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chemistry 2nd semester test

Total questions: 268

Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A balanced chemical equation allows one to determine the

a)

mole ratio of any two substances in the reaction

b)

energy released in the reaction

c)

electron configuration of all elements in the reaction

d)

mechanism involved in the reaction

2.

Actual yield must be determined by

a)

experiments

b)

calculations

c)

theoretical yield

d)

estimation

3.

How many mole ratios can be correctly obtained from the chemical equation 2Al2O3 (l) ---> 4Al(s) + 3 O2(g)

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

4.

In the equation 2Al2O3(l)-----> 4Al (s) + 3O2 (g), what is the mole ratio of aluminum to oxygen.

a)

10:6

b)

3:4

c)

2:3

d)

4:3

5.

Fewer steps are required to solve stoichiometry problems when

a)

the reactant is given in grams and the product is sought in grams

b)

the reactant is given in moles and the product is sought in moles

c)

the reactant is given in grams and the product is sought in liters

d)

the reactant is given in liters and the product is sought in number of atoms

6.

the participation of reactants in a chemical reaction is controlled by the

a)

limiting reactant

b)

limiting product

c)

excess reactant

d)

excess product

7.

For a chemical reaction, percentage yield represents the

a)

speed

b)

individual steps

c)

efficiency

d)

rate

8.

The limiting reactant of a reaction can be used to calculate the

a)

actual yield

b)

theoretical yield

c)

experimental yield

d)

both (a) and (c)

9.

In most chemical reactions, the amount of product obtained is

a)

equal to the theoretical yield

b)

less than the theoretical yield

c)

more than the theoretical yield

d)

more than the percentage yield

10.

knowing the mole ratio of a reactant and product in a chemical reaction would allow you to determine

a)

the energy released in the reaction

b)

the speed of the reaction

c)

the mass of the product produced from a known mass of reactant

d)

whether the reaction is reversible

11.

If a chemist calculates the maximum amount of product that could be obtained in a chemical reaction, he or she is calculating the

a)

theoretical yield

b)

percentage yield

c)

mole ratio

d)

actual yield

12.

The kinetic-molecular theory of gases assumes that the particles of an ideal gas are separated by great distances. This implies that the gas particles are considered to have no definite

a)

mass

b)

volume

c)

density

d)

energy

13.

According to the equation for the kinetic energy of a moving object, which gas would have the lowest average velocity, assuming all gases are at the same temperature?

a)

O2

b)

H2

c)

H2O

d)

O3

14.

Sublimation involves changing from a

a)

solid to a gas

b)

liquid to a gas

c)

gas to a liquid

d)

gas to a solid

15.

Liquids and solids are much denser than gases because the particles of liquids and solids have a

a)

greater mass

b)

closer arrangement

c)

greater volume

d)

smaller volume

16.

An increase in pressure exerted on a liquid does not compress the liquid as much as the same increase in pressure compresses a gas because

a)

particles are more closely packed in liquids

b)

liquids transmit pressure in all directions

c)

intermolecular forces are stronger in liquids

d)

particles in liquids are in constant movement

17.

When there is a small decrease in temperature, the average kinetic energy of the particles of a liquid

a)

decrease

b)

becomes zero

c)

is not changed

d)

increases

18.

The movements of particles in solids can best be describes as

a)

from point to point

b)

vibrational

c)

not in motion

d)

like a lattice

19.

Amorphous solids behave like liquids at certain temperatures because of their

a)

particle fluidity

b)

incompressibility

c)

high density

d)

random arrangement

20.

Which of the following is true for the melting and freezing points of a pure substance?

a)

the melting point is higher than the freezing point

b)

the melting point is lower than the freezing point

c)

the melting point is the same as the freezing point

d)

there is no relationship between the freezing point and the melting point

21.

A phase diagram related the state of matter, pressure, and

a)

temperature

b)

volume

c)

mass

d)

weight

22.

On a phase diagram, the point at which all equilibrium lines join is the

a)

melting point

b)

boiling point

c)

critical point

d)

triple point

23.

According to the equation KE = 1/2 mv^2, if hydrogen molecules and oxygen molecules are at the same temperature, hydrogen molecules will have

a)

less kinetic energy

b)

more kinetic energy

c)

higher average speeds

d)

lower average speeds

24.

As atmospheric pressure on the surface of a liquid decreases, its boiling point

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

remains unchanged

d)

shows no correlation

25.

Which of the following is an assumption of the kinetic-molecular theory of gases?

a)

collisions between gas particles are inelastic

b)

gases consist of closely spaced particles

c)

gas particles move around in an orderly manner

d)

the temperature of a gas depends on the average kinetic energy of the gas particles

26.

If a gas has the same temperature throughout, which gas molecule has the highest average velocity?

a)

O2

b)

H2O

c)

H2

d)

Xe

27.

Rates of effusion of different gases are proportional to their

a)

polarity

b)

particle charge

c)

particle velocities

d)

compressibility

28.

Which states of matter are fluid?

a)

gases and liquids

b)

liquids and solids

c)

gases only

d)

liquids only

29.

A liquid can be described as a form of matter that

a)

has a definite volume

b)

has a definite shape

c)

cannot diffuse

d)

has low density

30.

According to the kinetic-molecular theory, particles in a liquid

a)

are bound together in fixed positions

b)

are packed together in an orderly arrangement

c)

move around randomly and constantly

d)

vibrate only

31.

Which of the following is not an example of an intermolecular force?

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

dispersion forces

c)

gravitational forces

d)

dipole-dipole forces

32.

Surface tension does not account for which of the following phenomena?

a)

ability to diffuse

b)

meniscus formation

c)

capillary action

d)

decreasing surface area

33.

A liquid becomes a gas during

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

sublimation

d)

deposition

34.

If energy as heat is removed, most liquids will eventually

a)

freeze

b)

burn

c)

evaporate

d)

diffuse

35.

The three states of matter of a particular substance, in order of the strength of intermolecular forces from least to greatest, are

a)

solid, liquid, gas

b)

liquid, solid, gas

c)

gas, liquid, solid

d)

gas, solid, liquid

36.

What is an example of an amorphous solid?

a)

emerald

b)

quarts

c)

ice

d)

glass

37.

Which of the following is not a physical property of crystalline solids?

a)

definite shape

b)

definite melting point

c)

low rate of diffusion

d)

high compressibility

38.

Which is an example of a polar covalent molecular crystal?

a)

H2O

b)

H2

c)

NaCl

d)

CCl4

39.

The bonds that link water molecules together are said to be

a)

dispersion forces

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

dipole-dipole forces

d)

don't exist

40.

What is the reason for the relatively low density of ice?

a)

empty spaces between molecules

b)

the high number of hydrogen bonds

c)

the small size of hydrogen and oxygen atoms

d)

the low molar mass of water

41.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

particles of a gas collide with each other in elastic collisions

b)

particles of a gas collide with their container only

c)

particles of a gas collide with each other in inelastic collisions

d)

particles of a gas never collide

42.

Which is NOT an assumption of the kinetic-molecular theory?

a)

collisions between gas particles are elastic

b)

all gases at a given temperature have the same average kinetic energy

c)

all the gas particles in a sample have the same velocity

d)

a gas particle is not significantly attracted or repelled by other gas particles

43.

A sealed flask contains neon, argon, and krypton gas. If the total pressure in the flask is 3.782 atm, the partial pressure of Ne is 0.435 atm, and the partial pressure of Kr is 1.613 atm, what is the partial pressure of Ar?

a)

1.318 atm

b)

2.048 atm

c)

1.556 atm

d)

1.734 atm

44.

The theory that describes the behavior of gases in terms of the motion of gas particles is ____________.

a)

Dalton's Law of partial pressures

b)

Graham's law of effusion

c)

the kinetic molecular theory

d)

the theory of intermolecular forces

45.

Explain what would happen to the column of mercury in a barometer if the atmospheric pressure fell.

a)

as the pressure falls, the column of mercury will drop lower

b)

as the pressure falls, the density of the mercury will increase

c)

as the pressure falls, the column of mercury will remain unchanged

d)

as the pressure falls, the column of mercury will rise higher

46.

Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds?

a)

CH3

b)

BaH3

c)

NH3

d)

NaH3

47.

In a polar molecule, which atoms will have the greatest partial negative charge?

a)

the smallest atom

b)

the largest atom

c)

the least electronegative atom

d)

the most electronegative atom

48.

Which intermolecular force depends on the formation of a temporary dipole?

a)

ionic bonding

b)

hydrogen bonding

c)

dispersion forces

d)

dipole-dipole forces

49.

The unit cell of a crystalline solid is _____.

a)

determined by the temperature at which a solid forms

b)

always cubic

c)

the building block whose shape determines the shape of the crystal

d)

held together by intramolecular forces

50.

Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide. What combination of factors can change dry ice into a liquid?

a)

increase both temperature and pressure

b)

decrease both temperature and pressure

c)

increase temperature and decrease pressure

d)

decrease temperature and increase pressure

51.

What would the phase of water at a temperature of 110 degrees Celsius and a pressure of 200 atmospheres?

a)

liquid

b)

solid

c)

triple point

d)

gas

52.

In a container filled with one mole of helium and one mole of nitrogen, the pressure in the container is primarily

a)

the pressure exerted by nitrogen

b)

zero

c)

the sum of the pressures exerted by nitrogen and helium

d)

the pressure exerted by helium

53.

Equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of particles

a)

Gay-Lussac's Law

b)

Avogadro's principle

c)

Boyle's law

d)

Charles's law

54.

one mole of any gas will occupy a volume of 22.4 L at STP

a)

molar volume

b)

ideal gas law

c)

combined gas law

d)

ideal gas constant

55.

represents the relationship among pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas present

a)

combined gas law

b)

molar volume

c)

ideal gas law

d)

ideal gas constant

56.

temperature, pressure, and volume are related for a fixed amount of gas

a)

combined gas law

b)

ideal gas law

c)

Boyle's law

d)

Charles's law

57.

the physical behavior of an ideal gas can be expressed in term of the pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas present

a)

Gay-Lussac's law

b)

combined gas law

c)

ideal gas law

d)

Charles's law

58.

the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the kelvin temperature when the volume remains constant

a)

Gay-Lussac's Law

b)

ideal gas law

c)

Charles's law

d)

Boyle's law

59.

the volume of a given amount of gas held at a constant temperature varies inversely with the pressure

a)

Gay-Lussac's Law

b)

Boyle's Law

c)

Charles's law

d)

Avogadro's principle

60.

the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its kelvin temperature at constant pressure

a)

combined gas law

b)

Boyle's law

c)

Gay-Lussac's Law

d)

Charles's Law

61.

Volume : increases

Pressure : stays the same

temperature : ______

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

62.

volume : increases

pressure : ______

temperature : stays the same

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

63.

volume : stays the same

pressure : increases

temperature : ________

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

64.

volume : ______

pressure : increases

temperature : stays the same

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

65.

volume : _______

pressure : stays the same

temperature : increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

66.

volume : stays the same

pressure : ________

temperature : increases

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

67.

volume : decreases

pressure : stays the same

temperature : ______

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

68.

volume : decreases

pressure : _________

temperature : stays the same

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

69.

which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

a)

barometer

b)

manometer

c)

vacuum pump

d)

torrometer

70.

according to avogadro's law, 1 L of H2(g) and 1 L of O2(g) at the same temperature and pressure

a)

have the same mass

b)

have unequal volumes

c)

contain 1 mole of gas each

d)

contain equal numbers of molecules

71.

what is the percent by mass of NaCl in a solution that contains 17.5 g NaCl per 500.0 g of water?

a)

3.38%

b)

14.8%

c)

3.50%

d)

3.61%

72.

Sucrose dissolves in water because _________

a)

both water and sucrose are polar molecules

b)

both water and sucrose have high melting points

c)

both water and sucrose are molecular compounds

d)

sucrose is an ionic compound

73.

the decrease in solubility of a gas in a solution when the pressure is reduced is described by

a)

the ideal gas law

b)

charles's law

c)

boyle's law

d)

henry's law

74.

H2SO4 is a

a)

diprotic base

b)

diprotic acid

c)

monoprotic acid

d)

monoprotic base

75.

which of the following is a weak acid?

a)

HF

b)

HNO3

c)

HCl

d)

HClO4

76.

Kw is the product of _____________

a)

[H+] and [OH-]

b)

[H20] and [H2O]

c)

[H2O] and [H+]

d)

[H2O] and [OH-]

77.

Calculate the H+ ion and OH- ion concentrations in a 0.50M solution of HBr. Assume HBr is a strong acid.

a)

[H+] = 0.50M and [OH-] = 2.0 x 10^-14

b)

[H+] = 1.0x10^-7 and [OH-] = 1.0 x 10 ^-7

c)

[H+] = 0.50M and [OH-] = 2.0M

d)

[H+]=0.50M and [OH-]= 0.50M

78.

pH is defined as __________

a)

-log[OH-]

b)

-log[H+]

c)

log[H+]

d)

log[OH-]

79.

what is the net ionic equation for the neutralization reaction between HF and KOH?

a)

H+ + KOH --> H2O + K+

b)

K+ + F- --> KF

c)

H+ + OH- ---> H2O

d)

HF + OH- --> H20 + F-

80.

Which of these reactions has the net ionic equation shown below?


H3O+(aq) + OH-(aq) ---> 2 H2O(l)

a)

Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 --> 2NaNO3(aq) + BaSO4(s)

b)

2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) ---> H2(g) + 2NaOH(aq)

c)

KCL(aq) + AhNO3(aq) ---> AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq)

d)

HCL(aq) + NaOH(aq) ---> NaCl (aq) + H2O(l)

81.

17.5 mL of 0.1000M NaOH was required to neutralize 25.0 mL of HCL. What was the molarity of the HCL?

a)

0.0700M HCL

b)

0.0300M HCL

c)

14.3M HCL

d)

3.00M HCL

82.

Which of the properties listed below is not a characteristic of an acid?

a)

a sour taste

b)

a slippery feel

c)

the ability to conduct an electric current

d)

reactivity with metals

83.

Bases taste

a)

sweet

b)

sour

c)

bitter

d)

have no taste at all

84.

How many stages of ionization does phosphoric acid (H3PO4) go through?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

85.

In the following reaction, NaOH +HF --> NaF + H2O, the salt has ___________ properties.

a)

acidic

b)

basic

c)

neutral

d)

amphoteric

86.

Which of the following compounds is not amphoteric?

a)

H2SO4

b)

H2O

c)

NH3

d)

H2PO4

87.

the process in which an acid-base neutralization reaction is used to determine the concentration of a solution of unknown concentration

a)

titrant

b)

titration

c)

end point

d)

neutralization reaction

88.

a reaction in which an acid and a base react in aqueous solution to produce a salt and water

a)

neutralization reaction

b)

titrant

c)

titration

d)

equivalence point

89.

a chemical dye whose color is affected by acidic and basic solution

a)

end point

b)

titrant

c)

acid-base indicator

d)

titration

90.

the point at which the moles of hydrogen ions from the acid equals moles of hydroxide ions from the base

a)

end point

b)

equivalence point

c)

titration

d)

titrant

91.

a solution of known concentration used to titrate a solution of unknown concentration

a)

titration

b)

end point

c)

titrant

d)

acid-base indicator

92.

the point at which the indicator that is used in a titration changes color

a)

end point

b)

equivalence point

c)

acid-base indicator

d)

titrant

93.

The branch of chemistry that is devoted to the study of carbon compounds is ________

a)

inorganic chemistry

b)

organic chemistry

c)

analytic chemistry

d)

physical chemistry

94.

Which of the following compounds is not organic?

a)

C2H5

b)

CH4

c)

C12H22O11

d)

CO2

95.

What is the name given to a series of compounds that differ from one another by a repeating unit?

a)

hydrocarbon series

b)

homologous series

c)

homogeneous series

d)

heterogeneous series

96.

What kind of organic compounds contain benzene rings as part of their structure?

a)

aromatic compounds

b)

adiabatic compounds

c)

alkalinic compounds

d)

aliphatic compounds

97.

In a branched alkane, each branch attached to the main chain is called a(n) ___.

a)

cycloalkane

b)

substituent group

c)

asymmetric carbon

d)

acetylene group

98.

All organic compounds contain the element nitrogen.

a)

true

b)

false

99.

Butane, pentane, and hexane are members of one homologous series

a)

true

b)

false

100.

a carcinogen is a substance that causes cancer

a)

true

b)

false

101.

Compounds that exist in right and left forms have a property called chirality.

a)

true

b)

false

102.

Isomers have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures.

a)

true

b)

false

103.

a hydrocarbon that contains only single bonds

a)

saturated hydrocarbon

b)

unsaturated hydrocarbon

c)

alkane

d)

cyclic hydrocarbon

104.

An unsaturated hydrocarbon, such as ethyne, with one or more triple bonds between carbon atoms in a chain

a)

alkenes

b)

alkanes

c)

alkynes

d)

cycloalkane

105.

An unsaturated hydrocarbon, such as ethene, with one or more double covalent bonds between carbon atoms in a chain

a)

alkanes

b)

alkenes

c)

cycloalkane

d)

alkynes

106.

Cyclic hydrocarbons that contain single bonds only and can have rings with three, four, five, six, or more carbon atoms

a)

cycloalkane

b)

alkane

c)

cyclic hydrocarbon

d)

saturated hydrocarbon

107.

Nonaromatic hydrocarbons, such as alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes

a)

saturated hydrocarbon

b)

aliphatic compound

c)

aromatic compound

d)

unsaturated hydrocarbon

108.

hydrocarbon that contains only single bonds between atoms

a)

unsaturated hydrocarbons

b)

saturated hydrocarbons

c)

alkens

d)

alkanes

109.

organic compounds that contain one or more benzene rings as part of their molecular structure

a)

aliphatic compounds

b)

aromatic compounds

c)

saturated hydrocarbons

d)

unsaturated hydrocarbons

110.

a hydrocarbon that contains at least one double or triple bond between carbon atoms

a)

alkene

b)

unsaturated hydrocarbon

c)

alkyne

d)

saturated hydrocarbon

111.

an organic compound that contains a hydrocarbon ring

a)

cyclic hydrocarbon

b)

cycloalkane

c)

saturated hydrocarbon

d)

unsaturated hydrocarbon

112.

What is the scientific law that states that matter is not created or destroyed, but only transformed in a chemical reaction?

a)

law of conservation of mass

b)

law of conservation of energy

c)

law of conservation of momentum

d)

law of gravity

113.

What is the first step you must take to solve a stoichiometric problem?

a)

write a balanced chemical equation

b)

find the limiting reactant

c)

find the excess reactant

d)

convert given amounts of each substance to moles

114.

Approximately how many grams of Fe2O3 are present in 0.82 mol Fe2O3?

a)

130 g

b)

160 g

c)

80 g

d)

195 g

115.

In the balanced chemical reaction shown below, what is the molar ratio of O2 to CO2?

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)

a)

5 to 3

b)

3 to 1

c)

5 to 4

d)

4 to 3

116.

How many grams of O2 will be produced if 23.2 g of XeF2 reacts with excess water?

a)

2.19 g

b)

1.10 g

c)

3.31 g

d)

4.42 g

117.

Which reactant in the following reaction is in excess when 9.8 grams of Ca(OH)2 is reacted with 9.8 grams of H3PO4?

a)

Ca(OH)2

b)

H3PO4

c)

Ca3(PO4)2

d)

H20

118.

Which of these is NOT a reason for percent yield to be less than theoretical yield?

a)

Reactants and products might adhere to containers.

b)

Competing reactions might form other products.

c)

Some product may transform completely into energy.

d)

Some product may be lost in the purification process.

119.

What do the coefficients in the following balanced chemical equation mean?

2H2+O2→2H2O

a)

2 moles of hydrogen and 1 mole of oxygen in the reactants

b)

2 moles of oxygen and 1 mole of hydrogen in the reactants

c)

2 moles of oxygen and 1 mole of hydrogen in the products

d)

)2 moles of hydrogen and 1 mole of oxygen in the products

120.

When the following equation is correctly balanced with the smallest whole-number coefficients, what is the coefficient for H2O?


PBr3+H2O→H3PO3+HBr

a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

121.

In the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between iron(III) oxide and aluminum, what is the molar ratio of Fe to Al?

Fe2O3+2Al→2Fe+Al2O3

a)

1 to 1

b)

2 to 1

c)

3 to 1

d)

1 to 2

122.

What is the scientific law that states that matter is not created or destroyed, but only transformed in a chemical reaction?

a)

law of conservation of mass

b)

law of conservation of energy

c)

law of conservation of momentum

d)

law of gravity

123.

What is the first step you must take to solve a stoichiometric problem?

a)

Write a balanced chemical equation.

b)

Find the limiting reactant

c)

find the excess reactant

d)

convert given amounts of each substance to moles

124.

Approximately how many grams of Fe2O3 are present in 0.82 mol Fe2O3?

a)

130 g

b)

160 g

c)

80 g

d)

195 g

125.

In the balanced chemical reaction shown below, what is the molar ratio of O2 to CO2?

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)

a)

5 to 3

b)

3 to 1

c)

5 to 4

d)

4 to 3

126.

Based on the following equation, how many moles of hydrochloric acid are needed to react with 0.64 moles of potassium permanganate?

2KMnO4 + 8HCl → 3Cl2 + 2MnO2 + 4H2O + 2KCl

a)

2.6 mol HCL

b)

0.21 mol HCL

c)

0.64 mol HCL

d)

5.1 mol HCL

127.

How many moles of CO2 would be produced from 56 moles of O2 according to the following balanced equation?

2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O

a)

16 mol

b)

32 mol

c)

224 mol

d)

48 mol

128.

How many moles of HCl will just react with 0.424 g Ba(OH)2?

2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2H2O

a)

4.94 x 10-3 mol

b)

9.90 x 10-3 mol

c)

2.48 x 10-3 mol

d)

1.24 x 10-3 mol

129.

What mass of SrF2 can be prepared from a reaction of 10.0 g Sr(OH)2 with excess HF?

Sr(OH)2 + 2HF → SrF2 + 2H2O

a)

9.67 g

b)

9.82 g

c)

10.0 g

d)

10.3 g

130.

Natural gas is mostly methane, CH4. When 128 grams of methane is burned in the chemical reaction shown below, how many grams of water vapor are produced?

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

a)

8.00 g

b)

144 g

c)

18.0 g

d)

288 g

131.

In the chemical reaction below, 3.27 grams of Zn are reacted with 3.30 grams of HCl. Which component will limit the reaction?

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

a)

Zn

b)

HCl

c)

ZnCl2

d)

H2

132.

Which reactant in the following reaction is in excess when 9.8 grams of Ca(OH)2 is reacted with 9.8 grams of H3PO4?

3Ca(OH)2 + 2H3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H2O

a)

Ca(OH)2

b)

H3PO4

c)

Ca3(PO4)2

d)

H2O

133.

What is the percent yield of CO2 if a reaction using 10.0 g CO with excess O2 produces 12.8 g CO2?

2CO + O2 → 2CO2

a)

76.40%

b)

78.10%

c)

81.50%

d)

84.40%

134.

What is the percent yield for the reaction between 9.8 grams of Ca(OH)2 and 9.8 grams of H3PO4 when 2.5 grams of Ca3(PO4)2 are actually obtained?

3Ca(OH)2 + 2H3PO4 → Ca3(PO4)2 + 6H2O

a)

18%

b)

9.0%

c)

27%

d)

36%

135.

Which of these is NOT a reason for percent yield to be less than theoretical yield?

a)

Reactants and products might adhere to containers.

b)

Competing reactions might form other products.

c)

Some product may transform completely into energy.

d)

Some product may be lost in the purification process.

136.

Stoichiometry is based on the law of conservation of __.

a)

mass

b)

charge

c)

reactants

d)

volume

137.

In a balanced chemical equation, the numbers of individual particles and the numbers of moles of particles are represented by the __.

a)

chemical symbols

b)

molar masses

c)

coeffiecients

d)

subscripts

138.

Mole ratios for a reaction are obtained from the __. 

a)

balanced chemical equation

b)

periodic table

c)

molar masses

d)

total mass of products

139.

In the decomposition reaction of compound AB into substances A and B, what is the number of mole ratios that can be formed?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

6

d)

9

140.

Calculating the mass of a reactant and product from the number of moles of another product or reactant in a chemical equation is an example of a __.

a)

mass-to-mass conversion

b)

mole-to-mass conversion

c)

mass-to-mole conversion

d)

mole-to-mole conversion

141.

Limiting a reactant is often accomplished by __.

a)

producing excess product

b)

slowing down a chemical reaction

c)

overcoming conservation of mass

d)

using an excess of another reactant

142.

In a reaction, substances A and B form substance C. If the actual mole ratio of substance B to substance A is less than the balanced equation mole ratio of substance B to substance A, substance B is the __.

a)

actual yield

b)

excess reactant

c)

limiting reactant

d)

product

143.

Percent yield of a product is a measure of a reaction’s __.

a)

efficiency

b)

heat production

c)

rate

d)

spontaneity

144.

The actual yield of a product is __.

a)

a negative value

b)

the same as its theoretical yield

c)

independent of the reactants

d)

measured experimentally

145.

The most important industrial chemical in the world is __.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

petroleum

d)

sulfuric acid

146.

theoretical yield

a)

the maximum amount of product that can be produced from a given amount of reactant in a chemical reaction

b)

the amount of product produced when a chemical reaction is carried out

c)

the ratio of actual yield (from an experiment) to theoretical yield (from stoichiometric calculations) expressed as a percent

147.

actual yield

a)

the maximum amount of product that can be produced from a given amount of reactant in a chemical reaction

b)

the amount of product produced when a chemical reaction is carried out

c)

the amount of product produced when a chemical reaction is carried out

148.

percent yield

a)

the maximum amount of product that can be produced from a given amount of reactant in a chemical reaction

b)

the amount of product produced when a chemical reaction is carried out

c)

the ratio of actual yield (from an experiment) to theoretical yield (from stoichiometric calculations) expressed as a percent

149.

How many particles are present in one mole of particles?

a)

6.02 × 1023

b)

3.0 × 103

c)

1

d)

12

150.

The sucrose molecule is a large and complex molecule built of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. How many sucrose molecules are in 0.5 moles of sucrose?

a)

6.02 × 1023

b)

1.20 × 1024

c)

3.01 × 1023

d)

1.20 × 1023

151.

Copper wire consists of copper atoms connected through metallic bonds. Find the moles of copper in 1.87 × 1024 copper atoms.

a)

3.1 moles

b)

1 mole

c)

3 moles

d)

6.02 × 1023

152.

How many moles of chlorine are in 100 g chlorine (Cl2)?

a)

1.41

b)

0.355

c)

64.6

d)

100

153.

Radium is a radioactive element that decays into radon gas. Its atomic mass is 226. How many moles are in 500 grams of radium?

a)

2.2 moles

b)

7.26 moles

c)

3 × 1026 moles

d)

0.452

154.

What is the molar mass of H2CrO4?

a)

118 g/mol

b)

52 g/mol

c)

64 g/mol

d)

148 g/mol

155.

How many moles of C3H8 are present in 451 g C3H8?

a)

10.2 mol

b)

3.84 mol

c)

0.879 mol

d)

1.44 mol

156.

What is the mass of 1.0 × 1012 molecules of O2?

a)

1.9 × 1013 g

b)

6.0 × 1011 g

c)

2.7 × 10−11 g

d)

5.3 × 10−11 g

157.

Acetic acid has the molecular formula CH3COOH. How many atoms of oxygen are there in 60 grams of acetic acid?

a)

6.0 × 1023 atoms of oxygen

b)

1.0 × 1022 atoms of oxygen

c)

3.6 × 1025 atoms of oxygen

d)

1.2 × 1024 atoms of oxygen

158.

How many moles of hydrogen atoms are present in 2.0 moles of ammonia NH3?

a)

3.0 mol

b)

6.0 mol

c)

2.0 mol

159.

What is the percent composition of carbon dioxide, CO2?

a)

27% C and 73% O

b)

73% C and 27% O

c)

33% C and 66% O

d)

50% C and 50% O

160.

Methane (CH4) contains 75% carbon. What percentage of methane is hydrogen?

a)

25%

b)

4%

c)

20%

d)

33%

161.

Analysis of a covalent compound showed that it contained 14.4% hydrogen and 85.6% carbon by mass. What is the empirical formula for this compound?

a)

CH

b)

CH2

c)

CH3

d)

CH4

162.

A sample of a metal salt contains 36.1 % calcium and 63.9 % chlorine. What is the empirical formula?

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl2

c)

Ca2Cl

d)

CaCl2

163.

The empirical formula for a sample of liquid is HO. The molecular weight is 34.0 grams/mole. What is the molecular formula?

a)

H2O

b)

HO

c)

H2O2

d)

HO2

164.

A 25.0-g sample of an unknown hydrocarbon is composed of 12.16 g carbon, 2.027 g hydrogen, and 10.81 g oxygen. If its molar mass is 148 g/mol, what is the molecular formula for this compound?

a)

C4H10O

b)

C6H12O4

c)

C3H6O2

d)

C8H8O5

165.

What is the correct chemical formula for barium hydroxide octahydrate?

a)

Ba(OH)2 • 8H2O

b)

BaOH • 8H2O

c)

8Ba(OH)2 • H2O

d)

8BaOH • H2O

166.

How many moles of oxygen atoms do 1.5 moles of CO2 contain?

a)

3.0 mol

b)

1.0 mol

c)

1.5 mol

d)

2.0 mol

167.

Which of the following compounds has the smallest molar mass?

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

H2O

d)

H2O2

168.

One mole of silicon (Si) has a mass of 28.086 g, and one mole of carbon has a mass of 12.011 g. What is the mass of one mole of silicon carbide (SiC)?

a)

2.340 g

b)

16.075 g

c)

40.097 g

d)

3.3734 × 102 g

169.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) contains 30% carbon. What percentage of carbon dioxide is oxygen?

a)

50%

b)

66%

c)

70%

d)

75%

170.

Sodium bromide dihydrate is correctly written as __.

a)

NaBrH2

b)

(NaBr)2•H2O

c)

NaBr•(HO)2

d)

NaBr•2H2O

171.

As a hydrated compound is heated, it decreases in __.

a)

brightness

b)

color

c)

mass

d)

temperature

172.

The percent composition of carbon is equal to carbon’s atomic mass and has the units g/mol.

a)

true

b)

false

173.

Benzene (C6H6) and acetylene (C2H2) have the same empirical formula but different molecular formulas.

a)

true

b)

false

174.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

particles of a gas never collide

b)

particles of a gas collide with their container only

c)

particles of a gas collide with each other in elastic collisions

d)

particles of a gas collide with each other in inelastic collisions

175.

The measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter is

a)

temperature

b)

speed

c)

velocity

d)

heat

176.

Which is NOT an assumption of the kinetic-molecular theory?

a)

Collisions between gas particles are elastic.

b)

All the gas particles in a sample have the same velocity.

c)

A gas particle is not significantly attracted or repelled by other gas particles.

d)

All gases at a given temperature have the same average kinetic energy.

177.

Which of the following gases will diffuse the fastest at room temperature?

a)

Ne

b)

CO2

c)

N2

d)

H2

178.

What is the ratio of diffusion rates for nitric oxide (NO) and nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4)?

a)

0.306

b)

0.571

c)

1.751

d)

3.066

179.

In a container filled with one mole of helium and one mole of nitrogen, the pressure in the container is primarily

a)

the pressure exerted by nitrogen.

b)

the pressure exerted by helium.

c)

the sum of the pressures exerted by nitrogen and helium.

d)

zero.

180.

A sealed flask contains neon, argon, and krypton gas. If the total pressure in the flask is 3.782 atm, the partial pressure of Ne is 0.435 atm, and the partial pressure of Kr is 1.613 atm, what is the partial pressure of Ar?

a)

2.048 atm

b)

1.734 atm

c)

1.556 atm

d)

1.318 atm

181.

The theory that describes the behavior of gases in terms of the motion of gas particles is __.

a)

the theory of intermolecular forces

b)

Graham's law of effusion

c)

Dalton's law of partial pressures

d)

the kinetic molecular theory

182.

What happens to the density of the gas particles in the cylinder as the piston moves from position A to position B?

a)

Density decreases because the gas particles occupy more volume per unit mass.

b)

Density increases because the gas particles occupy less volume per unit mass.

c)

Density remains the same.

d)

There is not enough information to answer the question.

183.

In water's hydrogen bonds, the attraction is between which atoms?

a)

hydrogen atoms in different molecules

b)

hydrogen atoms in one molecule and oxygen atoms in another molecule

c)

hydrogen atoms in the same molecule

d)

hydrogen atoms and oxygen atoms in the same molecule

184.

The phase change that describes the direct conversion of a solid into a gas is __.

a)

vaporization

b)

sublimation

c)

melting

d)

deposition

185.

The point on a phase diagram where the solid state, the liquid state, and the gas vapor state can coexist is __. 

a)

the pressure point

b)

the absolute zero point

c)

the critical point

d)

the triple point

186.

The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which __.

a)

vapor pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

b)

vapor pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure.

c)

vapor pressure is less than atmospheric pressure.

d)

vapor pressure is zero.

187.

pressure

a)

force per unit area

b)

an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure

c)

measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter

d)

the movement of one material through another

188.

barometer

a)

the SI unit of pressure, equal to the force of one newton per square meter

b)

a measure of the resistance of a liquid to flow

c)

an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure

d)

a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter

189.

elastic collisions

a)

the SI unit of pressure, equal to the force of one newton per square meter

b)

collisions between gas particles in which no kinetic energy is lost

c)

a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter

d)

the energy required to increase the surface area of a liquid by a given amount

190.

pascal

a)

the SI unit of pressure, equal to the force of one newton per square meter

b)

a compound that lowers the surface tension of water

c)

a measure of the resistance of a liquid to flow

d)

a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter

191.

viscosity

a)

the movement of one material through another

b)

a compound that lowers the surface tension of water

c)

a measure of the resistance of a liquid to flow

d)

the energy required to increase the surface area of a liquid by a given amount

192.

surface tension

a)

the SI unit of pressure, equal to the force of one newton per square meter

b)

the energy required to increase the surface area of a liquid by a given amount

c)

a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter

d)

an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure

193.

surfactant

a)

the movement of one material through another

b)

a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter

c)

a compound that lowers the surface tension of water

d)

force per unit area

194.

melting point

a)

temperature at which a liquid becomes a crystalline solid

b)

temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure

c)

the temperature at which a crystalline solid becomes a liquid

d)

the point on a phase diagram where the solid state, the liquid state, and the gas vapor state can coexist

195.

vapor pressure

a)

a graph that shows in which phase a substance exists under different conditions of temperature and pressure

b)

temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure

c)

the pressure exerted by a vapor over a liquid

d)

the point on a phase diagram where the solid state, the liquid state, and the gas vapor state can coexist

196.

boiling point

a)

temperature at which a liquid becomes a crystalline solid

b)

temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure

c)

the pressure exerted by a vapor over a liquid

d)

the temperature at which a crystalline solid becomes a liquid

197.

freezing point

a)

temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure

b)

the temperature at which a crystalline solid becomes a liquid

c)

a graph that shows in which phase a substance exists under different conditions of temperature and pressure

d)

temperature at which a liquid becomes a crystalline solid

198.

phase diagram

a)

the point on a phase diagram where the solid state, the liquid state, and the gas vapor state can coexist

b)

a graph that shows in which phase a substance exists under different conditions of temperature and pressure

c)

temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure

d)

the temperature at which a crystalline solid becomes a liquid

199.

triple point

a)

the point on a phase diagram where the solid state, the liquid state, and the gas vapor state can coexist

b)

temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external or atmospheric pressure

c)

temperature at which a liquid becomes a crystalline solid

d)

a graph that shows in which phase a substance exists under different conditions of temperature and pressure

200.

The pressure of a sample of helium in a 1.0-L container is 0.857 atm. What is the new pressure if the sample is placed in a 0.5-L container? Assume the temperature is constant.

a)

0.143 atm

b)

0.429 atm

c)

1.38 atm

d)

1.71 atm

201.

A sample of gas is held in a 10.0-L volume piston at 175 kPa. The temperature is kept constant while the volume is decreased until the pressure is 350 kPa. What is the new volume of the gas?

a)

1.0 L

b)

5.0 L

c)

10.0 L

d)

175 L

202.

When will the molecules of all samples of ideal gases have the same average kinetic energies?

a)

at constant volume

b)

at constant temperature

c)

at constant amount

d)

at constant pressure

203.

Which diagram shows the relationship between volume and pressure for a gas at constant temperature?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

E

d)

C

204.

A gas occupies a volume of 1.0 L at 25°C. What volume will the gas occupy at 100°C?

a)

1.0 L

b)

1.3 L

c)

0.80 L

d)

4.0 L

205.

A 0.5-L container of nitrogen gas at 18°C is heated under constant pressure to the boiling point of water. What is its new volume?

a)

0.5 L

b)

0.64 L

c)

0.79 L

d)

0.86 L

206.

At constant volume, a container of gas at atmospheric pressure is heated from 27°C to 77°C. What is the final pressure?

a)

0.35 atm

b)

1.2 atm

c)

0.86 atm

d)

2.8 atm

207.

A sample of gas starts at 1.00 atm, 0.00°C, and 30.0 mL. What is the volume if the temperature increases to 27.0°C and the pressure increases to 2.00 atm?

a)

54.6 mL

b)

65.9 mL

c)

13.7 mL

d)

16.5 mL

208.

What volume will one mole of a gas occupy under standard temperature and pressure?

a)

1 L

b)

22.4 L

c)

273 L

d)

293 l

209.

What is the molar mass of a gas if 0.104 g of the gas occupies 48.7 mL at STP?

a)

28.2 g/mol

b)

34.5 g/mol

c)

40.0 g/mol

d)

47.9 g/mol

210.

What is the name given to a gas whose particles do not take up space, do not have intermolecular attractive forces, and follow the gas laws under all conditions of temperature and pressure?

a)

noble gas

b)

diatomic gas

c)

ideal gas

d)

real gas

211.

Which of the following states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of particles?

a)

boyle's law

b)

gay-lussac's law

c)

charles's law

d)

avogadro's principle

212.

Use the Ideal Gas Law equation to find the molar mass of a 98.2 g sample of gas that fills a 50.0-liter container at STP.

a)

1.48 g/mol

b)

44.0 g/mol

c)

32.0 g/mol

d)

4.00 g/mol

213.

Use the Ideal Gas Law equation to find the density of a gas at STP with a molar mass of 44.0 g/mol.

a)

1.96 g/L

b)

86.4 g/L

c)

0.0446 g/L

d)

23.9 g/L

214.

In the Ideal Gas Law equation, the units of R will commonly change based on different units of __.

a)

pressure

b)

volume

c)

temperature

d)

moles

215.

Which of the following gases will behave most like an ideal gas?

a)

H2O

b)

He

c)

C4H10

d)

NH3

216.

Calculate the number of moles of gas contained in a 16.0-L vessel at 373 K with a pressure of 2.50 atm.

a)

2.8 x 10-3 mol

b)

1.31 x 10-1 mol

c)

0.766 mol

d)

1.31 mol

217.

In the reaction below, what volume of methane is required to produce 10.0 L of water vapor at constant temperature and pressure?

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) --> CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

a)

20.0 L

b)

5.00 L

c)

4.45 L

d)

6.23 L

218.

What volume of oxygen gas is needed for the complete combustion of 40.0 liters of hydrogen gas at constant temperature and pressure?

a)

20.0 L

b)

40.0 L

c)

80.0 L

d)

2.00 L

219.

What information is NOT given by the coefficients in a balanced chemical equation?

a)

the mass ratios of reactants and products

b)

the mole ratios of reactants and products

c)

the ratios of number of molecules of reactants and products

d)

the volume ratios of gaseous reactants and products

220.

What variable is assumed to be constant in the combined gas law?

a)

number of moles

b)

pressure

c)

temperature

d)

volume

221.

Boyle's Law

a)

states that the volume of a fixed amount of gas held at a constant temperature varies inversely with the pressure

b)

states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its kelvin temperature at constant pressure

c)

states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies directly with the kelvin temperature when the volume remains constant

d)

describes the physical behavior of an ideal gas in terms of pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas

222.

Charles's Law

a)

states that the volume of a fixed amount of gas held at a constant temperature varies inversely with the pressure

b)

states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its kelvin temperature at constant pressure

c)

states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies directly with the kelvin temperature when the volume remains constant

d)

describes the physical behavior of an ideal gas in terms of pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas

223.

Gay-Lussac's Law

a)

states that the volume of a fixed amount of gas held at a constant temperature varies inversely with the pressure

b)

states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its kelvin temperature at constant pressure

c)

states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies directly with the kelvin temperature when the volume remains constant

d)

describes the physical behavior of an ideal gas in terms of pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas

224.

combined gas law

a)

states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its kelvin temperature at constant pressure

b)

describes the physical behavior of an ideal gas in terms of pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas

c)

states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies directly with the kelvin temperature when the volume remains constant

d)

a single law combining Boyle's, Charles's, and Gay-Lussac's laws that states the relationship among pressure, volume, and temperature of a fixed amount of gas

225.

ideal gas law

a)

a single law combining Boyle's, Charles's, and Gay-Lussac's laws that states the relationship among pressure, volume, and temperature of a fixed amount of gas

b)

describes the physical behavior of an ideal gas in terms of pressure, volume, temperature, and number of moles of gas

c)

states that the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies directly with the kelvin temperature when the volume remains constant

d)

states that the volume of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its kelvin temperature at constant pressure

226.

absolute zero

a)

zero on the kelvin scale, which represents the lowest possible theoretical temperature; atoms are all in the lowest possible energy state

b)

for a gas, the volume that one mole occupies at 0.00°C and 1.00 atm pressure

c)

conditions of 0.00°C and 1.00 atm

d)

an experimentally determined constant whose value in the ideal gas equation depends on the units that are used for pressure

227.

molar volume

a)

zero on the kelvin scale, which represents the lowest possible theoretical temperature; atoms are all in the lowest possible energy state

b)

for a gas, the volume that one mole occupies at 0.00°C and 1.00 atm pressure

c)

conditions of 0.00°C and 1.00 atm

d)

an experimentally determined constant whose value in the ideal gas equation depends on the units that are used for pressure

228.

standard temperature and pressure (STP)

a)

zero on the kelvin scale, which represents the lowest possible theoretical temperature; atoms are all in the lowest possible energy state

b)

for a gas, the volume that one mole occupies at 0.00°C and 1.00 atm pressure

c)

conditions of 0.00°C and 1.00 atm

d)

an experimentally determined constant whose value in the ideal gas equation depends on the units that are used for pressure

229.

ideal gas constant (R)

a)

zero on the kelvin scale, which represents the lowest possible theoretical temperature; atoms are all in the lowest possible energy state

b)

for a gas, the volume that one mole occupies at 0.00°C and 1.00 atm pressure

c)

conditions of 0.00°C and 1.00 atm

d)

an experimentally determined constant whose value in the ideal gas equation depends on the units that are used for pressure

230.

Match each factor with the statement that best explains why it increases solvation.

increases the kinetic energy of the particles in solution

a)

increase in temperature

b)

agitation

c)

increase in surface area

231.

Match each factor with the statement that best explains why it increases solvation.

moves solute particles away from contact surfaces more quickly

a)

increase in temperature

b)

agitation

c)

increase in surface area

232.

Match each factor with the statement that best explains why it increases solvation.

breaks the solute into smaller pieces

a)

increase in temperature

b)

agitation

c)

increase in surface area

233.

the scattering of light by dispersed colloid particles

a)

Tyndall Effect

b)

Brownian Motion

c)

concentration

d)

osmotic pressure

234.

a mixture with particles that settle out if undisturbed

a)

concentration

b)

osmotic pressure

c)

suspension

d)

colloid

235.

the erratic movement of colloid particles

a)

heat of solution

b)

solvation

c)

tyndall effect

d)

brownian motion

236.

the amount of additional pressure caused by water molecules moving into a solution

a)

osmotic pressure

b)

solvation

c)

heat of solution

d)

suspension

237.

a measure of how much solute is dissolved in a specific amount of solvent or solution

a)

solvation

b)

concentration

c)

heat of solution

d)

osmotic pressure

238.

the overall energy change that occurs when a solution forms

a)

suspension

b)

heat of solution

c)

solvation

d)

osmotic pressure

239.

a heterogeneous mixture of intermediate-sized particles

a)

concentration

b)

suspension

c)

colloid

d)

solvation

240.

the process of surrounding solute particles with solvent particles to form a solution

a)

heat of solution

b)

osmotic pressure

c)

henry's law

d)

solvation

241.

the statement that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquid

a)

heat of solution

b)

henry's law

c)

solvation

d)

concentration

242.

When the rate of solvation equals the rate of crystallization, the solution is

a)

unsaturated

b)

supersaturated

c)

saturated

d)

crystallized

243.

What term describes a solution in which the dissolved solute is in equilibrium with the undissolved solute?

a)

saturated solution

b)

dilute solution

c)

supersaturated solution

d)

unsaturated solution

244.

Which of the following statements explains the solubility of ionic substances in water?

a)

The molar mass of water is 18.02 g/mol.

b)

An oxygen atom has six electrons in its outermost energy level.

c)

water molecules are polar

d)

Water is a covalent substance.

245.

Identify a conjugate acid-base pair in the following reaction.

NH3 + H2O ↔ NH4+ + OH-

a)

H2O and OH-

b)

NH3 and H2O

c)

NH3 and OH-

d)

H2O and NH4+

246.

Which one of the following could not be a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

a)

H2O

b)

H3O+

c)

NH4+

d)

BF3

247.

In a weak acid, the conjugate base has a greater attraction for the H+ ion than does the base ________.

HY + H2O --> H3O+ +Y-

a)

HY

b)

H2O

c)

H3O+

d)

NH4+

248.

Which of the following is the strongest base according to the Brønsted-Lowry theory?

a)

Cl-

b)

NO3-

c)

F-

d)

I-

249.

How many times more concentrated is [H+] for soft drinks than for coffee?

a)

100

b)

10

c)

2

d)

0.6

250.

What is the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution that has a pH of 4.32?

a)

4.8 x 10–5M

b)

6.2 x 10–4M

c)

5.1 x 10–4M

d)

8.6 x 10–5M

251.

What is the hydronium ion concentration of propanoic acid, which has a pH of 2.43?

a)

1.4 × 10–5

b)

2.43 × 100

c)

3.72 × 10–3

d)

7.3 × 104

252.

Calculate the pH of a solution that has a [OH-] = 2.50 x 10-4M.

a)

0.4

b)

3.6

c)

-3.6

d)

10.4

253.

What is the pH of a 0.40M solution of cyanoacetic acid, which has a Ka of 3.55 x 10-3?

a)

2.06

b)

1.22

c)

2.45

d)

1.44

254.

Calculate Ka for a 0.05M solution of the weak acid HF. The pH of the solution is 2.274.

a)

6.3 x 10–4

b)

0.12

c)

5.7 x 10–4

d)

0.11

255.

Arrhenius model

a)

an acid produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution; a base produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

b)

an acid is a hydrogen-ion donor; a base in a hydrogen-ion acceptor

c)

an acid is an electron-pair acceptor and a base is an electron-pair donor

256.

Brønsted-Lowry model

a)

an acid produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution; a base produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

b)

an acid is a hydrogen-ion donor; a base in a hydrogen-ion acceptor

c)

an acid is an electron-pair acceptor and a base is an electron-pair donor

257.

Lewis model

a)

an acid produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution; a base produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

b)

an acid is a hydrogen-ion donor; a base in a hydrogen-ion acceptor

c)

an acid is an electron-pair acceptor and a base is an electron-pair donor

258.

strong acid

a)

an acid that ionizes completely in aqueous solution

b)

an acid that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

c)

a base that dissociates entirely into metal ions and hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

d)

a base that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

259.

strong base

a)

a base that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

b)

an acid that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

c)

a base that dissociates entirely into metal ions and hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

d)

an acid that ionizes completely in aqueous solution

260.

conjugate acid

a)

the species produced when a base accepts a hydrogen ion from an acid

b)

the species produced when an acid donates a hydrogen ion to a base

261.

conjugate base

a)

the species produced when an acid donates a hydrogen ion to a base

b)

the species produced when a base accepts a hydrogen ion from an acid

262.

weak acid

a)

an acid that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

b)

a base that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

c)

an acid that ionizes completely in aqueous solution

d)

a base that dissociates entirely into metal ions and hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

263.

weak base

a)

an acid that ionizes completely in aqueous solution

b)

a base that dissociates entirely into metal ions and hydroxide ions in aqueous solution

c)

an acid that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

d)

a base that ionizes only partially in dilute aqueous solution

264.

The process used to separate fractions from petroleum is ___________.

a)

fractional distillation

b)

isomerization

c)

chirality

d)

drilling

265.

Which of the following statements is not true about 4-ethyl-3,5-dimethyloctane?

a)

A methyl group branches from position 5.

b)

An ethyl group branches from position 4.

c)

There are eight carbon atoms in the longest chain.

d)

An ethyl group branches from position 3.

266.

An alkyl group is one type of ________.

a)

homologous group

b)

substituent group

c)

heterogenous group

d)

parent group

267.

What term is used to describe isomers that have all the atoms bonded in the same order but arranged differently in space?

a)

structural isomers

b)

nonisomers

c)

polymers

d)

stereoisomers

268.

Chiral carbons will produce _____.

a)

structural isomers

b)

optical isomers

c)

polymers

d)

monomers

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