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AP Human Geo Final Questions

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Belgium is a _____ speaking country.

a)

Belgae (a Celtic Language)

b)

Flemish (a Germanic Language)

c)

French (a Romance Language)

d)

Both B and C

2.

Which of the following European countries has a rather sharp division between Flemish speakers in the north and French speakers in the south?

a)

Natherlands

b)

Belgium

c)

Denmark

d)

Andorra

3.

While speakers of the English language form the largest share of Internet users, both the Chinese language and the _____ language have more speakers globally.

a)

Arabic

b)

Spanish

c)

Japanese

d)

Hindi

4.

The French government has _____ to protect French language and culture.

a)

banned foreign word in advertising and on radio and television

b)

established teh Academic Francaise to standardize the language

c)

passed a law levying fines on those using foreign terms

d)

all of the above

5.

Hawai’i is an example of state with

a)

no linguistic variation

b)

official "English only" policies

c)

official bilingual policies

d)

no official language policies

6.

Which is NOT true of Quebec?

a)

First Nations people of the province speak language other than Quebecois French

b)

The provincial government passed laws banning or controlling the use non-French languages in advertising

c)

Quebec contains areas dominated by non-French speaking minorities

d)

It is 100% French speaking

7.

A(n) ____ is published, widely distributed, and purposely taught. The promotion of Irish (Celtic) in Ireland is an example.

a)

standard language

b)

basic language

c)

extinct language

d)

isolated language

8.

Dialects are distinguished by differences in

a)

accents and pronounciation

b)

vocabulary

c)

syntax

d)

all of the above

9.

A geographic boundary within which a particular linguistic feature occurs is called

a)

an isogloss

b)

a sound shift

c)

an international border

d)

a cultural boundary

10.

The most widely distributed language family is ______

a)

Saharan

b)

Sino-Tibetan

c)

Indo-European

d)

Dravidian

11.

The most widely used Indo-European language today is

a)

English

b)

German

c)

Spanish

d)

Chinese

12.

Latin octo (eight) became Italian otto, Spanish ocho, and French huit. This is an example of a ______, which is a word that has the same linguistic derivation as another word.

a)

deterioration

b)

cognate

c)

dialect

d)

isogloss

13.

The process of language divergence happened long ago between Spanish and Portuguese, and is now happening in

a)

Korea

b)

Hawai'i

c)

Turkey

d)

Iran

14.

The language tree diagram of language divergence has some branches with dead ends. These represent

a)

standardized or non-changing languages

b)

language subfamilies

c)

isolated languages

d)

extinct languages

15.

The Proto-Indo-European language homeland lies somewhere south of the

a)

Mediterranean Sea

b)

Baltic Sea

c)

Black Sea

d)

Sea of Okhotsk

16.

The two theories of the Proto-Indo-European language dispersal are the conquest theory and

a)

the spread of agriculture

b)

massive migration

c)

extensive trade routes

d)

missionary activity

17.

Nigeria predominantly teaches in ___ in many primary and secondary schools despite its linguistic diversity.

a)

Hausa

b)

Yoruba

c)

Ibo

d)

English

18.

Which development helped with the rise of national languages beginning in the fourteenth century?

a)

invention of the printing press

b)

agricultural revolution

c)

Celtic migrations

d)

fall of the Roman Empire

19.

A language that is used among speakers of different languages for the purposes of trade and commerce is

a)

standardized language

b)

common language

c)

lingua franca

d)

lingua germanica

20.

English is to lingua franca as _____ is to pidgin language.

a)

French

b)

Creole

c)

Portuguese

d)

Chinese

21.

Over time a pidgin language may gain native speakers, becoming the first language children learn in the home. This is called a

a)

dialect

b)

creole language

c)

language subfamily

d)

lingua franca

22.

The adoption of official languages such as English in India and Malaysia, along with the adoption of second official languages from among the indigenous languages spoken reflects

a)

linguist divergence

b)

a country's colonial history

c)

creolization

d)

linguas franca

23.

In practice, every country is___, meaning more that more than one language is spoken.

a)

multilingual

b)

monolingual

c)

unilingual

d)

non-lingual

24.

To deal with linguistic as well as cultural diversity, many former African colonies adopted an official language from

a)

the most widely-spoken indigenous language

b)

an Austronesian and therefore neutral language

c)

the language of the former colonial power

d)

an invented language with no historical connections

25.

The systematic study of the origin and meaning of place names is called

a)

deep reconstruction

b)

namology

c)

toponymy

d)

lexicography

26.

Clusters of French toponyms in Louisiana, Dutch toponyms in Michigan and Welsh toponyms in Pennsylvania reflect

a)

descriptive toponyms

b)

folk toponyms

c)

commemorative toponyms

d)

the shift of names associated with migration

27.

Leopoldville, Congo becomes Kinshasa and Salisbury, Zimbabwe becomes Harare. These are examples of

a)

colonial toponyms

b)

descriptive toponyms

c)

migration effects

d)

post-colonial toponyms

28.

The greatest concentration of streets memorializing Martin Luther King is found in:

a)

the West

b)

the Northeast, particularly Massachusetts

c)

the Midwest, especially Illinois

d)

the South, especially Georgia

29.

The naming of sports stadiums and other facilities for corporations (e.g., Petco Park, FedEx Field, Coors Field) is an example of

a)

hubris

b)

memorial toponyms

c)

commodification

d)

post-modern toponyms

30.

When African colonies became independent countries, one of the first acts of many of the new governments was to

a)

conduct a census

b)

build a new capital city

c)

change the names of places that had been names after colonial figures

d)

build new road systems

31.

The Yellow River, or Huang He River Valley, is to Chinese Philosophy as the Indus River Valley is to

a)

Christianity

b)

Hinduism

c)

Confucianism

d)

Buddhism

32.

Political conflicts often occur along ____ boundaries such as the Christian-Muslim boundary in Africa.

a)

physical

b)

interfaith

c)

multicultural

d)

secular

33.

The roots of Hinduism are in the Indus River Valley of what is today part of

a)

Iran

b)

Pakistan

c)

India

d)

Afghanistan

34.

The belief that inanimate objects (e.g. trees, mountains, boulders) contain spirits is

a)

atheism

b)

agnosticism

c)

agrarianism

d)

animism

35.

Which of the following is not generally a characteristic of an ethnic religion?

a)

found in a particular culture

b)

widely diffused

c)

spatially concentrated

d)

does not seek outside convert

36.

The faith that is most widely dispersed over the world is

a)

Christianity

b)

Islam

c)

shamanism

d)

Buddhism

37.

Islam is predominant in northern ____, while traditional religions are found more in the southern parts of the continent.

a)

Europe

b)

Africa

c)

Asia

d)

North America

38.

Hinduism arose in the _____ River valley.

a)

Indus

b)

Ganges

c)

Brahmaputra

d)

Krishna

39.

One of the unique characteristics of Hinduism is that it

a)

is so young

b)

is a very simple religion

c)

emerged without a single founder, a single theory, or a single origin story

d)

has so few followers

40.

One of the unique characteristics of Hinduism is that it

a)

karma

b)

monotheism

c)

a detailed book of scripture

d)

a violent ideology

41.

The Indonesian island of Bali became a refuge for Hindu holy men, nobles and intellectuals during the sixteenth century because

a)

volcanic eruptions drove them out of neighboring islands

b)

droughts and famines swept India

c)

Buddhism engulfed neighboring Sumatra

d)

Islam diffused through neighboring Java

42.

Hinduism has not spread by expansion diffusion in modern times, but at one time it did spread by relocation diffusion as a result of

a)

the transportation of Indian workers abroad during the colonial period

b)

conquest by military groups

c)

forced relocation by Islamic invaders

d)

missionary activities overseas

43.

Buddhism has its source in

a)

India

b)

Japan

c)

China

d)

Thailand

44.

The founder of Buddhism, Siddhartha Gautama, who came to be known as the Buddha (enlightened one) was perhaps the first prominent Indian religious leader to

a)

reject the eating of meat

b)

acknowledge sacred animals, such as cattle

c)

speak out against the Hindu caste system

d)

aceept Karma

45.

The teachings of Lao-Tsu form the tenants of

a)

Confucianism

b)

Hinduism

c)

Taoism

d)

Islam

46.

The Confucian Classics were the 13 texts that were the focus of education for 2,000 years in

a)

Japan

b)

Afghanistan

c)

China

d)

India

47.

The diaspora of the Jews resulted from

a)

Moses's decision to leave Egypt

b)

the Arab-Israeli conflict

c)

the European holocaust of the Nazis

d)

the Roman destruction of Jerusalem

48.

The ideology of Zionism has as its goal

a)

the merger of Judaism with other religions.

b)

the merger of the three modern divisions of Judaism.

c)

a homeland for the Jewish people.

d)

the elimination of the Orthodox division within the faith.

49.

The denomination of Christianity with the largest number of adherents is

a)

Protestant

b)

Eastern Orthodox

c)

Coptic

d)

Roman Catholicism

50.

Roman Catholic Christianity was spread to Middle and South America by

a)

England

b)

Spain

c)

Portugal

d)

Italy

51.

The youngest major religion is

a)

Hinduism

b)

Judaism

c)

Islam

d)

Christianity

52.

The Hajj, one of the “pillars of Islam,” is

a)

charitable giving

b)

fasting during the holy month

c)

the veil worn by Muslim women

d)

the pilgrimage to Mecca

53.

The rise of secularism and decline of religious membership are found in

a)

Europe

b)

Africa

c)

Southwest Africa

d)

Southeast Asia

54.

The Church of the Holy Sepulcher in Jerusalem marks the site of Christ’s

a)

birth

b)

first miracle

c)

last supper

d)

tomb

55.

Jerusalem is a sacred place for

a)

Jews

b)

Muslims

c)

Christians

d)

all of the above

56.

The pagoda is the style of building most often associated with

a)

the Buddhist faith

b)

the Jain faith

c)

early Islam, prior to the mosque

d)

the Parsee faith

57.

Which is NOT a feature of Islamic sacred architecture?

a)

Minarets

b)

adoption of Roman models of design

c)

Frescoes depicting the life of the prophet

d)

geometric and calligraphic ornamentation

58.

Which is an example of an intrafaith (boundary) conflict?

a)

Israel-Palestine

b)

Former Yugoslavia

c)

Northern Ireland

d)

Nigeria

59.

In 2007, Israel granted autonomy to

a)

Jews

b)

Egypt

c)

Gaza

d)

the West Bank

60.

Northern Ireland, scene of Catholic-Protestant conflict, was partitioned by

a)

the United Nations

b)

mutual agreement of the two conflicting parties

c)

the Catholic Church through a Papal Nuncio

d)

Britain

61.

The extremist group ____ operates in Nigeria.

a)

Al-Qaeda

b)

Central Advocates for Islam

c)

Boko Haram

d)

Hamas

62.

_____ refers to the indifference or rejection of formal religion.

a)

secularism

b)

atheism

c)

monotheism

d)

polytheism

63.

Pork production is slim to nearly none in ____ countries.

a)

Buddhist

b)

Christian

c)

Animist

d)

Muslim

64.

Most ____ states gained independence after 1940.

a)

South American

b)

European

c)

East Asian

d)

African

65.

At the global scale, political geographers study the spatial manifestations of political processes expressed in the organization of territories with permanent population, defined territory and a government. These spatial units are called

a)

provinces

b)

states

c)

nations

d)

regions

66.

The Peace of Westphalia _____

a)

marked the beginning of the modern state system of Europe

b)

ended WWI

c)

created West germany after WWII

d)

created modern Pakistan after the British withdrawal

67.

The Peace of Westphalia is the seminal moment in the emergence of the European state. This marked the end of

a)

WWI

b)

the Thirty Years War

c)

the Napoleonic Wars

d)

the War of the Roses

68.

The promotion of the acquisition of wealth through plunder, colonization, and the protection of home industries and foreign markets during Europe’s rebirth was called

a)

imperialism

b)

neo-imperialism

c)

mercantilism

d)

neocolonialism

69.

Though more than two million _____ live in the Gaza Strip and West Bank, the international community does not universally recognize their lands as a state.

a)

Walloons

b)

Palestinians

c)

Kurds

d)

Tamils

70.

Kurdistan _____

a)

is a sovereign nation bordered by Iraq and Turkey

b)

is a stateless nation

c)

is governed by Russia

d)

is governed by Israel

71.

Yugoslavia was a prime example of a

a)

multi-state nation

b)

nation-state

c)

stateless nation

d)

multinational state

72.

Which is an example of a stateless nation?

a)

Korea

b)

Kurdistan

c)

Hungary

d)

Switzerland

73.

The European state idea spread throughout the world through

a)

European colonialism

b)

economic development

c)

League of Nations planning

d)

contagious diffusion

74.

One of the most powerful impacts of colonialism was the construction of global order characterized by great differences in

a)

population

b)

military and political power

c)

economic and political power

d)

military and economic power

75.

The highly uneven distribution of economic and political power that developed from colonialism was due to the concentration of wealth brought to

a)

South American

b)

Europe

c)

Asia

d)

Africa

76.

Wallerstein’s views expressed in world systems theory hold that the global integrating force has been

a)

capitalism

b)

the rise of the U.N.

c)

socialism

d)

colonial independence movements

77.

The boundaries of independent African states were drawn at the Berlin Conference and were essentially drawn

a)

arbitrarily

b)

along ethnic lines

c)

along religious lines

d)

along ecological lines

78.

Which is not characteristic of unitary state governments?

a)

highly centralized

b)

capital city functions as core of power

c)

suppression of regional subcultures

d)

concerned with fostering diversity of regional cultural expression

79.

Nigeria is a state with a federal system of government. This fact is reflected in the adoption of ____ law in the states of the Muslim North.

a)

British Common

b)

Nigerian Federal

c)

Shari'a

d)

local tribal

80.

The movement of power from the central government to regional governments is referred to as

a)

revolution

b)

pluralism

c)

supranationalism

d)

devolution

81.

Which country has experienced violent devolution?

a)

Yugoslavia

b)

Italy

c)

Czechoslovakia

d)

Belgium

82.

In 1997 Scotland took a major devolutionary step with the establishment of

a)

independence from Britain

b)

its own currency and passports

c)

the Scottish Parliament

d)

the Scottish National Party

83.

Distance, remoteness and marginal location enhance the potential for devolution. This form of devolution is referred to as

a)

ethnic devolution

b)

territorial devolution

c)

economic devolution

d)

economic marginalization

84.

The process of adjustment of the number of representatives in the U.S. House of Representatives to reflect shifts in population patterns is known as

a)

gerrymandering

b)

territorial representation

c)

electoral geography

d)

reapportionment

85.

A series of concrete pillars _____ the northern boundary of Kuwait with Iraq.

a)

defines

b)

delimits

c)

demarcates

d)

determines

86.

A boundary between countries is a

a)

line on the ground only

b)

line shown on only maps

c)

point of separation on and below the surface only

d)

vertical plane that cuts through the rocks below and air above

87.

The boundary between the United States and Canada west of the Great Lakes is an example of a(n)

a)

physical-political boundary

b)

geometric boundary

c)

mountain crest boundary

d)

administrative boundary

88.

Which is an example of an allocational boundary dispute?

a)

dispute over the interpretation of boundary treaty terminology

b)

dispute over boundaries not covered by a treaty

c)

dispute over the function of a boundary with regard to migration

d)

dispute over rights to resources crossed by international boundaries

89.

Geometric boundaries, totally unrelated to any aspects of the cultural or physical landscape, were made considerable use of by the colonial powers in

a)

Asia

b)

South America

c)

Central America

d)

Africa

90.

The first political geographer who studied the state in detail was Friedrich Ratzel. He postulated that the state resembles a biological organism. His organic theory identified _____ as a state’s essential life-giving force.

a)

population

b)

a strong military

c)

territory

d)

mobility

91.

Ratzel’s organic theory was converted into a subfield of political geography called geopolitics which was subsequently translated into practical national policies by some of his students. What country used geopolitics as a philosophy of expansion?

a)

Japan

b)

Nazi Germany

c)

Britain

d)

France

92.

Sir Halford Mackinder developed what would become known as the heartland theory, which suggested that interior Eurasia contained a critical “pivot area” that would generate a state capable of challenging for world domination. The key to the area, according to Mackinder, was

a)

natural protection

b)

distance

c)

natural resources

d)

eastern Europe

93.

In 1943, Mackinder wrote about his concerns over the potential of Stalin’s control of the countries of eastern Europe. His views led to the development of the United States’ containment policy and to the establishment of

a)

friendly relationships with China

b)

the United Nations

c)

NATO

d)

the Berlin Wall

94.

Technically supranationalism refers to efforts by ____ or more states to forge associations for common advantage and in pursuit of common goals.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

95.

The League of Nations was created in 1919 as the first international organization that would include all nations of the world. Its success was dealt a serious blow by the failure of which country to join?

a)

Britain

b)

Russia

c)

the United States

d)

Canada

96.

Participation in the United Nations serves the useful purpose of committing states to

a)

loan money to poorer ones

b)

argeeing to world laws

c)

international standards of behavior

d)

respect and accept present political boundaries

97.

The United Nations is not a world government, but in recent years individual states have asked the United Nations to do several different things, including

a)

peacekeeping

b)

writing human rights standards

c)

providing for refugees

d)

all of the above

98.

The first major experiment in regional supranationalism was undertaken in Europe before the end of World War II and involved

a)

the Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg

b)

Belgium, Germany, and France

c)

Britain, Belgium, and Norway

d)

France, Poland, and Germany

99.

The Marshall Plan was a post-WWII endeavor by the United States to economically revive

a)

Europe

b)

Japan

c)

sub-Saharan Africa

d)

South America

100.

Listed among the challenges to the state in the twenty-first century are all the following except

a)

terrorism

b)

economic globalization

c)

increased cultural communication

d)

the United Nations

101.

Which of the following is NOT a supranational organization?

a)

United Nations

b)

North American Free Trade Association

c)

North Atlantic Treaty Organization

d)

United States

102.

The layout of the city, including the sizes and shapes of buildings and the pathways of infrastructure, is referred to as

a)

urban morphology

b)

urban grid

c)

city plan

d)

urban street pattern

103.

The very early agricultural villages were

a)

divided according to amount of land possessed

b)

ruled by an elite

c)

relatively equal

d)

dominated by larger urban centers

104.

In which of the following hearths did urbanization develop first?

a)

Mesopotamia

b)

Nile River Valley

c)

Indus River Valley

d)

China

105.

Rome created a huge urban system. The integration of the Roman Empire was greatly facilitated by a(n)

a)

extensive transportation network

b)

lack of different languages

c)

good postal system

d)

lack of foreign enemies

106.

The relative location of a city refers to its

a)

site

b)

situation

c)

good postal system

d)

approximate latitude and longitude

107.

In a model urban hierarchy, the population of a city, town or village is inversely proportional to its rank in the system (i.e. if the largest city is 4 million the second will be 2 million or 1/2, the third will be 1/3 and so on). This is known as

a)

central place theory

b)

rank-size rule

c)

trade area ordering

d)

statistical coincidence

108.

A hinterland reveals the _____ of each settlement.

a)

total population

b)

working population

c)

economic reach

d)

aggregate purchasing power

109.

Paris and Mexico City are many times larger than the second-ranked city in their respective countries. Their disproportionate size illustrates

a)

the concept of the primate city

b)

the fact that capital cities are always very large

c)

the rank-size rule

d)

the effects of suburbanization

110.

An example of a ____ in a former colony is Mexico City.

a)

concentric zone

b)

primate city

c)

multiple nuclei

d)

disamenity zone

111.

In Burgess' concentric zone model, the zone of transition became

a)

a suburb

b)

characterized by residential deterioration and encroachment by business and light manufacturing

c)

a working class area

d)

a gentrified upscale new urban neighborhood

112.

The multiple nuclei model of urban structure developed by Harris and Ullman arose from the idea that _____ was losing its dominant position in the metropolitan city.

a)

the CBD

b)

the inner city

c)

public transportation

d)

the suburb

113.

The core of a city is called the

a)

central city

b)

exurb

c)

urban zone

d)

central business district (CBD)

114.

_____ was coined to describe a complex urban area, like Los Angeles or Toronto, where functions of the city are not centered in one place.

a)

exurb

b)

galactic city

c)

central city

d)

conurbation

115.

In Latin America, which of the following does NOT accurately describe the typical CBD?

a)

the primary business focus

b)

principal entertainment center

c)

main area of employment

d)

an area of out-migration to suburbs

116.

In the Latin American city, where are the homes of the most impoverished and unskilled residents?

a)

in the city center

b)

immediately surrounding the city center

c)

on the outermost zone

d)

along the major access highways

117.

A structural element of many Latin American cities, the disamenity sector, is illustrated by the

a)

mall

b)

barrios/favelas

c)

commercial spine

d)

industrial park

118.

Most African central cities have how many CBDs?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

119.

The focal point of the Southeast Asian city is the

a)

old colonial port zone

b)

CBD

c)

alien commercial zone

d)

suburbs

120.

The huge influx of population from rural to urban regions of the world in peripheral or semiperipheral areas finds housing in

a)

public housing

b)

edge cities

c)

deteriorating CBDs

d)

shantytowns

121.

Cities in the periphery often have unregulated growth and mixed land use, where a factory may be located next to a primary school, because of

a)

an absence of enforced zoning regulations

b)

a total lack of industry

c)

acute water shortages

d)

poor public transportation

122.

Segregation in the US was reinforced by the financial practice known as

a)

redlining

b)

community block grants

c)

land use zoning

d)

tax increment financing

123.

_____ refers to a practice where realtors would solicit white residents of the neighborhood to sell their homes under the guise that the neighborhood was going downhill because a black person or family had moved in.

a)

Zoning

b)

Blockbusting

c)

Urban sprawl

d)

Gentrification

124.

In cities of the global core, the renewal or rebuilding of lower income neighborhoods into middle to upper class neighborhoods is called

a)

public housing

b)

gentrification

c)

white flight

d)

urban renewal

125.

The decline in density and the spread of cities associated with the building of freeways in the second half of the twentieth century has been pejoratively referred to as

a)

suburbanization

b)

urban sprawl

c)

exurbanization

d)

new urbanism

126.

Noted geographer, David Harvey, is one of the strongest critics of _____. He argued that this movement privatized public space and resulted in the loss of character of neighborhoods.

a)

gentrification

b)

new urbanism

c)

urban sprawl

d)

affordable housing

127.

Gated communities have _____ as their chief objective.

a)

moderately priced housing

b)

ample open space

c)

social integration

d)

safety

128.

Many cities have transformed their urban areas in response to global geopolitical events, including terrorist attacks. The term _____ highlights the impact of global events on the character of cities.

a)

urban morphology

b)

functional zonation

c)

urban geopolitics

d)

world city

129.

As nodes of interaction, world-cities act as forces shaping

a)

globalization

b)

urban sprawl

c)

agricultural development

d)

sustainable futures

130.

The two Alpha++ world cities that are the most important nodes in the world economy are:

a)

New York and Tokyo

b)

New York and Bejing

c)

Paris and London

d)

New York and London

131.

A megacity is a large city with a population of over

a)

5 mil

b)

10 mil

c)

15 mil

d)

20 mil

132.

_____ are centers of entrepreneurship where residents of slums sew clothing, build products, and provide services.

a)

Tenements

b)

Tanneries

c)

Hutment factories

d)

Transition zones

133.

The _____ is not taxed and is not counted toward a country’s gross national income (GNI).

a)

informal economy

b)

non-profit sector

c)

government sector

d)

transnational economy

134.

______ processes in the commodity chain involve technology, education, research and development, and high wages.

a)

Core

b)

Value-added

c)

Neo-colonial

d)

Periphery

135.

Which of the following is NOT associated with core production processes?

a)

technology

b)

low-wage labor

c)

education

d)

research and development

136.

The word "development" implies

a)

progress

b)

colonialism

c)

lowering of wages through mechanization

d)

technology

137.

Modern ideas of development are related to

a)

the Industrial Revolution

b)

the Agricultural Revolution

c)

gross domestic product

d)

religious views of equity

138.

_____ measures the total value of goods and services produced by a country’s corporations and individuals both inside and outside of the country.

a)

Gross National Income

b)

Gross Domestic Product

c)

Gross National Product

d)

per capita GNI

139.

Gross Domestic Product measures only

a)

home-based output

b)

the informal economy

c)

the productivity of individuals

d)

production only within a country

140.

Which of the following country’s efforts to promote education, by providing financial incentive to families to enroll and send their children to school, has had the most success?

a)

South Africa's Child Support Grant

b)

Rwanda's increased school funding

c)

Brazil's Bolsa Familia

d)

None of the above

141.

Which does NOT make up a portion of Colombia’s GNI?

a)

professional sports franchises

b)

tourism

c)

coffee production

d)

drug trafficking

142.

Each of the following is included as one of the Sustainable Development Goals except:

a)

Eradicating hunger

b)

Quality education

c)

Increasing automobile ownership

d)

Promoting gender equality and empowering women

143.

High levels of development can be determined by measurement of access to railways, roads, airline connections, telephones, radio and television, etc. These are collectively referred to as

a)

infrastructure

b)

dependency measures

c)

formal economy

d)

commodity connections

144.

The overall dependency ratio measures

a)

family size

b)

percent of the population on welfare

c)

the number of younger people plus the number of older people per 100 workers

d)

average number of hours of work to fee a family of four

145.

Which is NOT among the five stages of Rostow’s development model?

a)

traditional

b)

take-off

c)

high-mass consumption

d)

collapse-decline

146.

Rostow’s model, developed in the early 1960s, was based upon the experience of

a)

financial economists

b)

Latin American countries

c)

China

d)

Western modernization

147.

Even if the Gross National Product (GNP) index is used to measure the well-being of a country, it will fail to show

a)

growth in secondary industries

b)

the distribution of wealth

c)

growth within tertiary industries

d)

growth within primary industries

148.

The principal structuralist alternative to Rostow’s model of economic development is known as

a)

the "takeoff" model

b)

the liberal model

c)

the modernization model

d)

dependency theory

149.

The continuation of colonial relationships even after political independence is referred to as

a)

precondition to take-off

b)

modernization model

c)

neocolonialism

d)

independence movement

150.

Theories which hold that economic disparities are built into the global economic system are referred to as

a)

structuralist theories

b)

modernization theories

c)

liberal theories

d)

neo-capitalist theories

151.

El Salvador abandoned its currency, the Colon, in favor of the U.S. dollar. This process is referred to as

a)

re-structurization

b)

re-colonization

c)

international monetizing

d)

dollarization

152.

Wallerstein’s three-tier regionalization of the world includes all of the following EXCEPT

a)

core

b)

semi-core

c)

periphery

d)

semi-periphery

153.

Countries in which tier of Wallerstein’s world-systems model typically have both low levels of HDI and also high younger-person dependency ratios?

a)

core

b)

island of development

c)

semi-periphery

d)

periphery

154.

The _____ of the United Nations are aimed at improving the conditions of the people with the lowest standard of living.

a)

Dependency Ratios

b)

Modernization Models

c)

Sustainable Development Goals

d)

International Monetary Fund

155.

The extreme soil erosion in arid and semiarid areas leading to the expansion of deserts, called desertification, is caused by:

a)

overgrazing of livestock

b)

climactic fluctuations

c)

intensification of agriculture

d)

all of the above

156.

Mexico has established export processing zones with special tax, trade and regulatory arrangements for foreign firms. This phenomena is referred to as

a)

maquiladoras

b)

haciendas

c)

border cities

d)

NAFTA zones

157.

Human patterns of use as well as _____ contribute to desertification in Africa.

a)

colonialism

b)

climate change

c)

pollution

d)

poor infrastructure

158.

In peripheral countries it is not unusual for hotels in tourist areas to be owned by

a)

worker's cooperatives

b)

local or regional governments

c)

local owner operators

d)

multinational corporations

159.

The Pine Ridge Indian Reservation in the United States, with 80% unemployment and per capita income under $8,000, illustrates _____ within a core area country.

a)

cultural choices

b)

peripheral processes

c)

core processes

d)

preconditions for takeoff stage

160.

Core area agriculture is characterized by

a)

mechanization

b)

organic production

c)

personal consumption

d)

all of the above

161.

When a government or company builds up and concentrates economic development in a particular city of small region, geographers call that place

a)

an economic liability

b)

an island of development

c)

a nongovernmental organization

d)

none of the above

162.

Microcredit programs have been successful in many places with the exception of

a)

tropical regions

b)

places with high AIDS mortality rates

c)

areas with male dominance

d)

desert regions

163.

_____ give loans to poor people, preferably women, to encourage development of small businesses.

a)

NGOs

b)

Microcredit programs

c)

Structural adjustment loans

d)

Maquiladoras

164.

Genetic engineering now allows the growing of new strains of soybeans in more arid regions of the Plains States to meet the demand of the _____ industry.

a)

cattle feed

b)

bio-diesel fuel

c)

tofu/organic food

d)

grain export

165.

Organic food is found in _____ areas.

a)

core

b)

semi-periphery

c)

periphery

d)

all of the above

166.

Grains, other plant life, vegetable oils, and animal fats can be converted into fuel, either _____ or biodiesel.

a)

ethanol

b)

gasoline

c)

inorganic fuel

d)

petrol

167.

Which is NOT an example of a primary economic activity?

a)

corn flake production

b)

iron ore production

c)

lobster fishing

d)

forestry

168.

The ratio of percent of labor force to percent of GDP in the agricultural sector of Canada (3% of labor force: 2.3% of GDP) indicates that Canada’s agricultural sector is _____ intensive.

a)

labor

b)

machine

c)

subsistence

d)

small scale

169.

Hunter-gatherers living in the vicinity of the Pacific Ocean specialized in

a)

salmon fishing

b)

bison hunting

c)

deer hunting

d)

acorn collection

170.

Most scholars believe that seed cultivation (First Agricultural Revolution) occurred in

a)

Asia

b)

the Fertile Crescent

c)

tropical Africa

d)

the Nile Valley

171.

A form of tropical subsistence agriculture in which fields are rotated after short periods of crop production is

a)

subsistence rice cultivation

b)

subsistence wheat cultivation

c)

shifting cultivation

d)

nomadic herding

172.

Shifting cultivation involves the _____ method of clearing fields.

a)

use of natural herbicides

b)

intensive hoeing

c)

burning

d)

use of bulldozers

173.

In areas of shifting cultivation the population

a)

increases significantly

b)

is sparse

c)

must be large enough to provide surplus labor

d)

never lives in permanent settlements

174.

Colonial powers would make subsistence farmers

a)

grow cash crops only

b)

farm on plantations in addition to farming their own land

c)

grow cash crops in addition to food crops the farmer needed to survive

d)

buy commercial fertilizer at fixed prices

175.

Which commodity would be found closest to the market town in von Thunen’s model?

a)

Live cattle

b)

Firewood

c)

Wheat

d)

Milk

176.

In von Thunen’s model there was a concentric circle of forest around the city because

a)

it would provide lumber and firewood

b)

it would filter out pollution

c)

it provided a recreation area

d)

it would contain the growth of the city

177.

By 1992, the most widely grown crop variety on Earth was a product of the Green Revolution called IR36, which was a variety of

a)

rice

b)

wheat

c)

maize

d)

potatoes

178.

In the 1940s, American philanthropists funded research on this crop. By 1960, Mexico no longer depended on imports as production had risen dramatically. The crop is:

a)

coffee

b)

corn

c)

wheat

d)

tomatoes

179.

The rectangular land division scheme in the United States adopted after the American Revolution is quite unique. Its correct name is:

a)

long-lot system

b)

metes and bounds system

c)

township-and-range system

d)

Franklin's system

180.

The most prevalent rural residential pattern in the world’s agricultural areas is

a)

dispersed

b)

nucleated

c)

spaced

d)

hierarchical

181.

The form of villages still existing in many rural landscapes that are reminders of a turbulent past is

a)

walled

b)

linear

c)

round

d)

grid

182.

_____ patterns have a profound impact on what can be grown where.

a)

Sediments

b)

Climate

c)

Aviation

d)

Animal migration

183.

An example of a luxury crop is

a)

wheat

b)

coffee

c)

corn

d)

potatoes

184.

In villages everywhere, social stratification is reflected by

a)

the dress of the population

b)

the street pattern

c)

the range and quality of village houses

d)

commercial buildings

185.

The functional differentiation of buildings in farm villages world-wide is greatest in

a)

traditional cultures

b)

Asian cultures

c)

African cultures

d)

Western cultures

186.

Poorer countries, producing such cash crops as sugar, ____

a)

set the market price themselves

b)

are at the mercy of the purchasing countries that set the prices

c)

plant less in order to drive up the prices

d)

cooperate with each other to determine global prices and demand

187.

Nearly ____ percent of long-distance cargo is now shipped in standard containers

a)

90

b)

50

c)

24

d)

70

188.

The first power source of the Industrial Revolution was

a)

running water

b)

steam engines

c)

electricity

d)

windmills

189.

British investors and businesses held a near monopoly over

a)

international transportation

b)

the sources of raw materials

c)

many products

d)

all available labor

190.

In Britain, the proximity of what three things gave an unsurpassed advantage to the development of early industry?

a)

forests for charcoal, domestic markets, and iron ores

b)

coal fields, iron ores, and coastal ports

c)

an internal railroad system, cotton for textiles, and domestic markets

d)

good highways, coal fields, and coastal ports

191.

Industry diffusing to Western Europe involved, as in Britain, the locational criteria: coalfields, water, communication, and

a)

iron ore

b)

markets

c)

labor

d)

ports

192.

Some industrial regions emerge because of their raw materials combinations. Which of the following is not an example of such a region?

a)

the Ruhr

b)

Saxony

c)

the Donbas

d)

London

193.

The relocation of industry to cities like Paris and London was facilitated by

a)

their location in coalfields

b)

government grants

c)

low cost of urban labor

d)

development of railroads

194.

_____ are considered secondary industrial hearths.

a)

Italy and Spain

b)

Eastern North America, South Korea, and Taiwan

c)

Eastern North America, western Russia and Ukraine, and East Asia

d)

Brazil and Argentina

195.

The increase in time and cost with distance is referred to as

a)

production costs

b)

distribution costs

c)

friction of distance

d)

distance decay

196.

Which cost of Weber’s has changed the most today since his writing?

a)

agglomeration

b)

the location of raw materials

c)

transportation

d)

weight of products

197.

If a substantial number of enterprises all develop in, or move to, the same area the factor is called

a)

cluster

b)

focus

c)

agglomeration

d)

intensity

198.

_____ involves keeping a small inventory for short-term production and new parts are shipped quickly as needed.

a)

Just-in-time delivery

b)

Least Cost Theory

c)

Fordist production

d)

Global division of labor

199.

Industrialization occurred along an axis from Northern France through North-Central Germany to Czech Republic and South Poland. This axis correlates with _____ as a locational factor.

a)

population

b)

coalfields

c)

major ports

d)

the trend of the drainage system

200.

New York City, like other large urban centers with great ports, is called a break of bulk location because

a)

plentiful labor is available to unload massive cargo ships.

b)

markets are readily available for shipped goods.

c)

large dock warehouses are available where goods can be stored until sold.

d)

transported cargo can be transferred from one kind of carrier to another.

201.

In which country does industry not lie near sources of raw material?

a)

China

b)

Japan

c)

India

d)

the United States

202.

The largest producer of furniture in the world is located in

a)

North Carolina

b)

Sweden

c)

Amish country

d)

Germany

203.

Mass production of standardized goods using assembly line techniques is referred to as:

a)

Fordist

b)

manufacturing

c)

global production

d)

mass production

204.

Fast, flexible production of small lots with outsourcing around the world is referred to as:

a)

Fordist

b)

port-Fordist

c)

socialist

d)

colonial production

205.

The type of manufacturing that is more likely to be located in peripheral countries is

a)

technical design

b)

labor-intensive

c)

low-labor needs

d)

high-tech

206.

Television research and design takes place in the

a)

core area

b)

periphery

c)

semi-periphery

d)

universities of India and China

207.

During the 1970s, U.S. television manufacturers began to move productions “offshore” to places such as special zones on the Mexican border called

a)

industrial cities

b)

peripheral production zones

c)

technopoles

d)

maquiladoras

208.

Current amounts of goods and resources moving in the global system would be impossible without the invention of

a)

aircraft

b)

container systems

c)

bulk cargo ships

d)

railroads

209.

Service industries include _____ industries.

a)

tertiary

b)

secondary

c)

quinary

d)

A and C

210.

Fayetteville, Arkansas has become a ______ because of Wal-Mart.

a)

break-of-bulk point

b)

technopole

c)

growth pole

d)

the most polluted city in America

211.

Technopoles tend to locate near

a)

raw materials

b)

cheap labor

c)

electricity supplies

d)

centers of research and development