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NGSS Chemistry Final Exam Review

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 7hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
WHAT ANOTHER NAME FOR THERMAL ENERGY?
a)
HEAT ENERGY
b)
ITS SIZE
c)
ITS POTENTIAL ENERGY
d)
ITS MECHANICAL ENERGY
2.
Heat transfer always goes from-
a)
Cold to Hot
b)
Hot to Cold
c)
Heat doesn't transfer
d)
Freezing to Cold
3.
What happens to particles as they heat up?
a)
They slow down
b)
Nothing
c)
They don't move
d)
They speed up
4.

The amount of heat energy required to change the temperature of 12 g of gold from 45°C to 15°C is -47 J. What is the specific heat capacity of gold?

a)

0.13 J/(g°C)

b)

17,000 J/(g°C)

c)

1600 J/(g°C)

d)

0.065 J/(g°C)

5.
You pick up a can of soda off of the countertop.  The countertop underneath the can feels colder than the rest of the counter.  Which explanation do you think is the best?
a)
The cold has been transferred from the soda to the counter.
b)
There is no heat energy left in the counter beneath the can.
c)
Some heat has been transferred from the counter to the soda.
d)
The heat beneath the can moves away into other parts of the countertop.
6.

An electron is

a)

positively charged

b)

neutral

c)

negatively charged

7.

atomic number is

a)

the number of protons

b)

the number of electrons

c)

the number of neutrons

d)

the location of an atom on the periodic table

8.

Conservation of mass means

a)

all the atoms present before a chemical reaction are not present after

b)

atoms present before chemical reactions are present after

c)

new substances and new elements are formed in a chemical reaction

9.
Can energy be destroyed
a)
no
b)
yes
10.
Energy can be _____________ or changed from one type to another.
a)
destroyed
b)
transferred
c)
created
d)
ignored
11.
Chemical energy is ........
a)
Energy related to the position of an object
b)
The energy an objected has from motion
c)
Energy stored in bonds of matter
d)
Energy flowing in a circuit
12.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
13.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
14.
An irregularly-shaped sample of aluminum (Al) is put on a balance and found to have a mass of 43.6 g.  The student decides to use the water-displacement method to find the volume.  The initial volume reading is  25.5 mL and, after the Al sample is added, the water level has risen to 41.7 mL.  Find the density of the Al sample.
a)
2.69 g/mL
b)
0.649 g/mL
c)
1.71 g/mL
d)
1.05 g/mL
15.

The students measured length during a science experiment, they got 12 cm. But the actual measurement was 14.25 cm. What was the percent error?

a)

15.79%

b)

18.75%

c)

2.25%

d)

18%

16.
Which form of matter does not take the shape of its container?
a)
liquid
b)
gas
c)
solid
d)
air
17.
How is a gas defined?
a)
Indefinite shape, indefinite volume
b)
Definite shape, definite volume
c)
Found in stars
d)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
18.
Particles of a liquid
a)
are tightly packed together and stay in a fixed position.
b)
have no viscosity.
c)
decrease in volume with increasing temperature.
d)
are free to move around one another but still touch.
19.
Particles (molecules) in a ______________________ have more energy than the other states of matter.
a)
gas
b)
solid
c)
liquid
20.
Molecules are closest together in a 
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
21.
Define a liquid.
a)
Indefinite shape, indefinite volume
b)
Definite shape, definite volume
c)
Found in stars
d)
Definite volume, indefinite shape
22.

What are the products of the chemical reaction pictured?

a)

CH4 and CO2

b)

CH4 and O2

c)

CO2 and H2O

d)

O2 and H2O

23.
Atoms of the same element with a different number of neutrons
a)
Ion
b)
Gluons
c)
Isotope
d)
Quarks
24.
A charged atom
a)
Ion
b)
Isotope
c)
Electron Cloud
d)
Quark
25.
Calculation used to find the number of neutrons in an atom
a)
Atomic Mass - Atomic Number
b)
Atomic Number - Atomic Mass
c)
Atomic Mass - Electrons
d)
none of these
26.

What is the atomic number?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

27.

How many protons and electrons does this element have?

a)

35

b)

18

c)

17

d)

52

28.

How many neutrons does Chlorine have?

a)

18

b)

17

c)

35

d)

52

29.
What electron configuration matches an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s2, 3p64s23d104p5
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
30.
What is the shorthand electron configuration for Sulfur atom?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s23p4
c)
[Ne] 3s23p4
d)
[Na] 3s23p3
31.

How many valence electrons are found in atoms of group 4?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

14

d)

16

32.
Which group has the greatest number of valence electrons?
a)
1
b)
14
c)
18
d)
16
33.

How many valence electrons are found in atoms of group 5A?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

2

d)

3

34.

All atoms are most stable with (or would "prefer") how many electrons in their valence shell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

8

d)

18

35.

What groups are the most reactive metals?

a)

2

b)

7A

c)

1

d)

17

36.

Why are halogens so reactive?

a)

They want to get rid of their only valance electron

b)

They only need one more electron

c)

They are non reactive, they have a full shell

37.

How do electrons of an element determine that element's reactivity?

a)

If the valence shell has missing electrons it is very reactive to attract or lose more electrons.

b)

If the valence shell has a full ring of electrons it is very reactive because it needs more.

c)

If the valence shell has a full shell of electrons it is very reactive because it is already full.

d)

If the valence shell has missing electrons it is not reactive because it is missing electrons.

38.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
39.
As you move across the periodic table from left to right, the atomic radius decreases.  This is because - 
a)
the number of protons increases, so attraction to electrons increases
b)
the number of energy levels increases
c)
the number of electrons increases
d)
the atomic mass increases
40.
Francium (Fr) has the lowest ionization energy in Group 1 because - 
a)
it has the smallest number of valence electrons
b)
it has the greatest atomic mass
c)
it has the greatest number of protons, so it attracts its electrons the strongest
d)
its 1 valence electron is very far from the nucleus, so little energy is needed to remove it
41.
Electronegativity is...
a)
the ability of an atom to attract/ accept electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
42.
Which has the greater Electronegativity: 
N or C?
a)
C
b)
N
43.
Electronegativity __________ from left to right within a period and __________ from top to bottom within a group.
a)
decreases, increases 
b)
increases, increases
c)
increases, decreases 
d)
stays the same, increases
44.
What does the Roman Numeral in the name of a multivalent compound represent?
a)
the charge on the anion
b)
the charge on the cation
c)
the number of cations
d)
the number of metal ions
45.

What type of compound is Ca3N2?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

46.
What is the name of Ca3N2?
a)
calcium nitrogen
b)
carbon nitrogen
c)
calcium nitride
d)
carbon nitrate
47.

Carbon monoxide is a deadly gas produced from incomplete combustion. What type of compound is it?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

48.
KNO3 is used in fertilizers as a source of potassium and nitrogen. If you want to buy fertilizer with this compound, what chemical name should you look for?
a)
potassium nitrate
b)
potassium nitrite
c)
potassium nitride
d)
potassium nitrogen
49.
What is the name of PdO2?
a)
palladium (IV) oxide
b)
palladium oxygen
c)
palladium oxide
d)
palladium (II) oxide
50.

Formula for barium sulfide

a)

B2S3

b)

BaS

c)

Ba2S

d)

BaS2

51.

Formula for Disilicon Heptasulfide

a)

SiS6

b)

SiS7

c)

Si2S6

d)

Si2S7

52.
SiCl4
a)
silicon tetrachloride
b)
silicon quadchloride
c)
monosilicon tetrachloride
d)
silicon chloride
53.
6.  Expressed in scientific notation, 0.0930 m is ___.
a)
      93 x 103 m.
b)
       9.3 x 10-3m.
c)
     9.30 x 10-2 m.
d)
     9.30 x 104 m.
54.
13.  What is the correct electron configuration for Calcium?
a)
a.  1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s1
b)
a.  1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s2
c)
a.  1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p5,4s2
d)
1s2,2s2,2p6,3s3,3p5,4s1
55.
The atom with the largest ionization energy.
a)
Francium
b)
Fluorine
c)
Argon
d)
Radon
56.
Noble gases don't react with anything else because...
a)
they are too large
b)
they are gases
c)
they have 8 valence electrons
d)
they need to gain 1 valence electron
57.
The most reactive metals are the...
a)
Alkaline earth metals
b)
Transition metals
c)
Alkali metals
d)
Halogens
58.

Which image shows a Bohr model for Carbon.

a)
b)
c)
d)
59.
Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
a)
potassium
b)
rubidium 
c)
francium
d)
cesium
60.
Which element is smaller in size?
a)
Ba
b)
Cr
61.
More than two-thirds of the elements are classified as
a)
a. nonmetals
b)
b. metals
c)
c. metalloids
d)
d. noble gases
62.
The arrangement of the elements in the present Periodic Table is based on atomic
a)
a. mass
b)
b. number
c)
c. radius
d)
d. density
63.
In the ground state, atoms of the elements in Group 15 of the Periodic Table all have the same number of
a)
a. filled principal energy levels
b)
b. occupied principal energy levels
c)
c. neutrons in the nucleus
d)
d. electrons in the valence shell
64.
Which list of elements contains two metalloids?
a)
a. Si, Ge, Po, Pb
b)
b. As, Bi, Br, Kr
c)
c. Si, P, S, Cl
d)
d. Po, Sb, I, Xe
65.
Which two substances can not be broken down by chemical change?
a)
a. C & CuO
b)
b. C and Cu
c)
c. CO2 & CuO
d)
d. CO2 & Cu
66.
An element in an atom moves from the ground state to an excited state, the potential energy of the electron
a)
a. decreases
b)
b. increases
c)
c. remains the same
67.
What is represented by the dots in a Lewis electron-dot diagram of an atom of an element in Period 2 of the Periodic Table?
a)
a. the number of neutrons in the atom
b)
b. the number of protons in the atom
c)
c. the number of valence electrons in the atom
d)
d. the total number of electrons in the atom
68.
What causes the emission of radiant energy that produces the characteristic spectral lines?
a)
a. neutron absorption by the nucleus
b)
b. gamma ray emission from the nucleus
c)
c. movement of electrons to higher energy levels
d)
return of electrons to lower energy levels
69.
Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are
a)
a. transferred from one atom to another
b)
b. captured by the nucleus
c)
c. mobile within a metal
d)
d. shared between two atoms
70.
The atomic mass of an element is defined as the weighted average mass of that element's 
a)
a. most abundant isotope
b)
b. least abundant isotope
c)
c. naturally occurring isotopes
d)
d. radioactive isotopes
71.
What is the total number of electrons in a Mg2+ ion?
a)
a. 10
b)
b. 2
c)
c. 12
d)
d. 24
72.
Different isotopes of the same element must have a different 
a)
a. mass number
b)
b. atomic number
c)
c. number of protons
d)
d. number of electrons
73.
Which change is exothermic?
a)
a. freezing water
b)
b. melting iron
c)
c. vaporization of ethanol
d)
d. sublimation of iodine
74.

Properties you can observe without changing the identity of the substance are called _____________ properties.

a)

chemical

b)

physical

c)

transient

d)

malleable

75.
Is wood burning a physical or chemical change?
a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
76.
Is making orange juice a physical or chemical change?
a)
Physical 
b)
Chemical
77.

What kind of matter is this?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

78.

What kind of matter is this?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Mixture

79.
Students of different grades were given the same jigsaw puzzle to assemble. The time they took to assemble it was measured. Which of the following is the dependent variable?
a)
different grades
b)
type of jigsaw puzzle
c)
time to assemble
d)
type of puzzle
80.
Based on your initial observations, you predict that the presence of water could accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is an example of a(n) _____.
a)
conclusion
b)
hypothesis
c)
observation
d)
variable
81.
A hypothesis
a)
is based on personal belief.
b)
may be disproved by a single experiment.
c)
does not have to be tested to be accepted as probably correct.
d)
is a proven fact.
82.
How do scientific theories compare to hypotheses?
a)
Theories are the same as hypotheses.
b)
Theories unify a broad range of observations and hypotheses.
c)
Hypotheses are the dominant view among scientists.
d)
Hypotheses combine the ideas of several theories to explain events.
83.
The closeness of a measurement to its true (actual) value is a measure of its
a)
accuracy.
b)
precision.
c)
reproducibility.
d)
usefulness.
84.
A student conducts an experiment to determine the effect of adding salt on the boiling temperature of water. What is the independent variable in this experiment?
a)
amount of salt added
b)
volume of water
c)
boiling temperature
d)
time required for water to boil
85.
Which best describes the difference between an observation and an inference?
a)
You can record an observation; an inference is an idea based on the observations.
b)
You make an inference before you make observations.
c)
An observation is a conclusion; an inference is a hypothesis.
d)
An observation is based on evidence; an inference is not.
86.
A molecule of methane has what shape?
a)
Tetrahedral
b)
Triangular
c)
Pyramidal
d)
Octahedral
87.

Which image could be a representation of NH3?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

88.

Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for a molecule of fluorine?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

89.
 A lone pair is defined as
a)
A pair of bonding electrons
b)
One non-bonding electron
c)
A pair of non-bonding electrons
d)
A pair of electrons on the central atom
90.
What molecule could this be? 
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
H2O
d)
CO2
91.

Is this molecule polar?

a)

Yes

b)

No

92.

Is this molecule polar?

a)

Yes

b)

No

93.

A diatomic molecule like O2 is always _____ because electrons are shared _____

a)

nonpolar; unequally

b)

polar; equally

c)

nonpolar; equally

d)

polar; unequally

94.
Which of the following is a polar molecule?
a)
CH4
b)
Xe
c)
H2O
d)
CO2
95.
Which of the following geometries could be nonpolar?
a)
bent
b)
tetrahedral
c)
trigonal pyrimidal
d)
none of the above
96.
Which of the following molecules, based on the elements present, would be most polar?
a)
HF
b)
H2
c)
HCl
d)
HBr
97.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

98.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

99.

Is this molecule polar or non-polar?

a)

Polar

b)

Non-polar

100.
Does HCl have hydrogen bonding?
a)
yes
b)
no
101.
All molecules have London forces between them, but dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding are so much stronger that when they are present we can ignore London forces.  Which of these has ONLY London forces?
a)
I2
b)
NH3
c)
OCl2
d)
SH2
102.
Intermolecular force present in HCl?
a)
dipole dipole
b)
dispersion
c)
H-bond
d)
ionic
103.
Intermolecular forces are the forces
a)
within molecules
b)
between molecules
104.

Does NH3 or PH3 have a higher boiling point?

a)

NH3 because it has the strongest intermolecular forces

b)

PH3 because it has the strongest intermolecular forces

c)

NH3 because it has the weakest intermolecular forces

d)

PH3 because it has the weakest intermolecular forces

105.

In general, substances with stronger intermolecular forces have ________ boiling points than those with weaker forces

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Forces and boiling point are not related

106.

Which statement explains why Br2 is a liquid at STP and I2 is a solid at STP?

a)

Molecules of Br2 are polar, and molecules of I2 are nonpolar

b)

Molecules of Br2 are nonpolar, and molecules of I2 are polar

c)

Molecules of Br2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of I2.

d)

Molecules of I2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of Br2.

107.
What is the right ratio of chemicals for the BCE (Balanced Chemical Equation)?__Na + __H2O --> __NaOH + __H2
a)
2,2 --> 2,1
b)
4,4 --> 4,1
c)
1,2 --> 2,4
d)
1,2 --> 2,1
108.
What is the right ratio of chemicals for the BCE (Balanced Chemical Equation)?__CO + __Fe2O3--> __Fe + __CO2
a)
3,1 --> 2,3
b)
3,2 --> 1,1
c)
3,2 --> 2,4
d)
3,2 --> 2,1
109.
What is the right ratio of chemicals for the BCE (Balanced Chemical Equation)?__H2 + __S --> __H2S
a)
1,1 --> 1
b)
2,2 --> 2
c)
1,2 --> 1
d)
1,2 --> 2
110.
What is the right ratio of chemicals for the BCE (Balanced Chemical Equation)?__Al + __O2--> __Al2O3
a)
4,1 --> 2
b)
4,3 --> 4
c)
3,4 --> 1
d)
4,3 --> 2
111.
What is the right ratio of chemicals for the BCE (Balanced Chemical Equation)?__FeCl3 + __Ca(OH)2 --> __Fe(OH)3 + __CaCl2
a)
4,3--> 2,1
b)
3,2 --> 3,1
c)
2,3 --> 2,2
d)
2,3 --> 2,3
112.
What type of reaction occurs between an element and a compound?
Zn + 2HCl --> ZnCl2 + H2
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Double Replacement
113.
What kind of reaction is this:
2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Double Replacement
114.
What kind of reaction is this:
2H2O2 →2 H2O + O2
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement 
d)
Combustion
115.
What kind of reaction is this:
2C3H7OH +9O2 -> 6CO2 + 8H2O
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Combustion
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Decomposition
116.
The reaction below is an example of?
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
a)
Single Replacement
b)
Double Replacement
c)
Decomposition
d)
Combustion
117.

What is the charge of Iron in this compound. (Hint: think swap drop method):

Fe3(PO4)2

a)

3+

b)

2+

c)

1+

d)

6+

118.

The symbol for a substance dissolved in solution is ______

a)

(s)

b)

(l)

c)

(aq)

d)

(g)

119.

Fill in the blank. (Copper has a charge of 2+)

Cu+ AgNO3 → Ag + _____

a)

Cu(NO3)2

b)

CuNO3

c)

CuAg

d)

Cu

120.

Predict the products of this synthesis reaction: H2 + Cl2 →

a)

HCl

b)

H2Cl2

c)

H2Cl

d)

HCl2

121.

Predict the products for the this Single Replacement reaction:

K + HCl →

a)

KCl + H2

b)

KHCl

c)

KH + Cl2

d)

HCl + K2

122.

Predict the products for the this Double Replacement reaction:

AgNO3 + KCl →

a)

AgCl + KNO3

b)

AgK + ClNO3

c)

KAg + NO3Cl

d)

AgCl + 3 KNO

123.

Predict the product of this synthesis reaction:

Al + S₈ →

a)

AlS

b)

AlS8

c)

Al2S

d)

Al2S3

124.

Predict the products for the decomposition of aluminum oxide, Al2O3 →

a)

Al + O2

b)

O + Al2

c)

Al2 + O3

d)

Al + O

125.

What are the products of this reaction:

C2H4 + O2 →

a)

C2O2 + H4

b)

CO2 + H2 + O2

c)

CO + H

d)

CO2 + H2O

126.

How many molecules are in 2.5 moles of NaCl?

a)

1.5 x1024 molecules

b)

1.5 molecules

c)

4.2 molecules

d)

4.2 x10-24 molecules

127.

You want to measure out 6.0 moles of epsom salt (MgSO4) to put in your bath. How many grams of MgSO4 is that?

a)

3.6 x 1024 g

b)

720 g

c)

0.050 g

d)

340 g

128.

How many moles are in 98.3 grams of aluminum hydroxide, Al(OH)3?

a)

1.26 moles

b)

0.8 moles

c)

7,670 moles

d)

1.63 x 10-22 moles

129.
N2 + 3H2 --> 2NH3
How many moles of N2 is needed to react with 6 moles of H2?
a)
6.7
b)
2.0
c)
3.0
d)
15.0
130.
4NH3 + 5O2-->4NO + 6H2O
What is the total number of moles of H2O produced when 12 mole of NH3 is completely consumed?
a)
15
b)
18
c)
20
d)
24
131.
What is the first thing you must do to solve a stoichiometry problem?
a)
Write a Balanced Equation
b)
Panic
c)
Write an Unbalanced Equation
d)
Avogadro's Number
132.
What is the mole ratio of H2O to H3PO4 in the following chemical equation?   P4O10 + 6 H2O --> 4 H3PO4 
a)
6:4
b)
4:6
c)
1:3
d)
3:1
133.
2Al + 3H2SO4 -> Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2
How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250g H2SO4 completely reacted with aluminum?
a)
0.85 g
b)
290 g
c)
450 g
d)
870 g
134.
The limiting reactant
a)
slows the reaction down
b)
is used up first
c)
is the reactant that is left over
d)
controls the speed of the reaction
135.
CH4 + 2H2O --> CO2 + 4H2
What is the limiting reactant when 20g CH4 react with 15g H2O?
a)
CH4
b)
H2O
c)
CO2
d)
H2
136.
Theoretical yield = 73g
Actual yield = 62g
Calculate the percent yield.
a)
1.16%
b)
116%
c)
85%
d)
76%
137.
If a chemist calculates the maximum amount of product that could be obtained in a chemical reaction, he or she is calculating the
a)
theoretical yield
b)
mole ratio
c)
actual yield
d)
percentage yield
138.
2CO  +  O2  −-> 2CO2
How many liters of carbon dioxide are produced from 10L of carbon monoxide?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
1
d)
5
139.
What is the percent yield of the following reaction if 145g of P2O5 reacts with 40 grams of water, but you only collected 112 grams of phosphoric acid? 3 H2O + P2O5 -> 2H3PO4
a)
80%
b)
85%
c)
77%
d)
58%
140.
How many liters of NH3 are needed to react completely with 30.0L of NO?
4NH3+6NO --> 5N2 + 6H2O
a)
5.0 L
b)
20.0 L
c)
7.5 L
d)
120.0 L
141.
H2 + 2 C + N2 + 270.3 kJ --> 2 HCN
Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a)
Endothermic 
b)
Exothermic
142.

A 500g piece of aluminum has a temperature of 7°C. What is the heat energy produced? Specific heat of Aluminum is 0.900 J/gºC.

a)

3000 J

b)

3000 g

c)

3150 J

d)

3150 g

143.

What does temperature measure?

a)

heat

b)

average kinetic energy

c)

space

d)

time

144.

A 24.0 gram sample of copper was heated from 25.0oC to 500.0oC, 4378 J of heat were absorbed, what is the specific heat of copper?

a)

0.384 J/g°C

b)

49909200 J/g°C

c)

2.60 J/g°C

d)

8.77 J/g°C

145.
If the enthalpy ter (ΔH) is negative the reaction is ____.
a)
Endothermic
b)
Exothermic
c)
Neutral
146.
The diagram represents which type of reaction
a)
endothermic
b)
exothermic
147.

The melting point of the sample is

a)

-60 ºC

b)

-100 ºC

c)

60 ºC

d)

100 ºC

148.

Given the heating curve of a solid being heated at a constant rate, what is the boiling point of this substance?

a)

20°C

b)

50°C

c)

110°C

d)

170°C

149.

Given the heating curve of a solid being heated at a constant rate, how much total time was required to boil this substance after it reached its melting point?

a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

14 minutes

150.

Given the heating curve for water, during which line segment could I find water in both the solid and liquid phase at the same time?

a)

AB

b)

BC

c)

CD

d)

DE

e)

EF

151.

This curve indicates what about the heat energy?

a)

Heat energy is being added or absorbed

b)

Heat energy is being released

152.

In which region(s) of the graph would the substance be melting?

a)

No melting occurs on this graph

b)

Region C-E

c)

Region E-G

d)

Region G-I

e)

Region I-K

153.

From point A to point F, the sample is going through an __________ process by __________.

a)

exothermic, releasing heat to the surroundings

b)

exothermic, absorbing heat from the surroundings

c)

endothermic, releasing heat to the surroundings

d)

endothermic, absorbing heat from the surroundings

154.

What is the freezing point of the substance?

a)

0oC

b)

60oC

c)

120oC

d)

180oC

155.
Change from gas to liquid...
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
expansion
d)
movement
156.
Change from Gas to Solid is called........
a)
Sublimation
b)
Deposition
c)
Fusion
d)
condensation
157.
When water is heated from 10°C to 15°C What is the change in temperature?
a)
10 °C
b)
5 °C
c)
15 °C
d)
25 °C
158.
If I have 2 blocks of Aluminium (one of 1kg and one of 10 kg) and heat them up.
Which one heats up the fastest.
a)
1 kg
b)
10 kg
c)
They both heat up at the same speed
d)
They don't heat up.
159.
How many Joules of energy are required to make 100 grams of ice at 0 οC completely melt? The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 334000 J/kg
a)
200 J
b)
400 J
c)
33,400 J
d)
2,000,000 J
160.
If a 8.50g ice cube at -10o C sits out on the counter, completely melts, and then warms to room temperature (25o C) how much energy did the ice cube absorb? Use C = 2.108 J/goC for ice, C = 4.184 J/goC for water, and Hf = 334 J/g.
a)
179.18 J
b)
2839 J
c)
889.1 J
d)
3907.3 J
161.
A substance that increases speed of chemical reaction without being being changed is called:
a)
Catalyst
b)
Acid
c)
Base
d)
pressure
162.
Activation energy is required to start a chemical reaction. What is activation energy?
a)
The energy needed for a reaction to occur
b)
The minimum amount of energy needed for a reaction to potentially occur
c)
The energy added by a catalyst
d)
The energy possessed by the products
163.
Increase in temperature of the reactants can do one of the following
a)
Slow collision frequency
b)
Allow less effective collision between the particles
c)
Cause particles to lose speed
d)
Increase collision between the particles thus increasing the rate.
164.
Grinding a seltzer tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increased
a)
concentration
b)
surface area
c)
temperature
d)
reactants
165.
Which of the following slows down the rate of a chemical reaction?
a)
Place the reactants in hot water
b)
Place the products in ice bath
c)
Place the reactants in a ice bath
d)
Keep stirring the reactants with a stirring rod
166.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Adding SO2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase rate of reaction

d)

have no change

167.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Increasing the temperature will...

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase pressure

d)

have no change

168.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Removing O2(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase pressure

d)

have no change

169.

2SO2(g)+O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Adding SO3(g) will

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase K

d)

have no change

170.

2SO2(g)+1O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Increasing the volume of the container will...

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

slow rate of reaction

d)

have no change

171.

2SO2(g)+1O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Increasing the pressure on the system will...

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

slow rate of reaction

d)

have no change

172.

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat


Using a catalyst

a)

shift equilibrium right

b)

shift equilibrium left

c)

increase the rate of reaction

d)

have no change

173.

Greenhouse gasses trap ____________ in the atmosphere

a)

Gas

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Infrared Energy

d)

Gamma Rays

174.

Which of the following are greenhouse gasses?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Methane

c)

Water

d)

All of the above

175.

What would happen if the Earth has no greenhouse gasses?

a)

The sun would be darker

b)

The planet would cool

c)

The seasons would flip

d)

Mr. Gale's birthday would be 5 days later

176.

Which of the following are possible outcomes of global warming?

a)

Sea levels rising

b)

More food for everyone

c)

The ice caps melting

d)

Option 1 and 3

177.

Which planet can we see a run away greenhouse gas effect?

a)

Mars

b)

Jupiter

c)

Saturn

d)

Venus

178.

Based on the graph, when did carbon dioxide levels start increasing more than normal?

a)

They have always been increasing

b)

The industrial revolution

c)

When we went to space

d)

The day that Mr. Gale was born

179.
Which natural process removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere?
a)
forest fires
b)
volcanic eruptions
c)
cellular respiration
d)
photosynthesis
180.

Currently, about 10% of Earth is covered with ice all year-round. If this ice melts, what could happen to Earth's temperature?

a)

decrease in temperature

b)

increase in temperature

c)

rise in sea level

d)

rise of zombie polar bears

181.
Describe how changes in the amount of ice covering Earth's surface can affect Earth's temperature.
a)
more ice, more reflection, cooler temperature
b)
more ice, less reflection, cooler temperature
c)
more ice, more absorption, cooler temperature
d)
more ice, less absorption, warmer temperature
182.
A tornado warning was issued for Kansas City this morning.
a)
Climate
b)
Weather
183.
Texas has long, hot summers.
a)
Climate
b)
Weather
184.
Climate change causes extreme weather conditions such as:
a)
Flooding
b)
Heat Waves
c)
Hurricanes
d)
All of the above
185.
Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
a)
Carbon dioxide CO2
b)
Methane CH4
c)
Water vapor
d)
Nitrogen N2
186.

Possible human solutions for limiting global warming and climate change are...

a)

being more energy-efficient

b)

using renewable sources of energy

c)

removing carbon from fossil fuel emissions

d)

all of the above

187.

What is the direct cause of rising sea levels?

a)

Melting Sea Ice

b)

Melting Land Ice

c)

Climate Change

188.

Floating sea ice melts...

a)

and causes sea levels to rise because it adds water to the ocean.

b)

but does not cause sea levels to rise because the ice displaces the same amount of ocean water as the melted ice would displace.

189.
How do scientists collect evidence about climate?  
a)
using remote sensing from space with satellites
b)
by ground-based measurements of surface temperatures, carbon dioxide concentration and sea level
c)
by collecting “proxy data” from tree rings, ice cores, and historical records
d)
all of the above
190.
Changes in temperature are expected to be greatest
a)
near the equator
b)
near the poles
c)
between the equator and the North Pole
d)
between the equator and the South Pole

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