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Mo poda exam 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following represents an antibody drug conjugate that contains a Topoisomerase -1 inhibitor?

a)

Tykerb

b)

Evista

c)

Avastin

d)

Enhertu

e)

Afinitor

2.

An individual who is highly allergic to Trastuzumab specifically should NOT be treated with which of the following? SATA:

a)

Enhertu

b)

Veliparib

c)

Ixempra

d)

Herceptin

e)

Kadcyla

3.

Which of the following combination therapeutic regimens for breast cancer employs an Anthracendione?

a)

CMF

b)

FEC

c)

VATH

d)

Cooper’s regimen

e)

CFM

4.

Ondansetron is helpful in the management of cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting because it:

a)

Directly inhibits the vomiting center

b)

Inhibits 5-HT3 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

c)

Inhibits Dopamine-2 receptors in the medulla oblangata

d)

Stimulates Benzodiazepine-1 receptors in the vomiting center

e)

Stimulates Serotonin-3 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

5.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Type-I Aromatase inhibitor?

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Anastrazole

c)

Toremifene

d)

Formestane

e)

Mifepriston

6.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a mechanism of action of Anthracyclines?

a)

Alteration of membrane function

b)

Inhibition of Topoisomerase II

c)

DNA strand breakage

d)

Generation of free radicals

e)

Inhibition of depolymerization of microtubules

7.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist recommend for the management of Taxane-induced mucositis?

a)

Kepivance

b)

Mesna

c)

Epoetin

d)

Abraxane

e)

Methotrexate

8.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result from therapy with Cisplatin?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hyperuricemia

d)

Hypokalemia

e)

Hypomagnesemia

9.

Platinol produces electrolyte imbalance because it:

a)

Inhibits Na/K-ATPase

b)

Inhibits SGLT-2

c)

Stimulates SGLT-2

d)

Stimulates NHE-1

e)

Inhibits NHE-1

10.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be classified as an anti-Anaplastic Lymphoma kinase drug?

a)

sorafenib

b)

alactinib

c)

crizotinib

d)

lorlatinib

e)

brigatinib

11.

Which of the following is used to manage Cisplatin-induced nephrotoxicity because it is a free radical scavenger?

a)

Thalidomide

b)

Amifostine

c)

Brigatinib

d)

Arnesp

e)

Sargramostin

12.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a vesicant?

a)

5-FU

b)

Paclitaxel

c)

Carmustine

d)

Vepesid

e)

Cisplatin

13.

Which of the following drugs that are used to treat Prostate cancer will DIRECTLY suppress LH and FSH secretion?

a)

Nafarelin

b)

Nizoral

c)

Enzalutamide

d)

Cyproterone

e)

Relugolix

14.

All of the following decrease the risk of Prostate cancer by inhibiting 5-alpha reductase EXCEPT:

a)

Saw palmetto

b)

Jalyn

c)

Finasteride

d)

Firmagon

e)

Dutasteride

15.

Which of the following combination regimens that are used to treat Prostate cancer represents a “complete androgen blockade” therapy? SATA

a)

FL

b)

FZ

c)

PE

d)

VE

e)

Emcyt

16.

Which of the following is effective in the management of Prostate cancer because it competitively inhibits the binding of Androgen to Androgen receptor sites?

a)

Zoladex

b)

Faslodex

c)

Plenaxis

d)

Casodex

e)

Synarel

17.

Which of the following is used to treat endometriosis and is BEST classified as a GnRH antagonist?

a)

Androcur

b)

Nizoral

c)

Elagolix

d)

Lupron

e)

Xtandi

18.

Which of the following produces its anticancer effect in metastatic Prostate cancer by inhibiting 17-alpha Hydroxylase?

a)

Abiraterone

b)

Relugolix

c)

Abarelix

d)

Apalutamide

e)

Triptorelin

19.

Which of the following is used to manage cancer chemotherapy-induced hemorrhagic cystitis? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Palifermin

b)

Mucomyst

c)

Hydration

d)

Soliris

e)

Mesna

20.

Which of the following statements about the VATH regimen is FALSE?

a)

It consists of a Vinka alkaloid

b)

It should not be used to treat a patient who is allergic to ThioTEPA

c)

It is used to treat breast cancer

d)

It employs a HER-2 inhibitor

e)

It contains as Anthracycline

21.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to result in breast cancer development?

a)

Loss or mutation of p53 gene

b)

Decreased expression of Cyclin-D gene

c)

Decreased expression of BRCA-1 gene

d)

Mutation of BRCA-2 gene

e)

Amplification of c-erb2 gene

22.

Prostate cancer development has been associated with mutations in which of the following genes? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

PRCA-1

b)

HPC-1

c)

p53

d)

BRCA-1

e)

BRCA-2

23.

All of the following decrease the risk of Prostate cancer EXCEPT:

a)

Lycopene

b)

Selenium

c)

Vasectomy

d)

Orchiectomy

e)

Vitamin E

24.

Which of the following is suggestive of a fast-growing, aggressive Prostate cancer? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

A well-differential tumor

b)

A Gleason number of 9

c)

A poorly differential tumor

d)

A diploid tumor

e)

An aneuploid tumor

25.

Which of the following is classified as a PARP-1 inhibitor? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Zejula

b)

Talzenna

c)

Lynparza

d)

Veliparib

e)

Rubraca

26.

Which of the following statements about chemotherapy vesicants is FALSE?

a)

Carmustine is a vesicant

b)

Doxorubicin is a vesicant

c)

Extravasation can be managed by elevating the limb and applying hot compresses

d)

Vincristine is a vesicant

e)

Extravasation can be managed by giving sodium thiosulfate

27.

Which of the following is useful in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting because it antagonizes Substance P/neurokinin-1 receptors?

a)

Granisetron

b)

Emend

c)

Reglan

d)

Dronabinol

e)

Prochlorperazine

28.

Which of the following is effective in treating ER-positive/HER2-negative metastatic breast cancer because it inhibits the PI3K signaling pathway?

a)

Melphalan

b)

Evarolimus

c)

Fluoxymesterone

d)

Eribulin

e)

Alpelisib

29.

The use of ________ in the treatment of Prostate cancer represents autologous cellular immunotherapy:

a)

Perjeta

b)

Prevagen

c)

Proscar

d)

Provenge

e)

Piqray

30.

Which of the following is a microtubule stabilizer? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Ixempra

b)

Taxotere

c)

Tirbanibulin

d)

Vincristine

e)

Paclitaxel

31.

Which of the following statements about Lynparza in INCORRECT?

a)

Its usual dosage is 300mg PO BID

b)

It is a stimulator of cytochrome P450 3A4

c)

It is mostly excreted via the feces

d)

It has a half-life of about 15 hours

e)

It is metabolized by cytochrome P450 3A4

32.

Which of the following statements about Olaparib is FALSE?

a)

It is an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 2B6

b)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 82%

c)

It is an inhibitor of Poly-ADP ribose polymerase-1

d)

It is effective in treating HER2-negative, germline BRCA mutated breast cancer

e)

It is effective in treating HER2-negative, somatic BRCA mutated breast cancer

33.

All of the following should be avoided during therapy with Palbociclib EXCEPT:

a)

Breastfeeding

b)

Concurrent ingestion of Seville orange juice

c)

Concurrent ingestion of Grapefruit juice

d)

Concurrent ingestion of St. John’s Wort

e)

Pregnancy

34.

Which of the following statements about Palbociclib is FALSE?

a)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 85%

b)

Its half-life is about 24-34 hours

c)

It is administered parenterally

d)

Renal dysfunction does not significantly alter its pharmacokinetics

e)

It is a substrate for cytochrome P450 3A4

35.

Which of the following statements about Ibrance is INCORRECT? It is administered with Fulvestrant:

a)

in treating advanced stage or metastatic breast cancer

b)

to treat HER2-negative, HR-positive breast cancer

c)

with the Fulvestrant being given via a slow IM injection into the buttocks

d)

with the Ibrance being given orally on days 1 – 21 on an empty stomach

e)

to treat breast cancer after a prior hormonal treatment of the breast cancer

36.

Which of the following statements about Ibrance is FALSE?

a)

It is given concurrently with Arimidex 1mg PO QD to treat breast cancer with an Allred score of less than 1

b)

It is given concurrently with Aromasin 25mg PO QD to treat breast cancer in menopausal women

c)

It is given concurrently with Letrozole 2.5mg PO QD to treat breast cancer that has not been previously treated with hormonal therapy

d)

For the treatment of metastatic breast cancer, Ibrance is given concurrently with an Aromatase inhibitor on days 1 – 21 while the Aromatase inhibitor alone is given on days 22 – 28 of the month

e)

It is administered per os

37.

All of the following statements about Margetuximab are true EXCEPT:

a)

It is a monoclonal antibody

b)

It has a Fab fragment that has been modified to bind to Natural Killer cells

c)

Its mechanism of action involves antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity

d)

It is useful in treating breast cancer

e)

It is commercially available as Margenza

38.

Which of the following is employed in the management of cancer chemotherapy-induced anemia ? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Epogen

b)

Procrit

c)

Epoetin

d)

Aranesp

e)

Darbepoetin

39.

Which of the following is employed in the management of cancer chemotherapy-induced neutropenia? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Intron

b)

PegIntron

c)

Neupogen

d)

Neulasta

e)

Leukine

40.

=Which of the following is effective in managing cancer chemotherapy-induced hyperuricemia? SATA

a)

Zurampic

b)

Zyloprim

c)

Uloric

d)

Elitek

e)

Krystexxa

41.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed during therapy with Lupron?

a)

Edema

b)

Increased libido

c)

Hot flashes

d)

Thromboembolism

e)

Arrhythmia

42.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Herceptin?

a)

Shortness of breath

b)

Pulmonary swelling

c)

Anemia

d)

Leukocytosis

e)

Lung scarring

43.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist recommend for treating a HER2-positive, metastatic breast cancer?

a)

Rucaparib

b)

Kisqali

c)

Pertuzumab

d)

Piqray

e)

Ibrance

44.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Taxol ? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Peripheral neuropathy

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Ventricular tachycardia

d)

Myalgia

e)

Myelosuppression

45.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor?

a)

Jevtana

b)

Ixempra

c)

Alkeran

d)

Verzenio

e)

Ellence

46.

Which of the following is an inhibitor of Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen-4?

a)

Bevacizumab

b)

Sacituzumab

c)

Trastuzumab

d)

Rituximab

e)

Ipilimumab

47.

Which of the following statements about Libtayo is FALSE?

a)

It inhibits tubulin polymerization

b)

It is an inhibitor of PD-1

c)

It is effective in the treatment of Squamous cell carcinoma

d)

It is a monoclonal antibody

e)

It is used to treat Basal cell carcinoma

48.

Which of the following is effective in the treatment of Basal cell carcinoma because it inhibits the smoothened receptor and thereby inhibits the Hedgehog signaling pathway?

a)

Erivedge

b)

Thalomid

c)

Dabrafenib

d)

Erlotinib

e)

Nivolumab

49.

Which of the following statements about Keytruda is FALSE?

a)

It is effective in treating Ipilimumab-resistant Malignant melanoma

b)

It is a PD-L1 inhibitor

c)

It is effective in treating Merkle cell carcinoma

d)

It is effective in treating Malignant melanoma that harbors an abnormal BRAF gene

e)

It is a monoclonal antibody

50.

Mrs. Jab’s Malignant melanoma is being treated with the Dartmouth regimen. Based on that information, which of the following is Mrs. Jab NOT receiving?

a)

Dacarbazine

b)

Tamoxifen

c)

Dabrafenib

d)

Carmustine

e)

Cisplatin

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