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Practicum Health Science Spring Semester Test

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which lead is created by connecting the Right Arm and Left Leg?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

aVR

e)

aVL

2.

Name that ectopy!

a)

Premature Atrial Complex (PAC)

b)

Premature Junctional Complex (PJC)

c)

Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC)

3.

Name that pattern!

a)

Bigeminy

b)

Trigeminy

c)

Couplet / Pair

d)

Run / Burst

4.

what is NOT oxygenated

a)

lt. atria

b)

lt. ventricle

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

aorta

5.

The ___________ represents ventricular repolarization.

a)

T wave

b)

U wave

c)

QT interval

d)

ST segment

6.

Name that ectopy!

a)

Premature Atrial Complex (PAC)

b)

Premature Junctional Complex (PJC)

c)

Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC)

7.

What is the heart rate for this rhythm?

a)

30 BPM 

b)

50 BPM 

c)

60 BPM

d)

80 BPM

8.

Name that ectopy!

a)

Premature Atrial Complex (PAC)

b)

Premature Junctional Complex (PJC)

c)

Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC)

9.

Name that ectopy!

a)

Premature Atrial Complex (PAC)

b)

Premature Junctional Complex (PJC)

c)

Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC)

10.

Name that pattern!

a)

Bigeminy

b)

Trigeminy

c)

Couplet / Pair

d)

Run / Burst

11.
The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is known as the ___ valve.
a)
bicuspid/mitral
b)
tricuspid
c)
pulmonary
d)
aortic
12.
What is also known as the pacemaker of the heart?
a)
AV Node
b)
SA Node
c)
Bundle of His
d)
Purkinje Fibers
13.

slow heart rate is

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradycardia

c)

arrhythmia

d)

asystole

14.
Artifact is
a)
a normal part of each EKG tracing
b)
an indication of decreased cardiac output
c)
sometimes caused by muscle tremors or extra patient movement
d)
consistently the same across the EKG tracing
15.

Blood enters the heart from the _______?

a)

Superior and inferior vena cava

b)

Bicuspid and Tricuspid

c)

aorta

d)

pulmonary artery

16.

Once blood passes through the mitral/ bicuspid valve, it enters the________?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Left atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

17.
Which lead is placed 5th Intercostal Space, on the anterior axillary line?
a)
V3
b)
V4
c)
V5
d)
V6
18.
Which lead is found between V2 and V4?
a)
V1
b)
V2
c)
V3
d)
V4
19.
Which lead is placed 5th Intercostal Space, midaxillary line?
a)
V3
b)
V4
c)
V5
d)
V6
20.
Which lead is placed in the 4th Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum?
a)
V1
b)
V2
c)
V3
d)
V4
21.
Which lead is placed in the 4th Intercostal Space, Right of the Sternum?
a)
V1
b)
V2
c)
V3
d)
V4
22.
Which lead is found 5th Intercostal Space, midclavicular line?
a)
V1
b)
V2
c)
V3
d)
V4
23.

Which lead is created by connected the left arm and the left leg?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

aVR

e)

aVL

24.

Which letter represents the P wave

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

25.

Which word most closely correlates with precordial?

a)

limb

b)

chest

c)

augmented

d)

bipolar

26.

P wave is

a)

Repolarization of atria

b)

Repolarization of ventricles

c)

Depolarization of atria

d)

Depolarization of ventricles

27.

Which event is NOT correct during P wave

a)

SA node generates an impulse and transmits it to walls of atria

b)

Atrial depolarization

c)

Atria contract

d)

Ventricular depolarization

28.

Which letter represents the T wave

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

29.

By relating events in ECG with phases in cardiac cycle, at which event do the atria contract and ventricles relax?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

30.

Repolarization of ventricles means

a)

the electrical impulse are removed from walls of atria

b)

the electrical impulse are removed from walls of ventricles

c)

the electrical impulse are removed from wall of atrium

d)

the electrical impulse are removed from wall of left ventricle

31.
On the horizontal axis of the ECG strip, each small block equals to how may seconds?
a)
0.02
b)
0.01
c)
0.40
d)
0.04
32.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

Asystole

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

33.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

34.

Rate: 150 – 250 bpm

Rhythm: regular

a)

Accelerated Junctional Rhythm

b)

ST

c)

Accelerated IVR

d)

SVT

35.

Lead II is the standard lead in viewing the EKG.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

A common cardiac dysrhythmia characterized by premature heartbeats originating in the atria.

a)

A-Fib

b)

A-Flutter

c)

PAC's

d)

SA Block

37.

ST Elevation

a)

NSTEMI

b)

STEMI

38.

Occlusion of this artery is often the most fatal.

a)

Right Posterior Ascending Artery

b)

Left Anterior Descending Artery

c)

Circumflex Artery

d)

Marginal Artery

39.

Use the rule of 300 to determine approximate Heart Rate.

a)

300/6 = 50

b)

300/3.5 = 75

c)

300/1.5 = 200

d)

Not enough information.

40.

Which of the following best describes this strip?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Asystole

41.

The nurse sees the above rhythm on the monitor. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Defibrillate the patient

b)

Initiate chest compressions

c)

Check for the presence of a pulse

d)

Advise the patient not to get out of bed

42.

Name the EKG

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Sinus Tachycardia

c)

Sinus Bradycardia

d)

Atrial fibrillation

43.

The QRS complex is normally __________ seconds in duration

a)

0.06 to 0.10

b)

0.04 to 0.10

c)

0.08 to 0.12

d)

0.10 to 0.12

44.

Every other beat is a PVC

a)

A fib

b)

Atrial Flutter

c)

Asystole

d)

bigeminy

45.

Atria are irritable and quivering, causing fibrillatory waves between QRS complex

a)

asystole

b)

atrial flutter

c)

A fib

d)

V fib

46.

Every third beat is a PVC

a)

Bigeminy

b)

Trigeminy

c)

Couplet

d)

Triplet

47.

Ventricles are irritable and no longer contract but quiver, there are no definite complexes

a)

A fib

b)

V fib

c)

V tach

d)

Atrial flutter

48.

What rhythm is here?

a)

idioventricular

b)

agonal

c)

asystole

d)

sinus bradycardia

49.
The purpose of this test is to assess the electrical activity of your heart at rest.
a)
ECG
b)
Echocardiogram
c)
Stress Test
50.
The purpose of this test is to assess the electrical activity of the heart under stress.
a)
ECG
b)
Echocardiogram
c)
Stress Test
51.
Which of the following patients made need a right sided ECG?
a)
Patients younger than 8
b)
Patients who have received dextrocardia
c)
patients with left sided heart attacks
d)
patients with broken ribs
52.
Patients must meticulously record events during ____ use.
a)
Stress Test ECG
b)

Holter Monitor

c)
Echocardiogram
d)
Standard ECGs
53.
Risks of ________ include: arrhythmias, heart attack, and low blood pressure (hypotension)
a)
Stress Test ECG
b)
Ambulatory Monitoring
c)
Echocardiogram
d)
Standard ECGs
54.
Patient having a stress test should avoid tobacco, alcohol and caffeine for at least ____ hours prior to the test
a)
1
b)
3
c)
8
d)
12
55.
Patients should eat a small meal 2 hours before their test unless instructed otherwise by the ordering physician prior to a stress test.
a)
true
b)
false
56.
Which two drugs are often held before a stress test, due to their mechanism of action including block the heart from increasing its rate.
a)
aspirin
b)
calcium channel blockers
c)
beta blockers
d)
epinephrine
57.
How does the ECG tech know when to complete the stress test?
a)
the target heart rate is reached
b)
the patient becomes fatigued
c)

the patient begins to experience shortness of breath

d)

The patient completes all levels of the ECG Test

58.
How long do most stress tests take?
a)
10 minutes
b)
1 hours
c)
3 hours
d)
8 hours
59.

During which type of tests to patients wear a monitor in an ambulator setting for 30 days, pressing a record button on the loop device when they experience palpitations?

a)

ECG

b)

Stress Test

c)

Holter Monitor

d)

Event (Loop) Monitor

60.

Select all the bipolar leads

a)

Lead I

b)

avR

c)

V1

d)

Lead II

e)

avL

61.

When placing EKG electrodes, which one is considered the grounding electrode?

a)

Right Arm

b)

Left Arm

c)

Left Leg

d)

Right Leg

62.

What is the best position for the patient when performing an EKG?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral

d)

Standing

63.

What is the best position for a patient with severe shortness of breath when performing an EKG?

a)

Prone

b)

Semi-Fowlers

c)

Lateral

d)

Left Sim's

64.

Which method is the most accurate for assessing an ecg rhythm rate?

a)

1500 method

b)

6 second method

c)

300 method

65.

Which method for assessing ECG rate is best for an irregular rhythm?

a)

1500 method

b)

6 second method

c)

300 method

66.

The major concern for ST segment elevation is

a)

stroke

b)

pericarditis

c)

myocardial infarction

d)

medications

67.

Using the six second method, you count 12 R waves in a six second strip. This could be documented as

a)

a regular rate

b)

bradycardia

c)

tachycardia

68.

What is the value of a small box on the x axis of an ecg?

a)

.1 mv

b)

.5 mV

c)

.04 seconds

d)

.20 seconds

69.

What is the value of a small box on the y axis of an ecg?

a)

.1 mV

b)

.5 mV

c)

.04 seconds

d)

.20 seconds

70.

You see three small boxes on the x axis of an ecg. You know this means ______.

a)

3 mv

b)

.3 mV

c)

3 seconds

d)

.12 seconds

71.

You see four small boxes on the y axis of the ecg. You know this means ____.

a)

.16 seconds

b)

4 seconds

c)

4 mV

d)

.4 mV

72.

______ is the standard speed for the paper to run on the ECG.

a)

10 mm/second

b)

25 mm/second

c)

50 mm/second

d)

12.5 mm/second

73.

The x axis on ecg paper represents:

a)

gain

b)

amplitude

c)

heart attack

d)

time

74.

What is the single most important thing a healthcare worker can do to stop the cycle of infection?

a)

Wear a mask

b)

Get a vaccine

c)

Wash hands

d)

None of the above

75.

True or False: The correct sequence of donning PPE is the following: gloves, mask/respirator, goggles/face shielf, gown.

a)

true

b)

false

76.

One important type of PPE is a respirator. Which statement is FALSE about a respirator?

a)

A respirator is to be worn at all times when a patient is in droplet precautions

b)

It is important to be fitted for a respiratory annually by your employer.

c)

After donning a respirator, the nurse must perform a seal check.

d)

After providing patient care, the nurse will remove the respirator outside the patient's room.

77.

Hospital acquired infections are called ___?

a)

antibiotic resistant infections

b)

septicemia

c)

nosocomial infections

d)

vector

78.

________ requires that all workers be provided with the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).

a)

PPE

b)

OSHA

c)

CDC

d)

NIH

79.

Allowing a patient to think without feeling pressure is an example of

a)

Accepting

b)

Being silent

c)

Offering self

d)

Offering general leads

80.

"I'm enjoying hearing your thoughts about your upcoming vacation, but let's get back to what to do if this keeps bleeding after you leave."

a)

focusing

b)

giving a broad opening

c)

giving recognition

d)

making observations

81.
If the wrist band is not on the patient but is on the bedside table...
a)
Draw their blood then let the nurse know
b)
Put it on the patient, then draw their blood
c)
Do not draw the blood, let the nurse know
d)
Draw their blood, after they identify themselves
82.
What are the most common patient identifiers?
a)
Full name
b)
Date of Birth(DOB)
c)
address
d)
Full name and DOB
83.
If there is any reasonable suspicion that the patient does not understand what venipuncture is and what will happen ------- 
a)
Do it anyway
b)
Do not perform the venipuncture.
c)
Leave the patient alone.
d)
Don't notify the supervisor.
84.
When assisting with hygiene on a patient who has hepatitis B, you should observe ______ precautions.
a)
airborne
b)
contact
c)
biohazard
d)
standard
85.
The first thing you do when you walk in the patients room is...
a)
Introduce yourself
b)
Gather your supplies
c)
Identify patient
d)
Check Requisition
86.

You see the NFPA hazard symbol see here. You know this chemical is:

a)

Acidic

b)

Highly Toxic

c)

Extremely Flammable

d)

Normally Stable

87.

You see the NFPA hazard symbol see here. You know this chemical is:

a)

Acidic

b)

Highly Toxic

c)

Extremely Flammable

d)

A dangerous health hazard

88.

You are about to put out a fire that started on some electrical equipment in the lab. You should use a class ___ fire extinguisher.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

K

89.

When it comes to clostridium difficile, or cdiff, the CPT knows that

a)

the patient must be in droplet isolation

b)

you must use hand sanitizer any time you come into contact with the patient

c)

you must wash your hands with soap and water before exiting the room

90.

Which is not a rule for workplace safety ?

a)

Never use solutions from bottles that are not labeled

b)

Do not operate any equipment if your instructor / immediate supervisor is not in the room.

c)

If you don't know how to do something always read the instructions and try first before you tell your supervisor.

d)

Never handle any electrical equipment with wet hands, or near water.

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