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Reece- Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 17hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The ability of a living thing to get bigger is known as _______________.
a)
Development
b)
Growth
c)
Adaptation
d)
Response
2.
A/An ____________is the smallest unit of life.
a)
atom
b)
stimulus
c)
cell
d)
DNA
3.
To maintain stable internal conditions is  __________________________________.
a)
growth
b)
adaptation
c)
homeostasis
d)
development
4.
Type of reproduction that produces two genetically identical offspring from one parent is _________________.
a)
Sexual
b)
Asexual
c)
reproduction
d)
homeostasis
5.
An organism that makes its own food is 
a)
an omnivore
b)
a heterotroph
c)
an autotroph
d)
a carnivore
6.
For the quickest source of energy if going for a run, you should eat a food that contains a high percentage of 
a)
sodium
b)
protein
c)
fats
d)
carbohydrates
7.
The specific reactants that an enzyme acts on are called
a)
catalysts
b)
substrates
c)
proteins
d)
amino acids
8.
Acetylcholine is an important chemical signal in the nervous system. It is  broken down into other chemicals by cholinesterase.Cholinesterase is which of the following?
a)
enzyme
b)
hormone
c)
lipid
d)
organelle
9.
What happens to the speed of a chemical reaction when a catalyst is present?
a)
It becomes erratic.
b)
It stays the same.
c)
It speeds up.
d)
It slows down.
10.
Which statement best describes the graph shown?
a)
Reaction B occurs at a slower rate.
b)
The original reaction is catalyzed.
c)
Less energy is needed to start reaction B.
d)
More energy is released by the original reaction.
11.
What is the term for the amount of energy that needs to be added for a chemical reaction to start?
a)
bond energy
b)
chemical energy
c)
activation energy
d)
reactant energy
12.
DNA and RNA are two types of
a)
proteins
b)
lipids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
13.
An altered form of the protein collagen causes a condition where bones break easily. Which of the following are components of collagen?
a)
fatty acids
b)
amino acids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
monosaccharides
14.
Fats, oils, and cholesterol are all types of
a)
fatty acids
b)
lipids
c)
hormones
d)
cell membranes
15.
Which category of carbon-based molecules includes sugars and starches?
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
unsaturated fatty acids
d)
phospholipids
16.
In the lock-and-key model of enzyme function shown in the figure, what is happening in step 2?
a)
The active sites are restructuring the enzyme
b)
The substrates are beginning to bind to the enzyme
c)
The catalyzed reaction is releasing a product.
d)
The enzyme is causing new bonds to form between the substrates.
17.
Which aspect of a chemical reaction is affected by enzymes?
a)
rate
b)
direction
c)
pH
d)
equilibrium
18.
Identify the products in this reaction: 6H2O + 6CO2 →  C6H12O6+ 6O2.
a)
6H2O and 6CO2
b)
6CO2 and C6H12O6
c)
6H2O, C6H12O6, and 6O2
d)
C6H12O6 and 6O2
19.

Which pair is incorrect?

a)

carbohydrates - provide energy

b)

lipids - provide insulation

c)

nucleic acids - store hereditary information

d)

proteins - provide energy

20.

Which is the strongest acid?

a)

ph of 1

b)

ph of 4

c)

ph of 7

d)

ph of 9

21.

Which is the strongest base?

a)

ph of 1

b)

ph of 4

c)

ph of 7

d)

ph of 9

22.

Enzymes _ activation energy

a)

raise

b)

lower

23.

Which is the wrong polymer/monomer pair?

a)

nucleic acids : nucleotides

b)

lipids: monosaccharides

c)

carbohydrates: monosaccharides

d)

proteins : amino acids

24.

Which elements are found in carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids (in that order)?

a)

CHO 1:2:1, CHO, CHON, CHONP

b)

CHO, CHO 1:2:1, CHON, CHONP

c)

CHO 1:2:1, CHO, CHONP, CHON

d)

CHO, CHO 1:2:1, CHONP, CHON

25.
In the diagram which substance belongs in area Z?
a)
water
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
carbon
26.
Base your answers on the graph and your knowledge of biology.
Neither enzyme works at a pH of
a)
1
b)
5
c)
3
d)
13
27.
The distortion (change in shape) of enzyme molecules which occurs at high temperatures is known as
a)
synthesis
b)
specificity
c)
replication
d)
denaturation
28.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
29.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
30.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 1 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
31.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
32.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
33.
What are the monomers of DNA?
a)
glycerols
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
34.
All polymers are made up of...
a)
monosaccharides
b)
monomers
c)
proteins
d)
None of these
35.
Building blocks of the body, hair , muscles etc.
a)
protein
b)
nucleic acid
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
36.
Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer. 
a)
lipids
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
37.
Enzymes are..
a)
nucleic acids 
b)
carbohydrates 
c)
lipids 
d)
proteins 
38.
How many sugar units make up polysaccharides?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
more than two
d)
zero
39.
Who are the three scientists credited with creating the Cell Theory?
a)
Schlieden, Schwann, Virchow
b)
Schindler, Schmeil, Vanderhoot
c)
Schwimmer, Shanazzek, Van Halen
40.
All cells come from___________ cells.
a)
pregnant
b)
pre-existing
c)
paternal
d)
pin size
41.
______________ are the basic unit of life.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Cells
d)
Takis
42.
When observing cells, which of the following pieces of equipment is most appropriate?
a)
Hand lens
b)
Telescope
c)
Petri dish
d)
Microscope
43.
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic points of Cell Theory?
a)
All living things are made of cells.
b)
The cell is the smallest living thing that can perform all the functions of life.
c)
Cells are too small to see without a microscope.  
d)
All cells must come from pre-existing cells.
44.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

To control what comes in and out of the cell

b)

To break down food inside the cell

c)

to serve as a barrier

d)

to eat the cells food

45.

Which organelle produces the energy a cell needs to carry out its function

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleus

46.

Which organelle is found inside the nucleus and produces ribosomes

a)

Nucleolus

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi Bodies

47.

What is a fun way to remember what lysosomes do?

a)

I clean things up!

b)

Make something sweet

c)

The control center

d)

Tin of information

48.

What is the function of the Vacuoles

a)

Store food, water and waste

b)

Receive proteins

c)

Assembles amino acids

d)

Found inside the nucleus

49.

Which organelle receives proteins and materials from the ER, packages them and distributes them

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Nucleus

d)

Chromatin

50.

Which cell contains Chloroplasts?

a)

Animal

b)

Plant

51.

what is the function of ribosomes

a)

to assemble amino acids to create proteins

b)

to pack proteins

c)

to clean proteins

52.

The control center of cell is

a)

the nucleus

b)

ribosomes

c)

chromatin

53.
The picture illustrates a
a)
Prokaryotic Plant Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Animal Cell
c)
Eukaryotic Plant Cell
d)
Eukaryotic Animal Cell
54.
stiff, protective outer layer of plant cells
a)
cell membrane
b)
nuclear membrane
c)
cell wall
d)
cytoplasm
55.
collect sunlight which it converts to sugars
a)
chloroplasts
b)
cytoplasm
c)
cell wall
d)
mitochondria
56.
break down (digest) worn out cell parts, mostly in animal cells
a)
cytoplasm
b)
lysosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
57.
Transportation network for the cell, moves materials around in the cell
a)
Lysosome
b)
Nuclear Membrane
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Centriole
58.
What am I?
a)
cell wall
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast
59.
What am I?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Mitochondrion
d)
Plasma Membrane
60.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
61.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
62.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
63.
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but NOT prokaryotic cells?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Ribosomes
d)
DNA
64.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
65.
What makes the endoplasmic reticulum rough?
a)
Vessicles
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Chromosomes
66.

What is an unspecialized cell that can become many different types of cells?

a)

stem cell

b)

eukaryotic cell

c)

prokaryotic cell

d)

gamete

67.

Which long specialized cell helps transmits information quickly throughout an organism?

a)

neuron cell

b)

enzyme cell

c)

muscle cell

d)

blood cell

68.

Which cell is specialized by having lots of mitochondria for energy and protein fibers for movement?

a)

skin cell

b)

nerve cell

c)

blood cell

d)

muscle cell

69.

How does a stem cell become a muscle or nerve cell

a)

activation of different genes

b)

fertilization of gametes

c)

mitosis

d)

meiosis

70.

Cells

a)

have the same DNA regardless of type

b)

have DNA based on cell type

71.

Stem cells becoming specialized cells (e.g. nerve, blood, skin, etc.) is called...

a)

cell fertilization

b)

cell differentiation

c)

cell division

d)

cell cycle

72.

Round cells without nuclei that use hemoglobin and iron to carry oxygen throughout the body are

a)

muscle cells

b)

stem cells

c)

blood cells

d)

nerve cells

73.

Section of DNA that code for different traits or proteins are

a)

genes

b)

chromosomes

c)

genomes

d)

plasmid

74.

Why would someone be against stem cell research?

a)

stem cells can cause pollution

b)

stem cells can come from embryos

c)

stem cells can come from bone tissue

d)

stem cells aren't natural cells

75.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
76.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

77.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
floating DNA
c)
very small
d)
complex
78.

The movement of particles from an area of high to low concentration is known as--

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

79.

What is it called when large molecules move across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a protein channel?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

80.

How does a cell maintain homeostasis?

a)

By controlling what enters and leaves the cell

b)

Flexibility

c)

Protective barrier

d)

Structure and support

81.

Cell membrane transport that occurs without energy is called--

a)

active transport

b)

endocytosis

c)

passive transport

d)

exocytosis

82.

What is the name of the process in which small molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration across the cell membrane

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Facilitated Diffusion

83.

When there is an equal number of molecules on the inside and outside of the cell, that is called-

a)

difference

b)

transportation

c)

homeostasis

d)

solution

84.
What is the difference between active and passive transport?
a)
Active does not need energy and passive uses ATP (energy)
b)
Active uses ATP (energy) and passive does not need energy
c)
Active stores transport proteins and passive releases 
d)
Active uses hormones and passive does not 
85.

The movement of molecules from low to high is known as

a)

simple diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

osmosis

86.
ALL living cells have this in common
a)
Nucleus
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Mitochondria
87.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
88.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
89.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
It does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
90.
The concentration of water is higher in the soil than in plant root cells. Water moves into root cells of a plant by...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
91.
What type of transport is illustrated?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
92.
The picture is an example of...
a)
active tranport
b)
passive transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
93.
The cell membrane is made mostly of
a)
phospholipid monolayer and proteins
b)
phospholipid bilayer and proteins
c)
proteins and carbohydrates bilayer
d)
triglycerides and carbohydrates
94.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
95.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
96.
The cell below is in a _____________ solution.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Hypotonic
c)
Isotonic
97.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
98.
When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution water
a)
moves from the inside of the cell to the solution
b)
moves from the solution to the inside of the cell
c)
moves equally in and out of the cell
d)
none of these
99.
A cell will __________________ in a hypotonic solution.
a)
swell and perhaps burst (lyse)
b)
shrink
c)
the size of the cell will not change
d)
the size of the cell will change from large to small and from small to large
100.
When the concentration of particles inside of a cell is the same as the concentration of particles outside of the cell. 
a)
active transport
b)
concentration
c)
diffusion
d)
equilibrium
101.
Particles are removed from a cell (pushed out).
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
102.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
103.
The amount of particles in a given space.
a)
diffusion
b)
concentration
c)
permeable
d)
active transport
104.
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which of the following has occurred?
a)
The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
b)
The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
c)
The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
d)
The water in the gums has moved out due to the high concentration of salt in the solution. 
105.
For cells to stay alive they require what type of SA:V?
a)
Large SA, Large V
b)
Small SA, Large V
c)
Large SA, Small V
d)
Small SA, Small V
106.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)
keep body temperature the same as the external temperature
b)
decrease body temperature
c)
increase body temperature
d)
regulate blood pressure
107.

Which of the following is not regulated by homeostasis?

a)

body temperature

b)

blood sugar

c)

blood pH

d)

body movements

108.

which organ will balance the glucose level in the blood by releasing hormones like insulin or glucagon?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intensine

c)

large intestine

d)

Pancreas

109.

Excess of glucose will be stored in what form?

a)

insulin

b)

glycogen

c)

glucagon

d)

glucose

110.

Which hormone is released when blood sugar gets too high?

a)

glucose

b)

glucagon

c)

glycogen

d)

insulin

111.

What is the function of insulin?

a)

diagnose diabetes

b)

turn glucose into energy

c)

help glucose enter the cells of the body

d)

Release glucose stored in the liver

112.

What are the inputs (reactants) of photosynthesis?

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

glucose and carbon dioxide

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide and water

113.

Where does photosynthesis take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

chloroplast

d)

ribosome

114.

What is the main pigment in plants?

a)

chlorophyll

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

carotene

115.

What are the outputs (products) of photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

glucose and oxygen

c)

glucose and carbon dioxide

d)

water and oxygen

116.

What organisms do photosynthesis?

a)

animals

b)

plants

c)

plants and animals

d)

all living things

117.

What are the inputs (reactants) of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

glucose and water

c)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

d)

glucose and oxygen

118.

Where does cellular respiration take place?

a)

chloroplast

b)

lungs

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleus

119.

What are the outputs (products) of cellular respiration?

a)

glucose, oxygen, and energy

b)

carbon dioxide, water, and energy

c)

water, oxygen, and glucose

d)

water and energy

120.

What organisms use cellular respiration to get energy?

a)

animals only

b)

plants only

c)

heterotrophs only

d)

plants and animals

121.

What is a heterotroph?

a)

an organism that absorbs food by diffusion

b)

an organism that uses photosynthesis to make its food

c)

an organism that needs to consume food for energy

d)

all plants

122.

What is the purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

to make more plants

b)

to convert sunlight to glucose

c)

to convert glucose to usable energy

d)

to change colors of leaves in the fall

123.

What is the purpose of cellular respiration?

a)

to convert sunlight to glucose

b)

to breathe in oxygen and breathe out carbon dioxide

c)

to have cells grow and develop

d)

to convert glucose to usable energy

124.

What is the formula for photosynthesis?

a)

C6H12O6 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O + sunlight

b)

Sunlight + Oxygen --> Glucose + Sunlight

c)

CO2 + H2O + sunlight ----> C6H12O6 + O2

125.
Where does water come from?
a)
Plants absorb it from roots. 
b)
Plants collect it from air.
126.

How are the photosynthesis and cellular respiration related?

a)

The products of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration.

b)

The reactants of photosynthesis are the reactants of cellular respiration.

c)

The products of cellular respiration are the products of photosynthesis.

127.

In cellular respiration, organisms need _____________ and release ___________.

a)

Carbon Dioxide; Oxygen

b)

Oxygen; Carbon Dioxide

128.
What is the function of ATP in living things?
a)
provides energy for cells
b)
stores genetic information
c)
provides structure in the nucleus
129.
Which structures shown in the Figure make up the ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A, B and C
c)
A, B, C, and D
d)
C and D
130.
What does the "TP" in ATP stand for?
a)
2 phosphates
b)
tri (3) phosphates
c)
Two proteins
d)
tri (3) proteins
131.
Which of the following can be compared to a battery in need of recharging?  (empty wallet)
a)
ADP
b)
ATP
c)
Ribose
d)
Adenosine
132.
What are the parts of the ATP molecule?
a)
adenine, thylakoids, stroma
b)
stroma, grana, chlorophyll
c)
adenine, ribose, phosphate groups
d)
NADH, NAHPH, FADH
133.
Which bond of the ATP molecule is broken in order to release energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
134.
Which structures shown in the Figure make up the ATP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A, B and C
c)
A, B, C, and D
d)
C and D
135.
Which of the following results in the storage of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP cycle?
a)
The breaking of the bond between the 5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate group
b)
The addition of a phosphate group
c)
The removal of a phosphate group
d)
The addition of glucose 
136.
Where is the energy stored in ATP molecules
a)
In the Ribose Sugar
b)
In the Adenine group
c)
In the Phosphate bonds
d)
In the Bank
137.
What type of macromolecule is ATP/ADP?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Protein
138.
Which cellular organelle is responsible for manufacturing ATP?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast
139.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
140.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
141.
What part of the cell cycle results in the splitting of the new cells?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
142.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
143.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
144.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
145.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
146.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
147.
What part of the cell cycle is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Cytokinesis
148.
What is the longest phase in MITOSIS?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
149.
In what phase do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
150.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
151.
In what phase do the chromosomes get pulled apart into sister chromatid to opposite sides of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
152.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
153.
What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
M phase
c)
Interphase
d)
G1 Phase
154.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
155.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
156.
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
157.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
Cytokinesis
158.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
159.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
160.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
161.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
162.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
163.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
164.
Which of the following produces identical nuclei in cells?
a)
pollination
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
fertilization
165.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
166.
Which process is necessary for the inherited traits of an organism to be passed along by sexual reproduction?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
mutation
d)
fission
167.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
168.
Which statement correctly describes meiosis?
a)
cells divide only once
b)
meiosis does not occur in reproductive cells
c)
the cells produced at the end of meiosis are genetically identical to the parent cell
d)
The cells produced at the end of meiosis contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell
169.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
170.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
171.
Which of the following represents chromosome # during fertilization?
a)
n+n=2n
b)
n=n
c)
2n=n+n
d)
2n=2n
172.
Which of the following best explains why the chromosome number is an even number in organisms?
a)
It is only by coincidence, many organisms have an odd number
b)
The diploid number is always even so that when mitosis occurs each cell gets the same number of chromosmes
c)
The diploid chromosome number represents pairs of chromosomes, one from ech parent, so that it is always an even number
d)
Chromosomes double very time the cell divides, so after the first division, the number is always even
173.
Based only on the sex chromosomes in typical human egg and sperm cells at fertilization, the probability of producing a female is
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
90%
174.
Mendel hypothesized that reproductive cells have only one factor for each inherited trait. This hypothesis is supported by the observation that
a)
haploid cells are produced by mitosis
b)
diploid cells are produced by mitosis
c)
haploid cells are produced by meiosis
d)
diploid cells are produced by meiosis
175.
If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
176.
Mitosis is essential to life because it
a)
contains four stages for gametes
b)
maintains genetic continuity from one generation to the next
c)
controls cell functions
d)
provides energy for cell
177.
Body cells of fruit flies contain 8 chromosomes.  Scientists used studies of flies to discover how egg and sperm are formed. What did they observe?
a)
Body cell of offspring flies have 16 chromosomes
b)
Sperm cells have 8 chromosomes
c)
Egg cells have 4 chromosomes
d)
Body cells of offspring have 4 chromosomes
178.
What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
offspring are identical to parents
b)
offspring are resistant to viruses
c)
offspring are born live, rather than from eggs
d)
offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information
179.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
180.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

181.

Which of the following is the best definition for MEIOSIS?

a)

the process of two haploid cells uniting

b)

the counting of chromosomes within a diploid cell

c)

a two-step process that reduces the number of chromosomes in half such that there is only one copy of all the chromosomes

d)

the equational division of a cell into two identical copies

182.

In which stage of MEIOSIS does crossing over occur? (The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes in a tetrad.)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Prophase I

d)

Telophase I

183.

In Metaphase I, tetrads line up along the _______.

a)

mitotic spindle

b)

centrosomes

c)

equatorial plane

d)

contractile ring

184.

In Anaphase I, the _________ are separated by the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

centrosomes

185.

In Metaphase II, _________ line up on equatorial plane.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

single chromosomes (made up of 2 sister chromatids)

c)

tetrads

d)

centrosomes

186.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

187.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

188.

Which of the following does NOT happen during Telophase II?

a)

the nuclei reform

b)

each cell begins to split evenly in two

c)

the chromosomes duplicate

d)

the nuclei contain a haploid number of chromosomes

189.

The products of MEIOSIS have _______ number of chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

190.

A cat has a total of 40 chromosomes in its body cells. How many in its sex cells?

a)

38

b)

20

c)

76

d)

10

191.

In humans, sperm cell have ___________ chromosomes and are ___________________, while skin cells have _____________ chromosomes are are diploid.

a)

23. haploid. 46 diploid

b)

46. haploid. 23. diploid

c)

23 diploid. 46 haploid

d)

46. diploid. 23. haploid.

192.
Crossing over helps promote ?
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
193.
You get one homologous chromosome from your ________ and one from your _______.  
a)
dad, mom
b)
brother, sister
c)
grandmother, grandfather
d)
dog, cat
194.
With mitosis you get ___, _________ cells, but with meiosis, you get ___, ____________.
a)
4 different, 2 identical
b)
4 identical, 2 different
c)
2 different, 4 identical
d)
2 identical, 4 different
195.
The purpose of meiosis is to form ________ cells.
a)
body
b)
sex
c)
somatic
d)
brain
196.
the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA
a)
adenine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
nucleotide
197.
nitrogen base that pairs with guanine
a)
adenine
b)
cytosine
c)
nucloetide
d)
deoxyribose
198.
the process of making a copy of DNA
a)
transcription
b)
double helix
c)
DNA replication
d)
replication fork
199.
The shape of DNA.
a)
double helix
b)
nucleotide
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
single stranded
200.
A nitrogen base that bonds with cytosine; a purine
a)
thymine
b)
guanine
c)
helicase
d)
double helix
201.
Nitrogen base that pairs with adenine
a)
cytosine
b)
DNA polymerase
c)
deoxyribose
d)
thymine
202.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
203.
What is the shape of DNA?
a)
double helix
b)
double heelies
c)
double trouble
d)
double staircase
204.
If we think of DNA as a ladder, which parts are the steps of the ladder?
a)
the nitrogenous base pairs
b)
the phosphate-sugar backbone
c)
the genes
d)
the phospholipid bilayer
205.
If we think of DNA as a ladder, which parts are the sides of the ladder?
a)
the nitrogenous base pairs
b)
the phosphate-sugar backbone
c)
the genes
d)
the phospholipid bilayer
206.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
207.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
208.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
209.
Which of the following describes RNA?
a)
RNA is usually double-stranded and contains the base thymine
b)
RNA is usually single-stranded and contains the base uracil
c)
RNA is longer than DNA and uses five bases to encode information
d)
RNA is made in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and stays there to carry out its functions
210.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
211.
Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
a)
A codon can specify more than one amino acid
b)
Every codon specifies a different amino acid
c)
Some codons specify the same amino acid
d)
Some codons have no function at all
212.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
213.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
214.
A single-base mutation in a messenger RNA molecule could transcribe the DNA sequence CAGTAT into
a)
GTCATA
b)
GUCAUA
c)
GTCUTU
d)
GUAAUA
215.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
216.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
217.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
218.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
219.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
220.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
221.
The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
222.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
223.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
224.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
225.
The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in
a)
none of these
b)
Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands
c)
two exact copies with new strands
d)
two identical molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.
226.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
227.

direction new nucleotides are synthesized on the new strand

a)

5' to 3' (new nucleotides added to the 3' end)

b)

3' to 5' (new nucleotides added to the 5' end)

c)

3' to 5' (new nucleotides added to the 3' end)

d)

5' to 3' (new nucleotides added to the 5' end)

228.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

229.

The point where separation of the DNA occurs is called the replication fork.

a)

True that it is True

b)

True that it is False

230.
order of replication
a)
3, 4, 2, 1
b)
3, 1, 4, 2
c)
2, 1, 4, 3
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
231.
Place the following in sequential order
1. Recoil
2. Straightens the double helix
3. Breaks Hydrogen bonds
4. Adds Free nucleotides
a)
1, 2, 3, 4
b)
3, 4, 2, 1
c)
3, 2, 4, 1
d)
2, 3, 4, 1
232.
What are the gaps between the newly synthesized DNA on the lagging strand called?
a)
Okazaki fragments
b)
Polymer gaps
c)
Helicase fragments
d)
Acidic gaps
233.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

234.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

235.

How many codons equals 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

236.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

237.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

238.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

239.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

240.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
241.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
242.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
243.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
244.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
245.
How many base pairs would be needed to chain together 3 amino acids?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
246.

What process is steps 1-3 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

247.

What process is step 12 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

248.

What does tRNA carry to the ribosome?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Codons

c)

Amino Acids

d)

None of the Above

249.

Which of the following is a codon?

a)
b)

ATG

c)

AUG

d)

AUT

250.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

251.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

252.

How do you know when to begin translating a strand of mRNA?

a)

look for AUG

b)

start at the beginning

c)

look for ATG

d)

when the teacher says so!!!

253.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

254.
One human disease is caused by a change in one codon in a gene from GAA to GUA. The disease is a result of 
a)
a mutation
b)
crossing-over
c)
a meiosis error
d)
polyploidy
255.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

256.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
257.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
258.

Which of the following is the best definition for heredity?

a)

Heredity is the passing of particles from high concentration to low concentration.

b)

Heredity explains how DNA copies itself.

c)

Heredity is the passing of traits from parent to offspring.

d)

Heredity is the forming of clones.

259.

This scientist studied pea plants and was considered to be the "Father of Genetics".

a)

Reginald Punnett

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Rosalind Franklin

260.

Y= yellow pod

y= green pod


What is the percentage of yellow pod when you cross a hybrid pod plant with a purebred green pod plant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

261.

According to this punnett square shown, the recessive trait is:

a)

Wrinkled peas

b)

Green pods

c)

Yellow pods

d)

Purple seeds

262.

Which of the following is showing a genotype that would be described as homozygous recessive (purebred)

a)

Dd

b)

dd

c)

DD

d)

dD

263.

The physical appearance of an organisms is also referred to as:

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

chromosome

d)

incomplete dominance

264.

The genotype is:

a)

the genetic makeup of an organism.

b)

the physical appearance of an organism.

c)

the deletion of a chromosome.

d)

the passing of traits from parent to offspring.

265.

Which of the following is true regarding inheriting traits:

a)

Dominant traits are less likely to be seen.

b)

You must have only one recessive gene in order to express the trait.

c)

The recessive trait always is seen over the dominant trait.

d)

Dominant traits are more likely to be expressed because you only need one gene.

266.

Which of the following shows a genotype that would be considered homozygous? Choose all that apply.

a)

GG

b)

gg

c)

Gg

d)

Bb

e)

bb

267.

An allele is:

a)

different genes that code for different characteristics.

b)

different chromosomes.

c)

different forms of the same gene.

d)

section of the nucleus that forms chromosomes.

268.

A human body cell contains:

a)

46 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

21 chromosomes

d)

40 chromosomes

269.

A human sex cell contains:

a)

46 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 pair chromosomes

d)

20 chromosomes

270.

Which of the following is true regarding genes and chromosomes?

a)

Genes and chromosomes do not have any connection.

b)

Chromosomes make up genes.

c)

Chromosomes are made up of genes which are located in the cytoplasm of the cell.

d)

Genes are sections of the DNA strand and are located on chromosomes.

271.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
272.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
273.
A plant shows incomplete dominance in size. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a medium plant (TS). What fraction of plants will also be tall?
a)
100 %
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
274.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
275.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
276.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
277.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
278.
Snap dragon color is a incomplete dominant trait.  A red flower (RR) is crossed with white flower (rr)? What color are flowers that are Rr?
a)
Red
b)
Red and White
c)
White
d)
Pink
279.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
280.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
281.
Which of the following is a hybrid?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
282.

The different forms of a gene are called ---

a)

traits

b)

hybrids

c)

alleles

283.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring represented in this P square will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

284.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be black?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

285.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be white?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

0

d)

100

286.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be gray?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

287.

What protein is found in red blood cells that binds to and transports oxygen?

a)

peptidoglycan

b)

iron

c)

hemoglobin

d)

plasma

288.

What are the 4 Types of Blood?

a)

Types A,B,C and D

b)

Types A,B,O and D

c)

Types A,B,AB and O

d)

Types A,E,O,U

289.

How many ALLELES does human blood type have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

290.

Blood typing is an example of multiple alleles and ....

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

291.

A male is blood type B (his mom was type O) marries a woman that is type AB. What are the possible genotypes from this cross?

a)

BB, AB, Bo, Ao

b)

Bo, Ao

c)

BB, AB, Ao

292.

The central dogma is...

a)

DNA --> protein --> RNA

b)

protein --> RNA --> DNA

c)

RNA --> DNA --> protein

d)

DNA --> RNA --> protein

293.

What are the 4 possible phenotypes for human blood type?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type BB

d)

Type AB

e)

Type O

294.

What 3 alleles are responsible for the phenotypic expression of ABO Blood types?

a)

IA

b)

IB

c)

ID

d)

i

295.

If a person has type B blood, the phenotype is B. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

296.

If a person has type A blood, the phenotype is A. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

297.

If a person has type AB blood, the phenotype is AB. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

298.

If a person has type O blood, the phenotype is O. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

299.

if the father is type A and the mother is type B, in order for baby Sylvester to have the genotype ii, his parents must be?

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

300.

There are multiple alleles for the ABO blood group. Why are only two of these alleles present in any one individual?

a)

Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring.

b)

There are not enough nucleotides in a red blood cell to produce a third allele.

c)

Each allele in the ABO group must be dominant or recessive

d)

Blood group alleles are not segregated during meiosis.

301.
You have benefited from selective breeding by having more agricultural produce than would have been possible otherwise.
a)
True
b)
False
302.
An application of using DNA technology to help environmental scientists would be ___.
a)
use PCR to analyze DNA at a crime scene
b)
create a tobacco plant that glows in the dark
c)
clone the gene for human growth hormone to treat pituitary dwarfism
d)
make transgenic bacteria that can be used to clean up oil spills more quickly than do the natural bacteria
303.
Which of the following would be an example of gene therapy technology?
a)
development of a nasal spray that contains copies of the normal gene that is defective in person with cystic fibrosis
b)
cutting DNA into fragments with restriction enzymes
c)
modifying E. coli to produce indigo dye for coloring denim blue jeans
d)
separation DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis
304.
Recombinant DNA are currently used to produce____.
a)
clothing dye, cheese, and laundry products
b)
human antibiotics and vaccines
c)
crops that taste better and stay fresh longer
d)
all of these
305.
The Human Genome Project has made diagnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a genetic disorder is diagnosed, ____ can be used as a possible treatment.
a)
cell cultures
b)
gene therapy
c)
DNA fingerprinting
d)
PCR
306.
A gene gun and a virus may both be classified as ____ because they are mechanisms by which foreign DNA may be transferred into a host cell.
a)
bacteria
b)
plasmids
c)
vectors
d)
splicers
307.
A ____ is a small ring of DNA found in a bacterial cell.
a)
virus
b)
plasmid
c)
gene bullet
d)
PCR
308.
The entire collection of genes within human cells is referred to as the ______.
a)
human genome
b)
karyotype
c)
pedigree
d)
gene map
309.
____ is an application of the human genome project that involves the insertion of normal genes into cells with defective genes in order to correct genetic disorders.
a)
gene gun
b)
gene mapping
c)
gene linkage
d)
gene therapy
310.
Genetic engineering has produced goats whose milk contains proteins that can be used as medicines. This effect was produced by
a)
mixing genes into the milk
b)
injecting genes into the goats udders
c)
inserting foreign genes into fertilized goat eggs
d)
genetically modifying the nutritional needs of the goats offspring 
311.
A scientist cloned a goat. Which of these is a true statement about the cloned goat?
a)
It has new genes and traits
b)
It lacks the genes for reproduction
c)
It has the genes that are identical to the original goat
d)
It looks the same but has different genes.
312.
A lab technique used in crime fighting to prove a suspects innocence or guilt is known as:
a)
genetic engineering
b)
PCR
c)
electrophoresis
d)
gene therapy
313.
What is recombinant DNA?
a)
Adding DNA from one organism into the DNA of another
b)
DNA which has been changed over generations by natural selection
c)
DNA that causes genetic disorders
d)
DNA that has been sequenced
314.

Which suspect left the blood stain?

a)

Bob

b)

Sue

c)

John

d)

Lisa

315.

The process that has been used for centruries to create purebred animals such as black labs is called

a)

recombinant DNA

b)

cloning

c)

selective breeding

316.

Which of the following is an example of a GMO

a)

Bt Corn

b)

Black Lab Puppies

c)

Dolly the sheep

317.

What would be a positive reason to genetically alter Fraser Fir trees in North Carolina to make them more resistant to rot?

a)

By producing crops that are frost resistant

b)

By making robots to replace large farm machines

c)

The population of fir trees would increase and grow healthier.

d)

By increasing the use of wind farms that produce electricity

318.

How can agricultural biotechnology have a positive impact on the environment?

a)

By developing crops that are pest resistant requiring fewer pesticides to be used. 

b)

planting crops in shaded areas.

c)

Harvesting crops that have thick stems and leaves.

d)

water crops with a recycled irrigation system.

319.

How can using genetically engineered crops impact North Carolina’s economy?

a)

Improve quality of farm equipment.

b)

Decreased availability of productive land.

c)

Decreased food production and more debt for farmers.

d)

Increased food production and income for the farmers.

320.
What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive in its environment?
a)
adaptation
b)
variation
c)
homologous structure
d)
vestigial structure
321.
a)
analogous structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
vestigial structures
d)
none of the above
322.
What is the process of which humans breed organisms for certain traits?
a)
artificial selection
b)
descent without modification
c)
inheritance of acquired characteristics
d)
natural selection
323.
Vertebrate embryos pass through similar stages of development is evidence for
a)
use and disuse
b)
homologous structures
c)
common ancestry
d)
acquired characteristics
324.
Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce
a)
better traits
b)
stronger genes
c)
more offspring
d)
fewer mutations
325.
All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area are called a 
a)
group
b)
population
c)
variation
d)
fossil
326.
The remnant of an organ that had a function in an early ancestor is known as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
d)
fossil structure
327.
Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?
a)
Individuals of species compete with one another to survive.
b)
All species are genetically diverse.
c)
Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.
d)
All are correct 
328.
The fossil record provides evidence that 
a)
Fossils cannot be dated.
b)
All species were formed during Earth’s formation and have changed little since then.
c)
The fossilized species have no connection to today’s species.
d)
Older species gave rise to more-recent species.
329.
Individuals that are better able to cope with the challenges of their environment tend to  
a)
Decrease in population over time.
b)
Leave more offspring than those less suited to the environment.
c)
Leave fewer offspring than those less suited to the environment.
330.
Starting in 1954, commercial fishers in the northwest Pacific were paid by weight, rather than by the individual fish, for pink salmon. The fishers increased the use of a type of net that selectively catches larger fish.  Which of the following effects did this change in fishing technique most likely have on the salmon population over the next 20 years?
a)
The average body size of the salmon population decreased significantly.
b)
The average body size of the salmon population increased significantly.
c)
The average body size of the males in the salmon population increased, and the females stayed the same.
331.
European rabbits were introduced to Australia in 1859. The rabbits reproduced rapidly in their new habitat, displaced other animals, and overgrazed vegetation. In an attempt to reduce the rabbit population, a virus was introduced in 1951. This virus is usually deadly to European rabbits. When the virus was first introduced, the rabbits died in large numbers, but the death rate decreased over time. Which of the following best explains the decrease in the rabbit death rate? 
a)
Young rabbits learned to avoid being infected with the virus.
b)
The lifespan of the virus was too short to affect rabbits over a long period of time.
c)
Natural selection favored rabbits that were resistant to the virus. 
d)
No correct choices.
332.
Which of the following statements gives the most likely explanation for the presence of two very similar species of squirrels living on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon?
a)
One squirrel traveled across the canyon and started a new population on the other side.
b)
One squirrel traveled across the canyon and interbred with a different population on the other side.
c)
Members of one single squirrel species were geographically separated by the formation of the canyon.
d)
Members of two different squirrel species migrated from two different places to opposite sides of the canyon. 
333.
The Asian shore crab invaded parts of the eastern coast of the United States about 15 years ago. The Asian shore crab preys on blue mussels. In the time since the Asian shore crab arrived, the average shell thickness of the blue mussel population has increased. Which of the following is the most likely reason that this increase in shell thickness has occurred? 
a)
Blue mussels with thick shells attract more crabs that mussels without thick shells.
b)
Blue mussels with thick shells grow in larger colonies than mussels without thick shells.
c)
Blue mussels with thick shells catch more food per day than mussels without thick shells.
d)
Blue mussels with thick shells survive and reproduce more successfully than mussels without thick shells.
334.
Some willow trees alter the chemical composition of their leaves when attacked by caterpillars. Compared to normal leaves, the chemically altered leaves are less nutritious and more difficult for caterpillars to digest.
 Which of the following is a likely effect of this ability to alter leaf composition?
a)
Willow trees with this ability will attract more caterpillars than other willow trees.
b)
Willow trees with this ability have a survival advantage over other willow trees. 
c)
More butterflies will lay their eggs on willow trees with this ability than other willow trees. 
d)
None are correct
335.
The process in which organisms with traits well suited to an environment are more likely to survive and to produce offspring is
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Origin of Species
c)
Genetic Principles
d)
Trait Mechanism
336.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
337.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs in periods of rapid change separated by periods of little or no change is called
a)
divergence
b)
gradualism
c)
punctuated equilibrium
d)
isolation
338.
The formation of new species is a process known as ____________________, which is typically the product of divergence. 
a)
gradualism
b)
speciation
c)
reproductive isolation
d)
subspecies
339.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as
a)
speciation
b)
punctuated equilibrium
c)
gradualism
d)
microevolution
340.
Which of the following statements best reflects the evolutionary importance of the figures pictured?
a)
New genetic instructions have been disregarded in the evolution of vertebrates.
b)
Early in development, vertebrate embryos show no evidence of common ancestry.
c)
All adult vertebrates retain pharyngeal pouches (gills).
d)
The evolutionary history of organisms is seen in the way embryos develop.
341.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
342.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
343.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
344.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
345.
What is a species? 
a)
A group of organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring. 
b)
A group of organisms that can mate and produce offspring even if those offspring are infertile.
c)
A group of organisms that genetically are very different from each other. 
d)
Indivual organisms that live in the same environment. 
346.

The emergence of new rivers or streams is a type of ____________ isolation.

a)

Temporal

b)

Mechanical

c)

Behavioral

d)

Geographic

347.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following must be true in order for organisms to be considered the same species?

a)

They must be able to mate

b)

They must be able to produce viable offspring

c)

They must have structural similaries

d)

They must have the same bone structure

348.
What happens when species produce too many offspring?
a)
Species share the limited resources 
b)
Species eat less so that all can survive
c)
Only those that are least fit can survive
d)
Only those that are best fit can survive
349.
While at the Galapagos Islands, Charles Darwin found that:
a)
There were slight differences in finches from island to island
b)
There were slight differences in finches on the islands compared to the mainland
c)
The shape of the finches beaks were different on each island
d)
All possible multiple choice answers
350.
Variations in a population are caused by:
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Random Mutations
351.
If an environment changes, populations with ______________ have a better chance of survival.
a)
No genetic variations
b)
Genetic variations
c)
A small number
d)
A large number
352.
The climate of a certain area is cold, and snow is found on the ground most of the year. Equal numbers of two populations of rabbits are introduced into this climate by a group of scientists. One of the populations is brown and the other is white. Predict what will happen over several generations.
a)
There will be equal numbers of brown and white rabbits
b)
There will be more brown rabbits that white rabbits
c)
There will be more white rabbits than brown rabbits
d)
There is no way to predict what will happen to the rabbit population
353.
The variations within a population will most likely be passed on to future generations if they are: 
a)
Due to a mutation and result in beneficial variations
b)
Due to a mutation and result in harmful variations
c)
Not due to a mutation and result in harmful variations
d)
Not due to a mutation and result in beneficial variations
354.
Organisms with the most beneficial traits will survive.  This is commonly known as ___.
a)
theory of evolution
b)
variations
c)
survival of the fittest
d)
ecosystems
355.
Bacteria undergo which type of reproduction? 
a)
asexual
b)
sexual
356.

how are bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics?

a)

bacteria does not become resistant to antibiotics.

b)

by a genetic mutation/by acquiring resistance from another bacterium.

c)

by wishing they were resistant.

d)

antibiotic resistance does not exist.

357.

Antibiotic resistant bacteria are a problem because:

a)

It is more difficult to treat people infected with them

b)

bacteria smell pretty bad

c)

viruses them grow out of control

d)

they are not a problem, I love being sick

358.
This kind of structure is when the structures have the same function but have a different structure/form. 
a)
analogous structure
b)
homologous structure
c)
vestigial structure
359.
Look at the image, what layer is the second oldest?
a)
Layer L
b)
Layer G
c)
Layer B
d)
Layer J
360.
What kind of evidence is shown in this image?
a)
anatomical evidence
b)
fossil evidence
c)
molecular evidence
361.
If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a)
close relative
b)
early ancestor
c)
unrelated organism
d)
embryological stage
362.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
363.
If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
a)
species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor
b)
species A evolved independently of species B for a long period
c)
species A is younger than species B
d)
species A is older than species B
364.

The Endosymbiotic Theory explains

a)

the origin of prokaryotes

b)

how bacteria lives

c)

the origin of eukaryotes

d)

how species develop

365.

Two students are reading an article about the evidence of the endosymbiotic theory. As they are reading, they have drawn images of what they believe to be occurring on index cards. The two students are engaging in a discussion on how the index cards should be ordered to accurately show the evolution of eukaryotic cells.


Student A claims the order should be B, E, D, A, C. Their reasoning is that since the small circles without lines in the index cards represent chloroplasts, photosynthesizing organisms evolved before aerobic organisms.

Student B claims the order should be B, A, C, E, D. Their reasoning is that since the small ovals with lines in the index cards represent mitochondria, respiratory organisms evolved before photosynthesizing organisms


Use the diagram to answer the question. Which statement below is accurate about the discussion above?

a)

student A has a correct ordering of index cards but incorrect reasoning.

b)

student B has a correct ordering of index cards and correct reasoning.

c)

Student A has a correct ordering of index cards and correct reasoning.

d)

Student B has a correct ordering of index cards but incorrect reasoning.

366.

_____ and _____ are organelles that arose from endosymbiosis

a)

nucleus and cell membrane

b)

mitochondria and chloroplasts

c)

cell wall and chloroplasts

d)

mitochondria and nucleus

367.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?

a)

growth and development

b)

ability to maintain homeostasis

c)

ability to talk

d)

ability to reproduce

368.

The science of describing, classifying, and naming living things is called:

a)

Geology

b)

Biology

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Chemistry

369.
The 8 levels of classification, broadest to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
370.
An organism made up of more than one cell would be called:
a)
multicellular
b)
unicellular
c)
heterotroph
d)
autotroph
371.

Which 2 organisms would be able to reproduce and produce fertile offspring?

a)

2 organisms in the same class

b)

2 organisms in the same family

c)

2 organisms in the same genus

d)

2 organisms in the same species

372.
An example of an unicellular organism would be:
a)
monkey
b)
bacteria
c)
spider
d)
human
373.

The scientific name for an organism is made from the:

a)

class and family name

b)

genus and species name

c)

domain and kingdom name

d)

kingdom and phylum name

374.

Term given to describe the 2 part (name) naming system is:

a)

dichotmous key

b)

binomial nomenclature

c)

2 scientific names

d)

binomial key

375.

Which taxonomic group will have organisms that share the most traits?

a)

domain

b)

kingdom

c)

species

d)

class

376.

The taxon with the largest amount of organisms grouped together...

a)

Species

b)

Phylum

c)

Kingdom

d)

Domain

377.

Scientists around the world use a standardized taxonomic system. Why would scientists want to use a taxonomic system that is standardized?

a)

In order to avoid confusion with the identification of organisms

b)

Because Linnaeus established the system

c)

So that Latin names can be applied for a practical purpose

d)

In order to place organisms in different groups

378.

What is the genus name here:

Canis lupus

a)

Canis

b)

lupus

379.

The scientific name for a raccoon is written below in several different ways. Which one is written in the correct form?

a)

Procyon lotor

b)

Procyon lotor

c)

Procyon Lotor

d)

PROCYON LOTOR

380.
Which organisms pictured on the cladogram have hair?
a)
prosimians only
b)
prosimians and humans
c)
humans only
d)
prosimians and birds
381.
From the table, which two animals are MOST CLOSELY related
a)
House Cate and Red Fox
b)
Red Fox and Dog
c)
Dog and Wolf
d)
Wolf and Gopher
382.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
383.
A dichotomous key for insects is given. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?
a)
Coleoptera
b)
Heteroptera
c)
Diptera
d)
Lepidoptera
384.
What step do we always start with when using dichotomous keys?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
385.
The first part of a scientific name is an organism's _______________ and the second part is its ________________.
a)
species, genus
b)
phylum, order
c)
class, spices
d)
genus, species
386.

what kingdom?- eukaryotic, multi-celled-photosynthetic.

a)

animal

b)

plant

c)

protist

d)

fungi

387.

What kingdom-Prokaryotic-lives in hot,salts environments

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

archaebacteria

d)

eubacteria

388.

What kingdom- eukaryotic-multi-celled-heterotrophic

a)

plant

b)

animal

c)

protista

d)

fungi

389.

What kingdom- prokaryotic-single celled-found on humans & other surfaces

a)

eubacteria

b)

archaebacteria

c)

protists

d)

fungi

390.

WHAT KINGDOM-EUKARYOTIC-MOST SINGLE CELLED-PHOTOSYNTHETIC AND HETEROTROPHIC

a)

PLANT

b)

ANIMAL

c)

PROTIST

d)

FUNGI

391.

HOW MANY KINGDOMS ARE THERE?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

392.

MUSHROOMS ARE IN WHAT KINGDOM

a)

PLANT

b)

ANIMAL

c)

FUNGI

d)

PROTIST

393.

AMOEBA-PARAMECIUM-EUGLENA-DINOFLAGELLATES BELONG TO WHAT KINGDOM

a)

PLANT

b)

PROTIST

c)

FUNGI

d)

ANIMAL

e)

ARCHAEBACTERIA

394.

APES BELONG TO WHAT KINGDOM

a)

PLANT

b)

ANIMAL

c)

FUNGI

d)

PROTIST

395.

ATHLETES FOOT IS CAUSED BY MEMBERS OF WHAT KINGDOM

a)

PROTIST

b)

FUNGI

c)

EUBACTERIA

396.

RINGWORM IS CAUSED BY MEMBERS OF WHAT KINGDOM

a)

PLANT

b)

ANIMAL

c)

PROTIST

d)

FUNGI

397.

STREP THROAT IS CAUSED BY MEMBERS OF WHAT KINGDOM

a)

EUBACTERIA

b)

ARCHAEBACTERIA

c)

PROTIST

d)

FUNGI

398.

DECOMPOSERS CAUSE WOOD TO ROT-WHAT KINGDOMS ARE DECOMPOSERS

a)

PLANT - ANIMAL

b)

PROTIST-BACTERIA

c)

BACTERIA-FUNGI

d)

FUNGI-PROTIST

399.

CAUSES DISEASE-NO NUCLEUS

a)

FUNGI

b)

BACTERIA

c)

PROTIST

400.

HAS A CELL WALL

a)

FUNGI-ANIMALS

b)

SOME BACTERIA-FUNGI

c)

SOME BACTERIA-FUNGI-PLANTS

d)

SOME PROTIST-ANIMALS

401.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Ray finned fish
c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
402.
According to this cladogram, birds are LEAST related to: 
a)
Amphibians
b)
Sharks
c)
Ray Finned Fish
d)
Crocodiles
403.
Which trait do only humans have, according to the cladogram?
a)
jaws
b)
mammary glands & hair
c)
terrestrial during all life stages
d)
bipedal & opposable thumbs
404.
Cladograms are constructed by grouping organisms together based on their____________ characteristics.
a)
shared
b)
different
c)
similar
d)
opposite
405.
Which two orgainsms have hair? 
a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)
Rabbits & Birds
406.

Which species is most closely related to species C?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

407.

Which is the newest trait?

a)

Amniotic egg

b)

Walking legs

c)

Jaws

d)

Hair

408.

Which trait(s) do conifers have?

a)

vascular tissue only

b)

vascular tissue and seeds

c)

vascular tissue, seeds and flowers

d)

seeds only

409.

According to this image, which two domains of life are most related?

a)

Bacteria & Archaea

b)

Archaea & Eukarya

c)

Eukarya & Bacteria

410.

According to this phylogenetic tree, which creature is the least related out of all pictured?

a)

Fish

b)

Frog

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

411.

What do you call the traits shown on phylogenetic trees, such as "four limbs" or "vertebrae"?

a)

Derived characteristics

b)

Speedy Lambofeeties

c)

Branching elements

d)

Harmonious changes

412.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

413.

What number is the common ancestor of C and D

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

414.

From the picture above, What do the species all have in common?

a)

Back bone

b)

Same father

c)

Common ancestor

d)

Feathers

415.
Which of the following organisms are LEAST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share a species 
416.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

417.

Who is the closest relative to the brown bear?

a)

Giant panda

b)

Dog

c)

Lesser panda

d)

Sun bear

418.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
419.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
420.
When a virus invades a living cell, its _______
takes over the cell's functions.
a)
outer coat
b)
genetic material
c)
core
d)
cytoplasm
421.
What provides direct energy for the virus?
a)
food
b)
its host
c)
the sun
d)
a parasite
422.
Antibiotics kill viruses
a)
True
b)
False
423.
Non-living factor that affects an ecosystem
a)
biotic factor
b)
abiotic factor
c)
food chain 
d)
biome
424.
What is the original source of almost all energy in most ecosystems?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
sunlight
c)
water
d)
carbon
425.
A collection of organisms that belong to different populations but all live in the same area and interact with one another.
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Ecosphere
426.
Evaporation of water from the leaves of a plant gives of purified water to be evaporated.
a)
precipitation
b)
concentration
c)
transpiration
d)
evaporation
427.

A bee receives nectar from a flower and carries the pollen to other flowers:

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

428.

Mistletoe grows and spreads on trees, taking their nutrients:

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

429.

What would be a good example of a primary consumer?

a)

carnivore

b)

detrivore

c)

decomposer

d)

herbivore

430.

Which organisms would be at the top or last trophic level?

a)

plant

b)

herbivore

c)

omnivore

d)

carnivore

431.

The monkey would be a

a)

decomposer

b)

producer

c)

primary consumer

d)

secondary consumer

432.

Introduced species disrupt ecosystems because they are a/an

a)

Keystone Species

b)

Endemic Species

c)

Invasive Species

d)

Native Species

433.

Barnacles do not affect whales as they grow, but receive the benefit of a food source. This is

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

commensalism

d)

neutralism

434.

Mice might grow in population and destroy the community by eating all of the berry bushes if

a)

wolves and snakes were removed from the food web

b)

another predator migrated in to the community

c)

the snake population grew

d)

none of these

435.

These organisms are often not shown in a food chain, but are important for recycling nutrients

a)

producers

b)

decomposers

c)

primary consumers

d)

carnivores

436.

A lion that eats a zebra that eats grass is a

a)

primary consumer

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

quaternary consumer

437.

90% of the energy that gets lost as you move up a food pyramid or chain gets lost as

a)

pollution to the environment

b)

heat to the environment

c)

energy for decomposers

d)

gets recycled

438.

What percentage of energy is passed on to the next trophic level?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

50%

d)

90%

439.

In the wild, some alligators gets their teeth cleaned by birds. The birds gets their food from the alligators' teeth.

What type of symbiosis is this?

a)

Mutualism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Neutralism

440.

In this photo, what is an abiotic factor?

a)

Deer

b)

Grass

c)

rain

441.

What is this picture describing?

a)

It is describing natural selection.

b)

It is describing direct competition between flamingos and ducks.

c)

It is describing abiotic factors of the tundra.

d)

It is describing the niche of each bird.

442.

What Biome is covered in permafrost (frozen subsoils)?

a)

Tropical Rain Forest

b)

Desert

c)

Tundra

d)

Tropical Savanna

443.

What Biome is also known as the grasslands?

a)

Tropical Rain Forest

b)

Desert

c)

Tundra

d)

Tropical Savanna

444.

What Biome is very dry; receives very little rainfall?

a)

Tropical Rain Forest

b)

Desert

c)

Tundra

d)

Tropical Savanna

445.

What Biome is covered in a dense canopy and an understory?

a)

Tropical Rain Forest

b)

Desert

c)

Tundra

d)

Tropical Savanna

446.
What are the two parts of an ecosystem?
a)
water and sunlight
b)
all living and nonliving organisms
c)
producers and consumers
d)
soil and nutrients
447.
_______ is the study of relationships among living and nonliving parts of an environment. 
a)
Ecosystem
b)
Niche
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecology
448.
What is a niche?
a)
the place where a species lives
b)
what a species eats
c)
the role of a species
d)
how a species uses resources
449.
The process by which plants use sunlight to make sugar from water and carbon dioxide is called 
a)
pollination
b)
photosysthesis
c)
scavenging
d)
fertilization
450.
A food chain is a diagram of how 
a)
communities are connected
b)
energy and nutrients pass among organisms in an ecosystem
c)
producers make food
d)
an ecosystem develops and changes
451.
Consumers cannot do which of the following
a)
give off carbon dioxide
b)
change sugars into energy
c)
give off oxygen
d)
carry out respiration
452.
In an energy pyramid, 
a)
the organisms in each level eat those in the level below them
b)
the amount of energy increases as you move up each level
c)
producers are at the top
d)
the smallest organisms are at the top
453.
How do cells use nitrogen compounds?
a)
to grow and repair cells
b)
to produce energy
454.
How does water cycle through the nonliving parts of the ecosystem?
a)
water returns through organisms wastes
b)
roots take in water from soil
c)
when an organism dies, water is recycled into the ecosystem
d)
water evaporates from the land and oceans and forms water vapor
455.
How does water cycle through the nonliving parts of the ecosystem?
a)
water returns through organisms wastes
b)
roots take in water from soil
c)
when an organism dies, water is recycled into the ecosystem
d)
water evaporates from the land and oceans and forms water vapor
456.
Which of the following is an organism that eats only meat?
a)
herbivore
b)
carnivore
c)
omnivore
457.
What would most likely happen if the rabbit population was removed from the food chain grass —› rabbit —› fox?
a)
their would be more grass
b)
there would be less rabbits
c)
there would be more fox
458.
Which is an example of a parasitic relationship?
a)
a bee pollinates a flower
b)
a tapeworm takes nutrients from a dog
c)
an orchid lives in a tree but does not harm the tree
459.
An oxpecker bird eats ticks off of a zebra.  The bird gets food from eating the ticks and the zebra has harmful parasites removed.  Which type of symbiosis is this?
a)
mutualism
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
460.
This Age Structure Diagram indicates _______
a)
Rapid Growth
b)
Slowing Growth
c)
Zero Growth
d)
Negative Growth
461.
All these organisms share the same
a)
Biome
b)
Population
c)
Community
d)
Habitat
462.
Bacteria which convert nitrogen gas into bio-available forms of nitrogen, such as ammonia and nitrate, are known as _____
a)
De-nitrification bacteria 
b)
Nitrogen fixing bacteria
c)
Oxidizers
d)
Buffers
463.
Which of these is not a characteristic share by all living things
a)
Growth and Development
b)
Reproduction
c)
Movement
d)
Homeostatis 
464.
Fungi are a  ________
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Heterotroopers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Primary Consumers
465.
Which is not a biome found in North America?
a)
Mojave Desert
b)
Grasslands of the Great Plains
c)
Everglades / Coastal Plain
d)
Tropical Rain Forest 
466.
In the Article "The Critical Link", breaking down barriers that deny women access to health care, family planning, education, land ownership, employment and credit is linked to ________
a)
Higher Mortality Rate
b)
Higher Fertility Rate
c)
Lower Fertility Rate
d)
Lower Mortality Rate
467.
The area between the highest mountain and the deepest ocean where life can be found
a)
Biosphere
b)
Biome
c)
Farm
d)
Ecosystem
468.
A large increase in the number of birds in the food web would most likely result in
a)
a decrease in the number of grasshoppers.
b)
an increase in the number of grasshoppers. 
c)
an increase in the number of producers and grasshoppers. 
d)
a decrease in the number of producers. 
469.
Identify a consumer in this food web that eats producers.
a)
grass
b)
squirrel 
c)
vulture
d)
cougar
470.
In any population there will be individuals with traits that give them an advantage over others in the population and are more likely to survive and reproduce. This is part of which principle?
a)
mutations
b)
natural selection
c)
genetic resistance
d)
translation
471.

In the diagram, the various shapes of the beaks show how the birds

a)

compete for the same food in their community.

b)

require different amounts of food for survival.

c)

store food for the winter months.

d)

are adapted to get food from different sources.

472.

What do the arrows in the diagram represent?

a)

flow of energy

b)

life cycle stages

c)

ecological succession

d)

renewable resource deletion

473.

grass --> grasshopper --> sparrow --> hawk

In the food chain above, which organism would be found on level B of the energy pyramid shown?

a)

grass

b)

grasshopper

c)

sparrow

d)

hawk

474.

In the image, there are two versions of the same species of moth. Which adaptation protected the dark-colored moths from predators?

a)

breeding

b)

migration

c)

camouflage

d)

hibernation

475.
Consumer that eats plants
a)
heterotroph
b)
herbivore
c)
producer
d)
community
476.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source. 
477.
Which of the following leads to a decrease in biodiversity?
a)
protection of ecosystems
b)
pollution control
c)
selective cutting
d)
introduction of exotic or invasive species
478.
In the food web shown, the snail would be considered...
a)
primary consumer
b)
secondary consumer
c)
tertiary consumer
d)
producer
479.

All of the biotic and abiotic factors.

a)

community

b)

ecosystem

c)

population

480.

The cytoskeleton is important because

a)

It gives the cell its shape

b)

It strengthens the cells

c)

It helps the cells move and divide

d)

All of the above

481.

The following features are found only in the plant cell

a)

Lysosome

b)

Cell wall

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Central vacuole

482.

The following is found inside the nucleus

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

DNA

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Nucleolus

483.

The main function of rough ER is

a)

Fat production

b)

Protein production

c)

Breaking down alcohol and drugs

d)

Delivering proteins to Golgi Body

484.

It is mainly membrane-enclosed spaces stacked on top of each other

a)

Rough ER

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Golgi Apparatus

485.

Centrosome and centrioles play a major role in

a)

Cell movement

b)

Cell division

c)

Cell contraction

d)

Cell membrane

486.
A possible explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested. 
a)
data
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
d)
fact
487.
What are the basic building blocks of life?
a)
Atoms
b)
Cells
c)
Tissues
d)
Organs
488.
In order for something to be considered a living organism, it must display _____ of the eight characteristics of living things.
a)
all
b)
some
c)
one
d)
more than half
489.
All living things grow and develop. _________ is an increase in mass, while _________ results in different abilities.
a)
Growth ; Development
b)
Development ; Growth
490.
A plant growing towards sunlight would be an example of which characteristic of life? Select the best answer.
a)
Response to a stimuli
b)
Capable of reproduction
c)
Made up of cells
d)
Growth and development
491.

What part is this and what is it responsible for?

a)

Stem, transports water and nutrients.

b)

Leaves, help absorb water and nutrients

c)

Leaves, to provide shade.

d)

Leaves, carry out photosynthesis

492.

When a plant changes to make sure it can survive, what do we call it?

a)

Adaptation

b)

Addition

c)

Surviving variables

d)

Phototropism

493.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
494.

If a substance has the elements CHO and is not soluble in water, which of the macromolecules would this substance be?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protien

d)

Nucleic Acid

495.
The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.
a)
Iron
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Carbon
d)
Oxygen
496.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 2 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
497.
Which macromolecule is shown?
 View Figure 4 (if not visible)
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
498.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
499.
Proteins are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
500.
Which one is NOT a function for Carbohydrates?
a)
Short Term Energy
b)

Support Structures for Cell Walls

c)
Digestion
d)

Plant Storage of Sugars

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