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MI EOC Review

Total questions: 193

Worksheet time: 3hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If 1 mL sample is put into tube #1 that has 24 ml diluent, what is the tube dilution? What is the final dilution?

a)

Tube 1/25

b)

Final 1/50

c)

Tube 1/50

d)

Final 1/25

2.

If 1 mL sample form tube #1 with a tube dilution of 1/25 is placed in tube #2 with 24 mL of diluent, what is the tube dilution and what is the final dilution of tube #2?

a)

tube dilution 1/50

b)

tube dilution 1/25

c)

final dilution 1/625

d)

final dilution 1/50

3.

If the concentration of tube 1 is 150 ng/ml (tube 1 is now the starting stock solution) and 1 ml of sample is moved each time into 24 ml of diluent to complete 3 dilutions from the first tube, what is the concentration in tube #4 or the third dilution?

a)

150 ng/ml

b)

6 ng/ml

c)

0.24 ng/ml

d)

0.0096 ng/ml

4.

If 20 uL sample is put into tube #1 with 100 uL diluent, what is the tube dilution and final dilution of tube #1?

a)

tube dilution 20/100 or 1/5

b)

tube dilution 20/120 or 1/6

c)

final dilution 20/120 or 1/6

d)

final dilution 20/100 or 1/5

5.

If 1 mL sample is put into tube #1 that has 49 mL of diluent, what is the tube dilution?

a)

1/49

b)

1/50

6.

If 2 mL sample is removed from a tube with a dilution of 1/50 and placed into a tube #2 with 48 ML diluent, what is the tube dilution and final dilution for tube #2?

a)

tube dilution 2/48 or 1/24

b)

tube dilution 2/50 or 1/25

c)

final dilution 1/50

d)

final dilution 1/1250

7.

If the concentration of the stock solution of 50 ng/ml, what is the concentration of a tube with final dilution of 1/1250?

a)

0.2 ng/mL

b)

50 ng/mL

c)

0.04 ng/mL

d)

2 ng/mL

8.

1.) Which of the following is most responsible for an outbreak?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Pathogens

c)

Genomes

d)

Plasmids

9.

2.) PCR is used to

a)

cut DNA

b)

clone cells

c)

copy DNA sequences

d)

create recombinant DNA

10.

3.) Primers in PCR reactions are made up of

a)

a.) double stranded DNA

b)

b.) single stranded DNA

c)

c.) protein chains

d)

d.) tagged nucleotides

11.

4.) During the ELISA test, the secondary antibody was attached to an enzyme. What happens when that enzyme becomes attached to the substrate?

a)

a.) The enzyme and the substrate reacted with the primary antibody and caused a color change.

b)

b.) The enzyme and the substrate work worked together to destroy the antigen, resulting in a color change.

c)

c.) The enzyme caused the substrate to change, resulting in a color change.

d)

d.) The substrate caused the enzyme to change, resulting in a color change.

12.

5.) In what order should you add the reagents to perform an ELISA test?

a)

a.) Primary antibody, antigen sample, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate

b)

b.) Antigen sample, primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate

c)

c.) Substrate, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples

d)

d.) Primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples, substrate

13.

6.) ________ have surface _________ where _________ attach.

a)

a.) antibodies, pathogens, antigens

b)

b.) antigens, antibodies, pathogens

c)

c.) pathogens, antibodies, antigens

d)

d.) pathogens, antigens, antibodies

14.

7.) An outbreak of a disease has been spreading through a small community. Using samples taken from infected patients, which of the following tests BEST enable doctors at the CDC to identify an unknown pathogen from the outbreak?

a)

a.) Determine the sequence of the pathogen's DNA with an automated sequencer and then amplify key genes using PCR.

b)

b.) Determine the sequence of the pathogen's DNA using recombinant DNA methods and then amplify the sequence using PCR.

c)

c.) Use an automated sequencer to determine the nucleotide sequence of the samples, then compare these sequences with known organisms using BLAST.

d)

d.) Use PCR to amplify the genome of the infected patients, then BLAST the genome results.

15.

8.) Which of the following is a medical intervention?

a)

a.) PCR

b)

b.) BLAST

c)

c.) DNA sequencing

d)

d.) All of the above

16.

9.) What career combines molecular biology and computer analysis?

a)

a.) diagnostic imaging

b)

b.) genetics

c)

c.) bioinformatics

d)

d.) microbiology

17.

10.) Place the following processes for using DNA for bacterial identification in order:

1. obtain bacterial DNA by bursting open bacterial cells with enzymes

2. Determine the sequence of bacterial DNA by reading the order of fluorescent nucleotides

3. Use BLAST to match the bacterial sequence to known organisms

4. Use specific primers and PCR to amplify specific pieces of bacterial DNA.

5. Use fluorescent tagged nucleotides in sequencing PCR.

a)

a.) 1, 4, 5, 2, 3

b)

b.) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2

c)

c.) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

d)

d.) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

18.

11.) Which structure contains accessory genes such as antibiotic resistance and can be used for recombinant DNA?

a)

a.) pili

b)

b.) plasmid

c)

c.) flagella

d)

d.) capsule

19.

12.) Antibiotics such as penicillin target which bacterial structure?

a)

a.) capsid

b)

b.) cell wall

c)

c.) flagella

d)

d.) ribosome

20.

13.) What is the role of the bones in the ear (ossicles)?

a)

a.) They deliver sound vibrations to the middle ear.

b)

b.) They help maintain balance.

c)

c.) They transfer nerve impulses to the brain to be interpreted.

d)

d.) They collect and direct sound to the tympanic membrane.

21.

14.) Structure 9 in the diagram is the

a)

a.) vestibule

b)

b.) semicircular canals

c)

c.) cochlea

d)

d.) cochlear nerve

22.

15.) Which of the following shows the correct order of how sound travels through the ear?

a)

a.) pinna, tympanic membrane, stapes, cochlea, cochlear nerve

b)

b.) auditory canal, stapes, incus, cochlea, vestibular nerve

c)

c.) pinna, tympanic membrane, vestibule, Eustachian tube

d)

d.) tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, semicircular canal

23.

17.) Which of the following is considered a medical intervention for hearing loss?

a)

a.) sign language

b)

b.) cochlear implant

c)

c.) hearing aid

d)

d.) all of these

24.

18.) During a Rinne test, what does it mean when a patient can hear the tuning fork longer through bone conduction than through air conduction?

a)

a.) conductive hearing loss

b)

b.) sensorineural hearing loss

c)

c.) complete hearing loss

d)

d.) a problem with the brain's ability to process sound

25.

19.) Which of the following is true about cochlear implant technology?

a)

a.) The entire deaf community supports cochlear implants as a treatment for hearing loss.

b)

b.) Cochlear implants are effective for everyone and have predictable results.

c)

c.) A cochlear implant is an option for treating profound hearing loss.

d)

d.) A cochlear implant is necessary for someone with hearing loss to function in mainstream society.

26.

20.) Which of the following correctly describes vaccines?

a)

a.) They are not considered medical interventions.

b)

b.) They prime the innate immune system, which will then produce antibodies against the pathogen.

c)

c.) They activate the adaptive immune response against an antigen so that it will "remember" the pathogen.

d)

d.) They cause a mutation in the vaccinated person that makes them immune to the pathogen.

27.

21.) Which of the following correctly shows the order of producing recombinant DNA?

I. Restriction enzyme recognizes specific nucleotide sequences on the plasmid.

II. Sticky ends of foreign DNA line up with sticky ends on the plasmid DNA.

III. Plasmid DNA is attached to foreign DNA by DNA ligase, an enzyme that "glues" DNA fragments together.

IV. Restriction enzyme cuts sugar-phosphate backbone on plasmid DNA, opening plasmid.

a)

a.) I, IV, II, III

b)

b.) I, II, III, IV

c)

c.) III, I, IV, II

d)

d.) IV, I, II, III

28.

22.) Trudy is working as an ophthalmologist and wants to know whether chronic eye infections are associated with vision loss. She decides to follow two groups of her patients: those who get chronic eye infections and those who do not. She tracks patient data for 10 years to see if the patients in each group experience vision loss. This is an example of:

a)

a.) case-control study

b)

b.) cohort study

c)

c.) retrospective study

d)

d.) need more information to decide

29.
T5- The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
30.
T6- This picture shows how what is made?
a)
Recombinant DNA
b)
PCR
c)
Gel Electrophorisis
d)
Clones
31.
T6- How do scientists cut DNA into smaller strands?
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
scissors
c)
ligase
d)
agarose
32.
T6- In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must 
a)
code for the same gene product.
b)
be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
c)
originate from the same type of cell.
d)
have identical sequences.
33.
Which enzyme "glues" DNA fragments together?
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
DNA helicase
34.
What is the name of the process that inserts a recombinant plasmid into a bacterium?
a)
gene cloning
b)
transformation
c)
transduction
d)
meiosis
35.
A ____ is a small ring of DNA found in a bacterial cell.
a)
virus
b)
plasmid
c)
gene bullet
d)
PCR
36.
What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into bacterium?
I) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
II) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV) Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.
V) Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA

a)
I, II, IV, III, V
b)
III, II, IV, V, I
c)
II, III, V, IV, I
d)
III, IV, V, I, II
37.
To amplify (create more) DNA, which process is used?
a)
Gel Electrophorisis
b)
Cloning
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
d)
Transgenic Process
38.
In which step would the enzyme ligase be used?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
39.
Which of these is the "gene of interest"?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
40.
What would have caused the plasmid (B) to open?
a)
restriction enzyme
b)
ligase
c)
gene therapy
d)
sticky ends
41.
In step D, recombinant DNA is being placed back into _____ to be cloned by binary fission.
a)
bacteria
b)
a human
c)
a virus
d)
a sheep
42.
If a student adds 3 ml of a liquid to 27 ml of water how much was the solution diluted by?
a)
3/27
b)
1/10
c)
1
43.
The student had a 500 mg/ml concentrated sample in the 5 ml sample and diluted into 20 ml of water.  What is the concentration of the sample after it has been diluted?
a)
125
b)
100
44.
Who got the disease first?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
45.
Who does not have the disease?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
46.
Which of the following is NOT a target of antibiotics?
a)
Pilli
b)
DNA
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Ribosome
47.
Flourquinolones are antibiotics that bind to an enzyme that stops the reproduction of DNA.  A scientist finds that after giving bacteria some flourquinolones they are still surviving.  The scientist was further baffled when it was found that all of the flourquinolones were in the bacteria cells and were there in large numbers.  What happened?
a)
Pumped Out
b)
The bacteria had a mutation
c)
The bacteria was gram negative
d)
The flourquinolones were destroyed
48.
A lot of plasmids with a gene to glow red were put onto a dish of agar.  A clear bacteria was grown on the plate overnight.  The next day the bacteria were red.  What happened?
a)
Transformation
b)
Transduction
c)
Conjugation
d)
Mutation
49.
Two bacteria are mixed together.  Bacteria 1 is resistant to ampicillin due to a resistant gene in the nucleoid.  Bacteria 2 is resistant to streptomycin due to a resistant gene on a plasmid.  These bacteria are grown and then put on a plate that contains both Streptomycin and ampicillin.  What is the expected result?
a)
Neither Bacteria will grow
b)
Only Bacteria 1 will grow
c)
Only Bacteria 2 will grow
d)
Both Bacteria will grow
50.
Use the diagram below to answer the multiple choice question.Which of the following sound waves below illustrates a loud low-pitched sound?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
51.
a)
This patient has moderate hearing loss at low frequencies in the left ear and mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the right ear
b)
This patient has mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the left ear
c)
This patient has conductive hearing loss in the right ear
d)
This patient has severe hearing loss at low frequencies in both ears
52.
a)
This patient has moderate hearing loss at low frequencies in the left ear and mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the right ear
b)
This patient has mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the left ear
c)
This patient has conductive hearing loss in the right ear
d)
This patient has severe hearing loss at low frequencies in both ears
53.
When placing a gene into a plasmid how many cuts will be made?
a)
two cuts in the plasmid
b)
two cuts in the viral DNA
c)
0ne cut in the plasmid, two cuts in the viral DNA
d)
two cuts in the plasmid, one cut in the viral DNA
54.
A cohort study is usually prospective, and a case-control study is usually retrospective.
a)
True
b)
False
55.
A study in which you track individuals over a period of time to look for signs of a disease.
a)
Case-Control Study
b)
Observational Study
c)
Prospective Cohort Study
d)
Retrospective Cohort Study
56.

2.) PCR is used to

a)

cut DNA

b)

clone cells

c)

copy DNA sequences

d)

create recombinant DNA

57.

4.) During the ELISA test, the secondary antibody was attached to an enzyme. What happens when that enzyme becomes attached to the substrate?

a)

a.) The enzyme and the substrate reacted with the primary antibody and caused a color change.

b)

b.) The enzyme and the substrate work worked together to destroy the antigen, resulting in a color change.

c)

c.) The enzyme caused the substrate to change, resulting in a color change.

d)

d.) The substrate caused the enzyme to change, resulting in a color change.

58.

5.) In what order should you add the reagents to perform an ELISA test?

a)

a.) Primary antibody, antigen sample, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate

b)

b.) Antigen sample, primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, substrate

c)

c.) Substrate, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples

d)

d.) Primary antibody, enzyme-linked secondary antibody, antigen samples, substrate

59.

8.) Which of the following is a medical intervention?

a)

a.) PCR

b)

b.) BLAST

c)

c.) DNA sequencing

d)

d.) All of the above

60.

9.) What career combines molecular biology and computer analysis?

a)

a.) diagnostic imaging

b)

b.) genetics

c)

c.) bioinformatics

d)

d.) microbiology

61.

15.) Which of the following shows the correct order of how sound travels through the ear?

a)

a.) pinna, tympanic membrane, stapes, cochlea, cochlear nerve

b)

b.) auditory canal, stapes, incus, cochlea, vestibular nerve

c)

c.) pinna, tympanic membrane, vestibule, Eustachian tube

d)

d.) tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, semicircular canal

62.

12.) Antibiotics such as penicillin target which bacterial structure?

a)

a.) capsid

b)

b.) cell wall

c)

c.) flagella

d)

d.) ribosome

63.

Gram positive bacteria have a thicker cell wall......

a)

True

b)

False

64.

The whiplike tail on some bacteria that help them move

a)

Nucleoid

b)

Pili

c)

Flagella

d)

Cilia

65.
T5- The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
66.
T6- This picture shows how what is made?
a)
Recombinant DNA
b)
PCR
c)
Gel Electrophorisis
d)
Clones
67.
T6- How do scientists cut DNA into smaller strands?
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
scissors
c)
ligase
d)
agarose
68.
T6- In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must 
a)
code for the same gene product.
b)
be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
c)
originate from the same type of cell.
d)
have identical sequences.
69.
Which enzyme "glues" DNA fragments together?
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
DNA ligase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
DNA helicase
70.
What is the name of the process that inserts a recombinant plasmid into a bacterium?
a)
gene cloning
b)
transformation
c)
transduction
d)
meiosis
71.
A ____ is a small ring of DNA found in a bacterial cell.
a)
virus
b)
plasmid
c)
gene bullet
d)
PCR
72.
What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into bacterium?
I) Transform bacteria with recombinant DNA molecule.
II) Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes.
III) Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV) Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA fragments.
V) Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to non-plasmid DNA

a)
I, II, IV, III, V
b)
III, II, IV, V, I
c)
II, III, V, IV, I
d)
III, IV, V, I, II
73.
To amplify (create more) DNA, which process is used?
a)
Gel Electrophorisis
b)
Cloning
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
d)
Transgenic Process
74.
In which step would the enzyme ligase be used?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
75.
Which of these is the "gene of interest"?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
76.
What would have caused the plasmid (B) to open?
a)
restriction enzyme
b)
ligase
c)
gene therapy
d)
sticky ends
77.
In step D, recombinant DNA is being placed back into _____ to be cloned by binary fission.
a)
bacteria
b)
a human
c)
a virus
d)
a sheep
78.
If a student adds 3 ml of a liquid to 27 ml of water how much was the solution diluted by?
a)
3/27
b)
1/10
c)
1
79.
The student had a 500 mg/ml concentrated sample in the 5 ml sample and diluted into 20 ml of water.  What is the concentration of the sample after it has been diluted?
a)
125
b)
100
80.
Who got the disease first?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
81.
Who does not have the disease?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
82.
Which of the following is NOT a target of antibiotics?
a)
Pilli
b)
DNA
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Ribosome
83.
Flourquinolones are antibiotics that bind to an enzyme that stops the reproduction of DNA.  A scientist finds that after giving bacteria some flourquinolones they are still surviving.  The scientist was further baffled when it was found that all of the flourquinolones were in the bacteria cells and were there in large numbers.  What happened?
a)
Pumped Out
b)
The bacteria had a mutation
c)
The bacteria was gram negative
d)
The flourquinolones were destroyed
84.
A lot of plasmids with a gene to glow red were put onto a dish of agar.  A clear bacteria was grown on the plate overnight.  The next day the bacteria were red.  What happened?
a)
Transformation
b)
Transduction
c)
Conjugation
d)
Mutation
85.
Two bacteria are mixed together.  Bacteria 1 is resistant to ampicillin due to a resistant gene in the nucleoid.  Bacteria 2 is resistant to streptomycin due to a resistant gene on a plasmid.  These bacteria are grown and then put on a plate that contains both Streptomycin and ampicillin.  What is the expected result?
a)
Neither Bacteria will grow
b)
Only Bacteria 1 will grow
c)
Only Bacteria 2 will grow
d)
Both Bacteria will grow
86.
Use the diagram below to answer the multiple choice question.Which of the following sound waves below illustrates a loud low-pitched sound?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
87.
a)
This patient has moderate hearing loss at low frequencies in the left ear and mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the right ear
b)
This patient has mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the left ear
c)
This patient has conductive hearing loss in the right ear
d)
This patient has severe hearing loss at low frequencies in both ears
88.
a)
This patient has moderate hearing loss at low frequencies in the left ear and mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the right ear
b)
This patient has mild hearing loss at all frequencies in the left ear
c)
This patient has conductive hearing loss in the right ear
d)
This patient has severe hearing loss at low frequencies in both ears
89.
When placing a gene into a plasmid how many cuts will be made?
a)
two cuts in the plasmid
b)
two cuts in the viral DNA
c)
0ne cut in the plasmid, two cuts in the viral DNA
d)
two cuts in the plasmid, one cut in the viral DNA
90.
A cohort study is usually prospective, and a case-control study is usually retrospective.
a)
True
b)
False
91.
A study in which you track individuals over a period of time to look for signs of a disease.
a)
Case-Control Study
b)
Observational Study
c)
Prospective Cohort Study
d)
Retrospective Cohort Study
92.
There are _________ antibodie(s) for every antigen
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
Many
93.
If a bacterium has a thick cell wall and stains purple it is
a)
gram positive
b)
gram negative
94.
In an ELISA assay, ________ and ________ are added to facilitate a color change.
a)
antibodies and antigens
b)
primary antibodies and secondary antibodies
c)
enzymes and substrates
d)
antigen and enzymes
95.
If a bacteria receives DNA from a viral vector, the process is called 
a)
conjugation
b)
transduction
c)
transformation
d)
viral infusion
96.
Bacteria contain genetic information in the 
a)
plasmid and nucleus
b)
plasmid and nucleoid
c)
nucleus and mitochondria
d)
nucleoid and cell wall
97.
The pilus serves the bacteria in two ways. Those two ways are
a)
attachment and conjugation
b)
attachment and protection
c)
protection and conjugation
d)
 attachment and transformation
98.
This antibiotic inhibits the supercoiling of DNA in bacteria
a)
Beta-Lactam Antibiotics
b)
Floriquinones
c)
Sulfonamides
d)
Tetracyclines 
99.
________ have surface _________ where _______ attach
a)
pathogens, antigens, antibodies
b)
antigens, antibodies, pathogens
c)
pathogens, antibodies, antigens
d)
antibodies, antigens, pathogens
100.
This image depicts a bacteria acquiring genetic material from a dead bacteria cell ,what is taking place here?
a)
conjugation
b)
transformation
c)
transduction
d)
genetic acquisition
101.
A bacterial infection __________ be treated using an antibiotic.  A viral infection __________.
a)
can; also can
b)
can; cannot
c)
cannot; can
d)
cannot; also cannot
102.
If an antibiotic is able to prevent ribosomes from functioning in a bacterium, what ability is definitely lost to the bacterium?
a)
The ability to remove excess water.
b)
The ability to copy its DNA.
c)
The ability to produce proteins.
d)
The ability to move around.
103.
What would be the tube dilution?
a)
1/10
b)
2/10
c)
1/100
d)
1/1000
104.
If the stock solution had 100mg/ml of sugar what would be the final concentration?
a)
9
b)
1
c)
10
d)
.1
105.
What is a primary antibody?
a)
First step in ELISA that binds to the antigen
b)
The first antibody
c)
The most important antibody
d)
a chicken antibody
106.
Why are enzymes used in ELISA?
a)
They link to the proteins used
b)
The catalyze reactions
c)
They provide a detection method to see if the antibodies have attached. 
d)
They are used to detect DNA
107.
Which of the following CANNOT be determined by an ELISA test?
a)
Concentration of antigens 
b)
Presence of disease
c)
Genetic sequence of a pathogen
d)
Degree of Infection
108.
How does increasing the amplitude of a sound wave affect the sound?
a)
it makes the sound louder
b)
it makes the sound travel faster
c)
it increases the wavelength of the sound
d)
it increases the frequency of the sound
109.
What happens in the inner ear? 
a)
Sound waves are captured.
b)
Sound waves move deeper into the ear. 
c)
Sound waves are reflected.
d)
Sound waves are converted into nerve impulses.
110.
What is #13?
a)
Eardrum
b)
Anvil
c)
Hammer
d)
Cochlea
111.
What is #19?
a)
Semicircular Canals
b)
Ear Canal
c)
Auditory Nerve
d)
Cochlea
112.
What is #23
a)
Eardrum
b)
Anvil
c)
Hair Cells
d)
Cochlea
113.
What type of hearing loss is shown?
a)
Mild Conductive Hearing Loss
b)
Mild Sensorineural Hearing Loss
c)
Mixed Hearing Loss
d)
Normal Hearing
114.
Damage to the stapes (oscicilles) would result  in which type of hearing loss?
a)
conductive
b)
Sensorineural
115.
Which type of hearing loss happens when sound arrives to the inner ear, but the info is not fully passed onto the auditory nerve?
a)
conductive hearing loss
b)
sensorineural hearing loss
c)
mixed hearing loss 
116.
Which type of hearing loss can be inherited, caused by old age, sudden loud noise, repeated exposure, medication, inner ear infection, or head trauma?
a)
mixed hearing loss
b)
conductive hearing loss
c)
sensorineural hearing loss 
117.
Substances that cause the body to produce antibodies.
a)
antibodies
b)
antigens
118.
T5- The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
119.
Noninvasive technique that uses ionizing radiation to produce 2-D images of dense materials such as bone
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
120.
Noninvasive technique that uses ionizing radiation to quickly produce cross-sectional images of tissue/bone
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
121.
Noninvasive technique that produces images of internal soft tissues through the use of magnets and radio waves.
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
122.
Noninvasive technique that examines skeletal abnormalities through the use of radio-tracers
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
123.
Scenario: Cleaning out the gutters, grandpa fell off the ladder and hit his head.  He felt nauseous and dizzy. Grandma took him to the ER to check for any internal brain swelling or bleeding. 
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
124.
Scenario: Jake is in the ER because he didn't stick his landing on his skateboard and has swelling in his right angle.  He also experiences pain when he attempts to put any weight on it. 
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
125.
Scenario: Alex has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer and is experiencing pain in his joints.  His physician suspects he has metastatic cancer that has spread to his skeletal system ad orders further testing to examine the joints and surrounding skeletal tissue. 
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
126.
Scenario: Coach Powell has been experiencing a tightening of her chest and difficulty breathing.  Her doctor is worried it might be her heart, so he orders testing to get a better look at her heart.  Coach is worried because she wonders if her pacemaker will interfere with the procedure. 
a)
MRI
b)
CT Scan
c)
x-ray
d)
Bone scan
127.
__________ can proliferate indefinitely. 
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
128.
__________ divide in an organized manner. 
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
129.
__________ contain distinct features that enable them to perform their specific function.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
130.
__________ lose their specialized cell features, which prevents them from performing their functions properly.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
131.
__________ have the same size and shape.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
132.
__________ vary in size and shape.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
133.
__________ have large, variably shaped nuclei
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
134.
__________ arrange themselves in an organized manner. There are well-defined tissue boundaries.
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
135.
__________ have a disorganized arrangement of cells. Tissue boundaries are poorly defined
a)
Cancer cells 
b)
Normal cells 
136.
The tissue on the right is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
137.
The tissue on the left is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
138.
The prostate tissue on the left is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
139.
The prostate tissue on the right  is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
140.
The liver tissue on the right  is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
141.
The liver tissue on the left  is ____
a)
Cancer
b)
Healthy tissue
142.
What does the black dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
143.
What does the red dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
144.
What does the green dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
145.
What does the yellow dot represent?
a)
Hybridization of healthy and cancer cells
b)
Hybridization of just healthy cells
c)
Hybridization of cancer cells
d)
Genes that were not transcribed in healthy cells
146.
Circle B and D have been...
a)
Up regulated "turned up"
b)
down regulated "turned down"
c)
not transcribed at all
147.
Which spot indicates a gene is expressed at a higher level?
a)
Light green
b)
dark green
148.
Which spot indicates a gene is expressed at a higher level?
a)
bright red
b)
dark red
149.
Which spot indicates a gene is expressed at a higher level?
a)
bright yellow
b)
dark yellow
150.
Circle A and B have been...
a)
up regulated "turned on"
b)
down regulated "turned down"
c)
Not transcribed at all
151.
Nancy has a rare form of osteosarcoma. She joins a research study with other people that are undergoing treatment for the same type of cancer.  Their genetic profiles are matched a PEARSON correlation coefficient is created.  Which drug should she be given?
a)
Patient 1 0.87632      drug 1
b)
Patient 2 0.63472      drug 2
c)
Patient 3 0.98632      drug 3
d)
Patient 4 0.38273      drug 4
152.
From where does Taq polymerase come?
a)
Bacteria that live in hydrothermal vents/hot springs.
b)
Cambodia
c)
The rain forest
d)
The CDC
153.
Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase?
a)
Taq polymerase can withstand the range of temperatures in PCR without denaturing.
b)
Taq polymerase is the most inexpensive type of polymerase.
c)
Taq polymerase is the most common type of polymerase.
d)
A specific type of polymerase is unnecessary.
154.
PCR happens in 3 steps (denaturing, annealing, extending) or 1 "cycle". How many times are cycles typically repeated?
a)
1
b)
10
c)
30
d)
Over 1 billion
155.

2.1.1 Two abnormal alleles must be inherited for an individual to show symptoms of this type of genetic disorder.

a)

Single gene recessive

b)

Single gene dominant

c)

Single gene sex-linked

d)

mitochondrial

156.

2.1.1 Type of genetic testing that would be most appropriate for parents planning to have children and have a recessive disorder in their family. The parents would like to know the probability that they may pass the disorder on to their future child.

a)

Diagnostic testing

b)

Prenatal testing

c)

Diagnostic testing

d)

Carrier testing (genotyping)

157.

2.1.2 Which of the following is NOT an "ingredient" included in the process of PCR.

a)

Helicase enzyme

b)

Free nucleotides

c)

Primers

d)

taq polymerase enzymes

158.

2.1.2 During which phase of PCR is taq polymerase active?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Annealing

c)

Extension

d)

Cloning

159.

2.1.2 The double helix of DNA is separated using heat during which step of PCR?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Annealing

c)

Extension

d)

Cloning

160.
This karyotype shows a
a)
Normal female
b)
Normal male
c)
Down
Down's  Syndrome Female
d)
Down's Syndrome Male
161.

There would appear to be ____ RFLPs in the gel of a person who is a carrier for Cystic Fibrosis.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

162.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
Obesity
b)
Cancer
c)
Diabetes
d)
Hepatitis
163.
Cancer is a consequence of the disruption of the cell cycle
a)
True
b)
False
164.
The causes of cancer may include which of the following?
a)
environmental influences
b)
UV radiation
c)
viruses
d)
all of these
165.
An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 
a)
tumor
b)
cyst
c)
lesion
d)
polyp
166.
When cancer spreads to other tissues of the body, it is called...
a)
Metastasis
b)
Invasiveness
c)
Angiogenesis
d)
Chemotherapy
167.
A cancer causing agent is called a(n)...
a)
Somatic mutation
b)
Carcinogen
c)
Oncogene
d)
Germline mutation
168.

Cancer cells do not pass cell cycle checkpoints, and so they undergo apoptosis and die.

a)

True

b)

False

169.
What is a term for programmed cell death?
a)
apoptosis
b)
necrosis
c)
cell death
d)
doom
170.

These are examples of:


  • Surgery
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiation
a)

Treatments for Cancer

b)

Mutations

c)

Examples of Asexual Reproduction

d)

Types of Tumors

171.

Undifferentiated cells that can become one or more specialized types of cell are called_________

a)

Stem Cells

b)

Somatic Cells

c)

Body Cells

d)

Zygotes

172.

Which of these is a risk factor for developing cancer? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

a)

growing older

b)

genetic inheritance

c)

exposure to carcinogens (toxins that can damage DNA)

d)

smoking

173.

Which of the following provides a natural sunscreen for skin?

a)

melanin

b)

carotene

c)

hemoglobin

d)

vitamin D

174.

When diagnosing melanoma, which of the following does C stand for in ABCD?

a)

color change

b)

cyanosis

c)

cold to the touch

d)

carotene present

175.

On a scale of 1-10, 1 meaning 'don't worry about it' and 10 being 'go see a dermatologist immediately', how would you classify this image?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

7

d)

10

176.

On a scale of 1-10, 1 meaning 'don't worry about it' and 10 being 'go see a dermatologist immediately', how would you classify this image?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

177.
Mutated cancer causing genes are reffered to as...
a)
oncogenes
b)
oncologists
c)
optometrist
d)
oink
178.
Which type of tumor is dangerous, spreads across bodily systems via blood and lymphatic systems?
a)
benign
b)
malignant
179.
Proto-oncogenes can mutate into...
a)
oncogenes
b)
tumor suppressor genes
c)
DNA repair proteins
180.
Uncontrolled cell division is stopped by...
a)
tumor suppressor genes
b)
oncogenes
181.
Normal cell division is regulated by...
a)
Proto-oncogenes
b)
oncogenes
182.

Which of these can cause cancer?

a)

viruses

b)

lack of sleep

c)

lack of exercise

d)

high-sugar diet

183.

What do the blue cells represent?

a)

Cancer cells

b)

Normal cells

c)

B cells

d)

Liver cells

184.

Bacteria will pick up stray bacteria and incorporate it into its genome through the process of:

a)

conjugation

b)

transformation

c)

translocation

d)

binary fission

185.

Genes can be cut out of human or plant DNA & placed into bacteria in small rings of DNA called:

a)

mRNA

b)

SNP

c)

Plasmid

d)

Nucleotides

186.

What cuts specific pieces of plasmid?

a)

scissors

b)

restriction enzymes

c)

bacteria

d)

DNA

187.
Gene therapy is the attempt to
a)
fuse cells taken from different species.
b)
treat disease by changing a patient's DNA.
c)
determine a baby's sex before birth.
d)
provide genes to people who have none.
188.

how can one fix a genetic disorder by gene therapy

a)

You can take out or change a section on a chromosome

b)

split the chromosomes

c)

add enzymes

d)

add buffer

189.
What was the first cloned animal?
a)
Dolly the Sheep
b)
Robby the Rat
c)
Milton the Mouse
d)
Beth the Goat
190.

If scientists engineer the DNA of tomatoes to make them survive in cold temperatures, what do type of technology do those tomatoes become?

a)

Human Genome Project

b)

Genetically Modified Organisms

c)

Punnett Squares

d)

Gene Therapy

191.

What advantage does chorionic villi sampling have over amniocentesis?

a)

It is less expensive and noninvasive

b)

It can be performed earlier in pregnancy

c)

It is safer because it only involves a blood test

d)

It can be performed later in pregnancy

192.

What is the name of the prenatal test that involves taking a sample of placenta?

a)

alpha-fetaprotein

b)

amniocentesis

c)

chorionic villi sampling

d)

ultrasound

193.

The fluid sample required for performing the Amniocentesis test is ________.

a)

(a) The amnion

b)

(b) The placenta

c)

(c) The liquid surrounding the immediate fetus

d)

(d) All of the above

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