection explain this?
a)
Superbugs survive antibiotics and reproduce
b)
Antibiotics cause bacteria to become superbugs
c)
We have always had the same amount of superbugs; modern media just discusses them more.
d)
There is no reliable data on the origin of super bugs.
142.
Why do peppered moths tend to be the same color as the trees on which they live?
a)
The coloring goes along with tasting like the tree. 
b)
It keeps the moth the same temperature as the tree. 
c)
It makes the moths faster than the birds
d)
It makes the moths harder to see.
143.
Which of these is an example of natural selection?
a)
The largest animal in a population will have more opportunities for reproduction.
b)
Several species of organisms work together so that they all succeed.
c)
One species takes all the resources in an environment leaving none for others.
d)
Organism that are best suited to an environment tend to survive and reproduce more often.
144.
Which of the following explains adaptation.
a)
An individual organism changes to meet its needs in the environment. These changes pass down to their offspring.
b)
The species as a whole changes their characteristics.
c)
Beneficial traits allow organism to survive and pass on those traits
d)
New characteristics arise in a species as needed.  If these traits are helpful, they are passed down.
145.
A large herd of goats lives in a field full of poison ivy.  Some goats are able to eat the poison ivy while others have become sick when they eat it. Over time the herd as a whole will tend to
a)
Become more likely to eat poison ivy.
b)
Become less likely to eat poison ivy.
c)
Not change in the proportion of goats that can and can not eat poison ivy.
d)
Eat all the poison ivy and leave only plants all the goats can eat.
146.
Darwin studied which of these species on Galapagos?
a)
Pigeons and tortoises
b)
Tortoises and finches
c)
Finches and Pigeons
d)
Zebras and Mockingbirds
147.
Which of these would best form a fossil?
a)
Muscle
b)
Bone
c)
Skin 
d)
Leaves
148.
A group of orangutan have become very similar after a series of drastic changes in their environment.  This similarity is likely the result of
a)
selective breeding
b)
random mutaion
c)
inbreeding
d)
natural selection
149.
Define homologous structures.
a)
Structures that appear the same, but have different ancestral origins.
b)
Structures that appear the different, but have the same ancestral origins.
c)
Any two body parts from the same organism
d)
Parts that no longer appear to have a function
150.
Define analogous structures.
a)
Structures that appear the same, but have different ancestral origins.
b)
Structures that appear the different, but have the same ancestral origins.
c)
Any two body parts from the same organism
d)
Parts that no longer appear to have a function
151.
Some people use similarities in embryos to support the the theory that 
a)
The organisms have the same ancestors 
b)
The organisms have similar numbers of offspring
c)
Cells naturally develop along similar line 
d)
There are no connections 
152.

Mutations can be...

a)

Harmful

b)

Beneficial

c)

Neutral

d)

All of the Above

153.

Mutations are...

a)

Changes in the sequence of DNA

b)

Broken chromosomes

c)

Bad genes

154.

Mutations can be a result of...

a)

Environmental Exposure

b)

Lack of sleep

c)

Not enough exercise

155.

Punnet Squares can be used to...

a)

Predict the outcome of a trait in offspring

b)

Predict the time a baby will be born

c)

do nothing

156.

What types of living organisms have no genetic material at all?

a)

Insects

b)

Bacteria

c)

Plants

d)

All living organisms have genetic material

157.

How are cancerous cells different from normal cells?

a)

Cancerous cells are shaped differently than normal cells

b)

Cancerous cells divide more frequently than normal cells

c)

Cancerous cells contain chemicals not found in normal cells

d)

Cancerous cells need more oxygen than normal cells

158.

Which of the following is an example of a beneficial mutation?

a)

When an organism's lifespan becomes shorter.

b)

When an organism becomes unable to reproduce.

c)

When an organism's body becomes deformed.

d)

When an organism develops immunity to a disease.

159.

Mutations can benefit humans because they can:

a)

Cause illness

b)

Make an organism more suited to live in its environment.

c)

Make organisms live shorter lives

d)

Cause organisms to grow extra limbs.

160.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

What is a gene

a)

a section of DNA that codes for a trait

b)

a pair of pants that are made of denim

c)

the whole entire chromosome found in the nucleus

162.

A substitution mutation occurs when

a)

a base pair is missing from the DNA strand

b)

a base pair is added to the DNA strand

c)

a base pair is replaced with a different base pair

163.

An insertion/additon mutation occurs when

a)

a base pair is missing from the DNA strand

b)

a base pair is added to the DNA strand

c)

a base pair is replaced with a different base pair

164.

A deletion mutation occurs when

a)

a base pair is missing from the DNA strand

b)

a base pair is added to the DNA strand

c)

a base pair is replaced with a different base pair

165.

A (a)   is a coiled-up, condensed, or tightly wound piece of DNA

166.

The base pair adenine always pairs with which other base pair?

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

167.

The base pair thymine always pairs with which other base pair?

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

168.

The base pair cytosine always pairs with which other base pair?

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

169.

The base pair guanine always pairs with which other base pair?

a)

thymine

b)

adenine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

170.
Change over time...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
171.
Charles Darwin came up with this theory 
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Mutation
172.
To adjust to a changing environment
a)
Mutation
b)
Adapt
173.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers 
b)
Genotypes 
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
174.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
175.
The environment around Manchester, England, changed during the Industrial Revolution.  How did this change affect peppered moths living in the area?
a)
Natural selection favored moths with dark wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
b)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings that were easy for predators to see.
c)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
d)
Natural selection caused moths with white wings to become extinct.
176.
When an organism completely dies out, it is called.....
a)
Adaption
b)
Extinction
c)
Fossilization
d)
Mutation
177.

Brown mice survive and reproduce in their desert environment better than white mice because owls can see and eat the white mice more easily. In this situation, what part of the environment is doing the selecting?

a)

predator

b)

soil composition

c)

mouse fur color

d)

sexual preferences

178.

Over generations of time apart on different islands with different food sources, the separated populations of Galapagos finches accumulated genetic differences until each group had different beaks. This is an example of _____.

a)

natural selection

b)

genetic drift

c)

adaptation

d)

speciation

179.

What is speciation?

a)

combining of two species to form one with different traits

b)

Intentional breeding designed to maintain a desired trait

c)

timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection

d)

A population splits and accumulates different genes in the new groups

180.

Evolution, gravity, and plate tectonics are all examples of scientific...

a)

hypotheses

b)

theories

c)

laws

181.

The pelvic bone of whales is not needed for movement within the water. This is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

182.

The forelimbs of mammals have similar anatomy because these groups descended from a recent common ancestor. Their bone structure is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

183.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

184.

What type of speciation would involve mating during different seasons?

a)

geographic isolation

b)

reproductive isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

gametic isolation

185.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
rr
b)
AA
c)
TT
d)
Ff
186.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Jj
b)
Rr
c)
MM
d)
ee
187.

The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

intelligence

188.

Gretford is heterozygous. If (R) for Round head, and (r) is for Egg head, what is Gretford's genotype?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

rR

189.
What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
190.

In plants, tall (T) is dominant to short (t).


Draw a punnett square and perform the following cross: Tt x Tt


What is the probability of producing a short plant?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

191.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
192.

A homozygous brown mouse is crossed with a heterozygous brown mouse (tan is the recessive color).


Perform a punnett square cross and determine the phenotype & %.

a)

100 % tan

b)

100 % brown

c)

50 % brown and 50% tan

d)

75 % brown and 25 % tan

193.

What genotype would go in box 2? And is it Homozygous or Heterozygous?

a)

BB Heterozygous

b)

Bb Heterozygous

c)

bb Homozygous

d)

Bb Homozygous

194.

What are the possible genotypes for this cross? And what percentage of each is produced?

a)

TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%

b)

all tall

c)

TT= 75% tt = 25%

d)

Tt = 100%

195.

A heterozygous tall pea plant (T) is crossed with a short pea plant (t).


Perform a punnett square cross and determine the Genotype & %.

a)

100% Tt

b)

50% Tt, 50% tt

c)

75%Tt, 25%tt

d)

25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt

196.
Who is considered the "father of genetics"?
a)
Gregor Mendel
b)
Reginald Punnett
c)
James Watson
d)
Justin Bieber
197.

What plant did the scientist who discovered genetics use?

a)

Pea plants

b)

Soybean plants

c)

Pledge plant

d)

Kirkpatrick plant

198.
Purple flowers describes
a)
genotype
b)
phenotype
199.

How many chromosomes do humans have?

a)

12

b)

25

c)

46

d)

102

200.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
201.

This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of two traits. This is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance.

b)

codominance

202.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

203.

A woman with curly hair and a man with straight hair produced a child with wavy hair:

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

204.

What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

205.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

206.

This is an example of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

207.

What does this Punnett square and the probabilities of the ofspring represent?

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

208.

Some flowers are controlled by codominance. Red flowers (FRFR), blue flowers (FBFB) and Speckled flowers (FRFB).


Cross a red flower with a speckled flower. What is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

50% red, 50% speckled

b)

25% red, 25% blue

c)

100% blue

209.
this image is an example of
a)
codominance
b)
dominance
c)
incomplete dominance
210.

In cattle red coats are represented as RR, and white coats are represented as WW.


What is the genotype for Roan color?

a)

RR

b)

RW

c)

WW

211.
How many alleles does an individual have for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
212.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
213.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
214.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
215.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
216.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
217.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
218.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
219.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
220.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
221.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
222.
How many females are in this pedigree?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
7
223.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
224.

How many daughters did the mother and father from the first generation have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

225.

How many people in this whole pedigree are heterozygous?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

e)

5

226.

How many males are carriers?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

227.

How many females show the trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

228.

How many males are color-blind in this family?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

229.

How many females are carriers in this family?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

230.

How many daughters are in the second generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

231.

How many males in this pedigree chart show the trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

232.

How many generations are shown in this pedigree chart?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

233.

How many people in this whole pedigree are heterozygous?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

e)

5

234.

How many males are carriers?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

235.

How many males are color-blind in this family?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

236.

A horizontal line in a pedigree chart between two parents represents

a)

mating (reproduction)

b)

best friends

c)

frenemies

d)

offspring

237.

A vertical line in a pedigree chart represents

a)

parents

b)

offspring

c)

pets

d)

mascots

238.

Which of the following explains why color blindness is more common in males? Tick two.

a)

The mutant allele for color blindness is carried by the X chromosome.

b)

The mutant allele for color blindness is carried by the Y chromosome.

c)

Male has only one X chromosome, so either allele is expressed.

d)

Female has two X chromosomes, so either allele is expressed.

239.
An individual's sex is determined by 
a)
1 of 23 chromosomes
b)
2 of 46 chromosomes
c)
4 of 92 chromosomes
240.
Males are more likely to suffer from a sex-linked disease or disorder because
a)
males are the weaker sex
b)
males have less DNA
c)
males have 1 X chromosome, so the disorder is more likely to be expressed
241.
When we say that a woman is a carrier for a genetic disease or disorder it means that
a)
she has 1 gene, but not the disorder
b)
she has 2 genes for the disorder
c)
she can pass the gene only to male children
d)
she can pass the gene only to female children

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8th Grade