Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsChapter 9-12
Total questions: 71
Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is true about 64-bit support in Windows?
a)
32-bit support was removed beginning with Windows 8.1,
b)
64-bit support was first introduced in Windows 7.
c)
All workstation product lines from Windows Vista through Windows 10 come in both 32-bit and 64- bit editions.
d)
Home editions are 32-bit while professional editions are 64-bit.
2.
At most, how much memory can the 32-bit versions of Windows address?
a)
2 GB
b)
4 GB
c)
16 GB
d)
32 GB
3.
With which Windows product line did Microsoft cut back the number of audience-targeted versions from five to three?
a)
Windows 7
b)
Windows 8
c)
Windows 8.1
d)
Windows 10
4.
The Windows user interface feature "Aero" was included in which Windows product lines?
a)
Windows Vista
b)
Windows 7
c)
Windows 8
d)
Windows 10
5.
Which Windows features were not included in Windows 7?
a)
Action Center
b)
Cortana
c)
Event Viewer
d)
Real-time antivirus scanning in Windows Defender
e)
System Restore
6.
The Windows Store was introduced with which product line?
a)
Windows Vista
b)
Windows 7
c)
Windows 8
d)
Windows 8.1
7.
What features were available in the initial version of Windows 7, but not in the latest version of Windows 10?
a)
Backup and Restore
b)
Computer Management
c)
Desktop Gadgets
d)
Homegroups
e)
Shadow Copies
8.
In which Macintosh OS X version was the Siri digital assistant introduced?
a)
10.7 Lion
b)
10.11 El Capitan
c)
10.12 Sierra
d)
10.14 Mojave
9.
Which Mac OS feature stores and manages passwords for applications, web sites, and network shares?
a)
Finder
b)
iCloud
c)
Keychain
d)
Mission Control
10.
Which of the following is true about Linux?
a)
It can be distributed both commercially and non-commercially
b)
It is only distributed non-commercially
c)
It is used only for desktops and servers
d)
It is used on mobile and embedded devices as well as desktops and servers
e)
It usually only has a command line interface
11.
Linux is an operating system that runs on only desktop and laptop computers.
a)
true
b)
false
12.
Which Linux command would you use to show the directory you're currently in (the working directory)?
a)
cd
b)
ls
c)
mw
d)
pwd
13.
What advantages does an embedded operating system have over a workstation operating system?
a)
Better for connecting to remote computers
b)
Broader compatibility with user-installed applications
c)
Can run on less powerful hardware
d)
Easier to support
e)
More built-in services
14.
You have a computer with Windows 7 on it. You need to upgrade it to Windows 8.1 and deploy it to a new employee. Which is the best upgrade type for this situation?
a)
Clean installation
b)
In-place upgrade
c)
Either, depending on user account type
d)
Either, depending on whether you're booting locally or from the network
15.
There is no way to upgrade from Windows 7 to Windows 8.1 and preserve the existing user files, such as documents and photos, and most (if not all) of the current system settings, including applications, networking settings, hard disk configuration, and device settings.
a)
true
b)
false
16.
Which of the following boot methods can be used to install Mac OS from a network location?
a)
Netboot
b)
Netexe
c)
PXE
d)
USB device
17.
Which installation type can be used for identical operating system installations to multiple computers?
a)
Clean
b)
Image deployment
c)
Multiboot
d)
Remote network
e)
Unattended
18.
Master Boot Record Partitions can't support hard disks that are larger than what size?
a)
2 MB
b)
2 GB
c)
2 TB
d)
2 PB
19.
How many primary partitions are supported by MBR?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
unlimited
20.
Which file system is used on Linux?
a)
ext4
b)
exFAT
c)
FAT32
d)
NTFS
e)
UDF
21.
You want to install an application on a computer that has no internet connection, but the software is only available as an internet download. You hope you can download it to a USB flash drive from another computer, then put it on the target system. What kind of installer would this NOT work for?
a)
Online installer
b)
Portable app
c)
Source code
d)
Standalone installer
22.
What type of software can you modify and redistribute freely?
a)
Commercial license software
b)
Open source software
c)
Any software
d)
No software
23.
Which of the following governs software ownership rights and what the purchaser (the end user) may do with what he or she has purchased?
a)
DRM
b)
EULA
24.
You're not really familiar with this scripting language, but one variable was defined as a "string" data type. What does that mean?
a)
It can be any whole number
b)
It can be any fractional number
c)
It can be any combination of alphanumeric characters
d)
It is an ordered set of values, rather than one single value.
e)
It is defined by the operating system or scripting language, rather than by the script itself.
25.
You see a # character in a .sh script. What can you guess about the text immediately following it?
a)
It defines a variable
b)
It is a comment
c)
It is a conditional statement
d)
It is part of a loop
26.
Which Windows utility do you use to access system tools such as Event Viewer and Device Manager?
a)
Component Services
b)
Disk Management
c)
Microsoft Management Console
d)
Windows Services
27.
Which administrative tool can you use to check your computer's health or troubleshoot problems with the operating system or software?
a)
Component Services
b)
Disk Management
c)
Event Viewer
d)
Performance Monitor
28.
Which system utility can you use to troubleshoot a computer that's slow to start by enabling or disabling startup programs?
a)
Disk Management
b)
DXDIAG
c)
MSCONFIG
d)
SERVICES MSC
29.
If you have an application that is not responding and you want to force it to shut down, which system utility can you use?
a)
Disk Management
b)
MSCONFIG
c)
Services
d)
Task Manager
30.
What RAID types can you implement in software using Windows tools?
a)
RAID 0
b)
RAID 1
c)
RAID 5
d)
RAID 6
e)
RAID 10
31.
You want to use Windows Update to update other Microsoft applications such as Office. Which of the following is true?
a)
No, you must use Office Update instead
b)
Yes, provided you enable it in Windows Update options
c)
Yes, provided you have Windows 8.1 or later
d)
Yes, provided you have Windows 8.1 or earlier
32.
Which switch is used with the FORMAT command to create the label DATA to show up in Windows Explorer?
a)
/FS
b)
/N
c)
/Q
d)
/V
33.
Which Control Panel utility would you use to troubleshoot a printer issue?
a)
Device Manager
b)
Devices and Printers
c)
Printers
d)
Programs and Features
34.
You would like to set your user's Internet Explorer home page to your company's local intranet. Which Control Panel utility would you use to accomplish this?
a)
Device Manager
b)
Folder Options
c)
Internet Options
d)
Network and Sharing Center
e)
Programs and Features
35.
Which utility is no longer in the Control Panel in Windows 10?
a)
Devices and Printers
b)
Display
c)
Power options
d)
System
36.
When configuring laptop power options, what happens when you close the lid is the same as what happens when you press the power button.
a)
true
b)
false
37.
Which Windows Firewall option is useful when you're troubleshooting network connectivity to determine if a change you made is affecting connectivity?
a)
Allow a program or feature through Windows Firewall
b)
Change notification settings
c)
Restore defaults
d)
Turn Windows Firewall on or off
38.
Which tasks can you easily access from the System utility?
a)
Allow or deny remote access
b)
Change the computer name
c)
Create user accounts
d)
Uninstall applications
e)
View installed hardware
39.
If you want to copy a subfolder and its contents from one location to another, which file management command would you use?
a)
COPY
b)
MD
c)
MOVE
d)
XCOPY
40.
To get help with a particular command's syntax and parameters/options, simply type the command /?.
a)
true
b)
false
41.
Which disk management command would you use to check your hard disk for corrupt files and repair them?
a)
bootrec
b)
diskpart
c)
chkdsk
d)
sfc
42.
Which command can you use to repair your Windows installation?
a)
bootrec
b)
chkdsk
c)
gpupdate
d)
sfc
43.
What command will change a Linux Terminal session to administrator privileges?
a)
admin
b)
cls
c)
su
d)
sudo
44.
When troubleshooting failure to boot and "missing operating system" error messages, which steps would you take?
a)
Verify in the BIOS/UEFI that the computer is booting to hard disk or device with a system partition.
b)
Boot to safe mode, if possible. Use Event Viewer to attempt to isolate the problem. Use Device Manager to investigate and repair problems with devices and drivers.
c)
Boot to the Windows Recovery Environment and use REGEDIT or REGEDT32 to restore the Registry from backup. If you can't use Win RE, use the command prompt.
d)
Use MSCONFIG to choose different types of startups to help isolate which files or services might be causing startup problems.
45.
Which system utility would you use to repair the computer if it continues to improperly shutdown after a reboot?
a)
Device Manager
b)
REGEDIT
c)
REGSRV32
d)
System File Checker
46.
Which can cause a kernel panic error to occur on a Macintosh computer?
a)
Application error
b)
Hardware or software failure
c)
Insufficient memory
d)
Slow processor
47.
GRUB is the boot loader in newer Linux systems.
a)
true
b)
false
48.
What scope of network is most often controlled by a single user?
a)
LAN
b)
MAN
c)
PAN
d)
WAN
49.
Most small LANs today incorporate both peer-to-peer and client-server elements.
a)
true
b)
false
50.
What TCP/IP layer does an Ethernet card operate on?
a)
Application
b)
Internet
c)
Network Interface
d)
Transport
51.
Your LAN has a high collision rate. What devices could segment the network and reduce collisions?
a)
Hub
b)
Repeater
c)
Router
d)
Switch
52.
Which of the following are true about bridges?
a)
Bridges cannot join two different link layer protocols.
b)
Bridges reduce network collisions.
c)
Bridges separate IP subnets
d)
Switches are bridges with more than two ports.
e)
Wireless access points are bridges between Wi-Fi and Ethernet networks.
53.
A "cable modem" is a modem in the sense that it connects to the Internet, but isn't a modem in the technical sense.
a)
true
b)
false
54.
You had two VLANs configured on a 24-port switch, but you've just changed it to three. Ports 1-10 are on VLAN #1, Ports 11-16 on #2, and ports 17-24 on #3. What kind of assignment are you using?
a)
Dynamic
b)
Static
c)
Trunked
d)
Variable
55.
In network terms, all wireless access points are also routers.
a)
true
b)
false
56.
Which of the following statements are true?
a)
By definition, you are responsible for all devices on your side of the demarc.
b)
By definition, your ISP is responsible for all devices outside of the demarc.
c)
Sometimes devices on your side of the demarc might still be your ISP's responsibility.
d)
"The local loop" refers to the customer side of the demarc.
e)
"The local loop" refers to the ISP side of the demarc.
57.
What Internet connection technology uses the same wires as your analog phone line, but a separate communications channel?
a)
Cable
b)
Dialup
c)
DSL
d)
ISDN
58.
How many data channels are there in a BRI ISDN connection?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
23
d)
30
59.
What cables use balanced-pair signaling?
a)
Coaxial
b)
Twisted-pair
c)
Both
d)
Neither
60.
What would be reasonable termination methods for a patch cable between a PC and a switch?
a)
Crossover
b)
RJ-11
c)
RJ-25
d)
T568A
e)
T568B
61.
Why is it necessary that each pair of electrical signals on a twisted-pair cable corresponds to one physical wire pair?
a)
Because each pair has a slightly different length.
b)
Because otherwise it would be difficult to terminate the cable.
c)
Because otherwise it won't reduce crosstalk.
d)
Because the shielding won't be grounded properly otherwise.
62.
You know there's a fault somewhere on that 100m cable, but it looks fine from the outside. What tool would be the quickest way to guess how exactly where the flaw is?
a)
Loopback plug
b)
Multimeter
c)
Time-domain reflectometer
d)
Toner Probe
63.
A coworker tells you a connection is unreliable and intermittent. Before even looking at it, what causes can you rule out?
a)
Attenuation due to cable length
b)
Crossover cable used by mistake
c)
Crosstalk between wire pairs
d)
External interference
e)
Set to half-duplex
64.
You're supposed to buy some Cat 6 cable to install new network drops, but the site you're buying from lists cables by ISO standards. Which kind should you buy?
a)
Class C
b)
Class D
c)
Class E
d)
Class F
65.
In general, what does the RG number of a coaxial cable correspond to?
a)
Its frequency
b)
Its impedance
c)
Its maximum length
d)
None of the above
66.
In general, cable television uses a threaded F connector, while cable Internet uses a BNC connector.
a)
true
b)
false
67.
What cable standard is acceptable for an older cable television link, but shouldn't be used on a cable modem?
a)
RG-6
b)
RG-8
c)
RG-11
d)
RG-59
68.
You're at a meeting discussing whether to deploy single-mode or multimode fiber in a new installation. Which of the following arguments should you make?
a)
Multimode transceivers are less expensive.
b)
Multimode fibers can carry multiple signals.
c)
Multimode works over longer distances.
d)
Single-mode transceivers are less expensive.
e)
Single-mode works over longer distances.
69.
What connector type is square-bodied with a single fiber?
a)
FC
b)
MT-RJ
c)
SC
d)
ST
70.
You can use a coupler to join two optical inputs to one output, but only if they're the same wavelength.
a)
true
b)
false
71.
While the optical cables in the closet are outwardly identical, some have green connectors, and some have blue. Which is likely true?
a)
Blue is angled and green is straight
b)
Blue is MMF and green is SMF
c)
Blue is SMF and green is MMF
d)
Blue is straight and green is angled
Reset
