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Sem 2 Earth Science Final Exam SG

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In what type of rock do we find fossils?

a)

sedimentary

b)

metamorphic

c)

igneous

d)

volcanic

2.

What can we say about the geological processes that shape the Earth's features today?

a)

they are much different today than in the past

b)

they are basically the same as they were in the past

c)

they did not operate in the past

d)

they became important several thousand years ago

3.

The dating process that puts geologic events in a proper sequence is known as

a)

temporary dating

b)

radiometric dating

c)

relative dating

d)

temporary dating

4.

A sedimentary layer of sandstone contains inclusions of granite. Which rock is older, the sandstone or the granite

a)

the sandstone

b)

the granite

c)

both are the same age

d)

it's impossible to know

5.

What is the oldest rock layer in this formation?

a)

rock layer A

b)

intrusion K

c)

rock layer J

d)

cross cut L

6.

What is the youngest feature in this formation?

a)

rock layer A

b)

intrusion K

c)

rock layer J

d)

cross cut L

7.

Dinosaur footprints are what type of fossil?

a)

unaltered remains

b)

mold

c)

carbonized remains

d)

trace fossil

8.

What is the best environment for fossils to form?

a)

slow burial and soft parts

b)

rapid burial and hard parts

c)

rapid burial and soft parts

d)

slow burial and hard parts

9.

The process by which atomic nuclei spontaneously decay is called

a)

relative dating

b)

radio active decay

c)

erosion

d)

deposition

10.

A rock sample is brought to the lab and it is determined that 1/16th of the original parent isotope remains in the rock. Using the chart above, determine the age of the sample if the half-life is 1 million years.

a)

1 million years old

b)

2 million years old

c)

3 million years old

d)

4 million years old

11.

The Earth is how old?

a)

2 billion years old

b)

4.56 billion years old

c)

13.4 billion years old

d)

4.56 million years old

12.

The majority of the Earth's history is in what geologic time period?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Precambrian

13.

One of the most common Precambrian fossils are layered mounds of calcium carbonate called ....

a)

prokaryotes

b)

stromatolites

c)

trilobites

d)

chert

14.

Which gas was not part of Earth's original atmosphere?

a)

water vapor

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

15.

When did fossil evidence become abundant in the geologic record, also known as the Cambrian Explosion?

a)

5 billion years ago

b)

540 million years ago

c)

65 million years ago

d)

300 million years ago

16.

In the early Paleozoic period of time, life was restricted to the

a)

seas

b)

air

c)

continents

d)

islands

17.

The Mesozoic Era is also known as the Age of .....

a)

Fishes

b)

Mammals

c)

Reptiles

d)

Bacteria

18.

What is the current geologic period of time?

a)

Mesozoic

b)

Tertiary

c)

Quaternary

d)

Silurian

19.

What is the relationship between fossil fuels and the greenhouse effect?

a)

burning fossil fuels decreases the absorption capacity of greenhouse gases

b)

burning fossil fuels lowers the greenhouse effect

c)

burning fossil fuels releases CO2 into the atmosphere, increasing the greenhouse effect

d)

burning fossil fuels decreases incoming solar radiation

20.

During the 20th century, Earth's average surface temperature

a)

increased

b)

fluctuated wildly

c)

stayed the same

d)

decreased

21.

Which of the following events would likely lead to a decrease in average global temperatures?

a)

volcanic activity

b)

increase in sunspots

c)

increase in carbon dioxide concentration

d)

all of these

22.

What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

argon

d)

carbon dioxide

23.

What layer of the atmosphere contains the Ozone Layer?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

24.

What can be said about the solstices?

a)

Days and nights are equal in length everywhere on Earth

b)

The sun's vertical rays are directly striking the equator

c)

The solstice occurs in March and September

d)

The sun's vertical rays are striking either the Tropic of Cancer or Tropic of Capricorn

25.

Using the diagram, which electromagnetic waves have the shortest wavelengths?

a)

radio

b)

gamma rays

c)

microwave

d)

visible

26.

The heating of the lower layer of the atmosphere from radiation absorbed by certain heat absorbing gases is called..

a)

the adiabatic effect

b)

the greenhouse effect

c)

the photosynthesis effect

d)

the smog effect

27.

Earth receives energy from the sun through what method of heat transfer?

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

none of these

28.

What has the greatest impact on temperatures on Earth?

a)

altitude

b)

cloud cover

c)

latitude

d)

proximity to water

29.

Based on the picture, what is true about New York City?

a)

It is farther south than Eureka

b)

It is located on the windward coast

c)

It is located on a leeward coast

d)

It has cool summers and mild winters

30.

Which of the following best describes the general air temperature on a cloudy night?

a)

the same as on a clear night

b)

lower than on a clear night

c)

less predictiable than on a clear night

d)

higher than on a clear night

31.

Which is the most important gas in the atmosphere when it comes to understanding atmospheric processes?

a)

water vapor

b)

ozone

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

32.

The ratio of air's water vapor content to its holding capacity is called

a)

vapor pressure

b)

relative humidity

c)

wet adiabatic rate

d)

specific humidity

33.

What is the dew point temperature?

a)

the temp of the air at its lowest relative humidity

b)

the point on the ground where dew most often forms

c)

the temp decrease due to adiabatic expansion

d)

the temp to which air would have to be cooled to reach saturation

34.

When temperatures are higher in cities due to building materials, people and their activities, it is known as a(n)

a)

temperature inversion

b)

urban heat island

c)

urban breeze

d)

rural breeze

35.

Tall clouds of vertical development are associated with

a)

thunderstorms

b)

light rain

c)

clear skies

d)

low relative humidity

36.

Tiny water droplets join together in a cloud until they become large enough to form precipitation. This process that occurs in warm clouds is called.....

a)

Bergeron process

b)

Collision-coelescence process

37.

Warm air that is saturated with water vapor

a)

contains less water vapor than cold air

b)

contains the same amount of water vapor as cold air

c)

does not contain any water vapor

d)

contains more water vapor than cold air

38.

The force exerted by the weight of the air is called

a)

convergence

b)

divergence

c)

air pressure

d)

the Coriolis effect

39.

The ULTIMATE energy source for most wind is.......

a)

Earth's rotation

b)

tides

c)

The sun's solar radiation

d)

Earth's revolution

40.

In this picture, the lines on the weather map that connect points of equal pressure are called

a)

isobars

b)

isogrids

c)

contour lines

d)

isotherms

41.

In this picture, the farther apart the lines are .....

a)

the lighter the winds

b)

the stronger the winds

c)

the colder the winds

d)

the warmer the winds

42.

High pressure systems are usually associated with which of the following

a)

clear weather

b)

descending air

c)

relatively dry conditions

d)

all of these are correct

43.

Which surface winds blow between the subtropical high and the equator?

a)

trade winds or easterlies

b)

polar easterlies

c)

westerlies

d)

sea breezes

44.

The deserts of the world are associated with the

a)

polar high

b)

subpolar low

c)

subtropical high

d)

equatorial low

45.

Winds in a high pressure system blow

a)

counterclockwise, up and in

b)

counterclockwise, down and out

c)

clockwise, down and out

d)

clockwise, up and in

46.

Winds are names according to

a)

their source region

b)

the surface over which they formed

c)

for the direction they are coming from

d)

their base temperature

47.

An immense body of air characterized by similar properties at any given altitude is known as a(n)

a)

cyclone

b)

air mass

c)

anticyclone

d)

front

48.

Which two properties characterize an air mass?

a)

temperature and location

b)

moisture level and pressure

c)

temperature and moisture level

d)

temperature and pressure

49.

On a weather map, which type of front is shown like the one pictured here?

a)

cold

b)

stationary

c)

warm

d)

occulded

50.

Cumulonimbus clouds are associated with which type of front?

a)

stationary

b)

cold

c)

warm

d)

occulded

51.

Spiraling air which is forced into a vertical position by the updraft of a thunderstorm is called a(n)

a)

mesocyclone

b)

cyclone

c)

typhoon

d)

anticyclone

52.

When do tornadoes happen the most frequently?

a)

July to August

b)

January to March

c)

October to December

d)

April to June

53.

What causes a hurricane to lose energy when it moves onto land?

a)

lack of warm, moist air

b)

friction

c)

heating from below by land

d)

both friction and lack of warm, moist air

54.

In a hurricane, the fastest winds are found

a)

in the eye wall

b)

in the eye

c)

in the outer bands

d)

in the lower quadrant of the storm

55.

The apparent westward movement of a planet against the background of stars is called

a)

universal gravitation

b)

rotation

c)

revolution

d)

retrograde motion

56.

The geocentric model of the universe stated that

a)

Earth revolved around the celestial sphere

b)

the sun was the center of the universe

c)

Earth was a "wanderer"

d)

Earth was the center of the universe

57.

Which scientist was the first to use the telescope to observe the moon, identify the four largest moons of Jupiter and determined that the sun was rotation based on the movement of sunspots?

a)

Newton

b)

Galileo

c)

Copernicus

d)

Kepler

58.

According to the Laws of Planetary Motion, what is the shape of a planet's orbit?

a)

circular

b)

irregular

c)

parbolic

d)

elliptical

59.

What must happen for a solar eclipse to occur?

a)

the moon must pass behind Earth

b)

the moon's orbit must cross through the Earth's shadow or umbra

c)

the moon's orbit must cross in between the sun and the Earth

d)

the moon must be full

60.

What phase of the moon is it when the moon is between the sun and the Earth?

a)

full moon

b)

1st quarter moon

c)

new moon

d)

3rd quarter moon

61.

Why do we only see one side of the moon?

a)

the period of rotation is greater than the period of revolution

b)

the period of rotation is less than the period of revolution

c)

the period of rotation is equal to the period of revolution

d)

the moon doesn't rotate on it's axis

62.

When the moon's phases are changing from full to new, the moon is

a)

waning

b)

waxing

c)

exhibiting retrograde rotation

d)

approaching Earth

63.

Round depressions on the moon's surface are called

a)

meteorites

b)

highlands

c)

maria

d)

craters

64.

The theory of how our solar system formed is called the

a)

nebular theory

b)

protoplanet theory

c)

solar theory

d)

planetesimal theory

65.

Olympus Mons, is the largest volcano in our solar system and is located on which planet?

a)

Mercury

b)

Mars

c)

Venus

d)

Earth

66.

The Jovian planets have atmospheres that consist mainly of

a)

nitrogen

b)

hydrogen

c)

helium

d)

both hydrogen and helium

67.

The planet that is closest to the sun is

a)

Mercury

b)

Venus

c)

Mars

d)

Earth

68.

Which feature on Mars points to the possibility of liquid water on the planet?

a)

mountain ranges with faults

b)

gullies and stream like channels

c)

volcanic cones with craters

d)

impact craters with sharp rims

69.

Why isn't Pluto considered a planet?

a)

Pluto's orbit around the sun is larger than any of the other 8 planets

b)

Pluto's gravity is too weak to pull in smaller debris, so it hasn't cleared its orbital path

c)

Pluto has a moon, Charon, which is more than half its size

d)

Pluto is smaller than all of the other eight planets

70.

Most asteroids lie between the orbits of

a)

Venus and Earth

b)

Earth and Mars

c)

Mars and Jupiter

d)

Jupiter and Saturn

71.

The small particles that produce a streak of light when they enter Earth's atmosphere are called

a)

asteriods

b)

satellites

c)

meteors

d)

comets

72.

Many meteor showers are associated with the orbits of

a)

comets

b)

satellites

c)

meteorites

d)

planets

73.

Light is behaves like

a)

a wave

b)

a particle

c)

a wave and a particle

d)

a proton beam

74.

When looking at a star's spectrum we can tell the following...

a)

the size of the star

b)

the chemical composition of the star

c)

the age of the star

d)

if it is part of a binary system

75.

The Doppler effect tells us what about objects in space?

a)

if they are moving towards or away from us

b)

if they are part of a constellation

c)

if they are stars or asteroids

d)

how old the object is

76.

What does a reflection telescope use to produce an image?

a)

an antenna

b)

a computer

c)

a concave mirror

d)

a lens

77.

The first space telescope launched by NASA was the

a)

Chandra X-Ray Observatory

b)

Hubble Space Telescope

c)

James Webb Space Telescope

d)

Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory

78.

Why do sunspots appear to be darker than the surrounding surface of the sun?

a)

they are larger than anything else around it

b)

they are very deep inside the sun

c)

they are solid parts of the surface of the sun

d)

they are relatively cooler than the rest of the sun's surface

79.

Where does the sun's energy come from?

a)

hydrogen atoms fusing together to form helium and a lot of energy

b)

hydrogen atoms splitting apart to form helium and a lot of energy

c)

chemical reactions of carbon and iron

d)

photosynthesis of carbon dioxide and oxygen

80.

Which of the following is the most explosive event on the sun?

a)

solar winds

b)

prominences

c)

solar flares

d)

umbras

81.

Our sun will be able to exist in its present stable state for another

a)

100 billion years

b)

5.5 billion years

c)

10 billion years

d)

15.5 billion years

82.

When we measure the distance to objects outside our solar system, we use the following unit of measure....

a)

A.U.'s

b)

kilometers

c)

light-years

d)

giga-bytes

83.

The color of a star is based on it's surface temperature. What is the coolest star color?

a)

yellow

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

orange

84.

If star A is farther from Earth than star B, but both stars have the same absolute magnitude, what is true about their apparent magnitude?

a)

both stars have the same apparent magnitude

b)

star B has the greater apparent magnitude (brighter)

c)

star A has the greater apparent magnitude (birghter)

d)

it's impossible to tell from this information

85.

Using the HR diagram, which main sequence stars are the brightest?

a)

the hottest

b)

the coolest

c)

the white dwarfs

d)

the smaller stars

86.

When is a star "born"?

a)

after the protostar stage and fusion begins

b)

when the red giant collapses in on itself

c)

when a dark interstellar cloud begins to contract

d)

during the supernova stage

87.

When a super massive star reaches the end of it's life and explodes in a brilliant explosion it is in what stage?

a)

the red giant stage

b)

the protostar stage

c)

a supernova stage

d)

a neutron star stage

88.

All stars, regardless of size, eventually....

a)

turn in to black dwarfs

b)

explode

c)

run out of fuel and collapse

d)

become black holes

89.

Light cannot escape the intense gravitational pull of a

a)

black dwarf

b)

black hole

c)

red giant

d)

main-sequence star

90.

Where is our sun located in the Milky Way?

a)

in the very center of the galaxy

b)

in the galactic halo

c)

our sun is not located in the Milky Way

d)

within one of the spiral arms of the galaxy

91.

According to the Big Bang Theory, the universe began about how long ago?

a)

13.7 billion years ago

b)

130 billion years ago

c)

4.5 billion years ago

d)

50 billion years ago