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Worksheets

MC Pharm Tech

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who wrote the first Greco-Roman drug formulary?

a)

Emperor Nero

b)

Claudius Galen

c)

Pedanius Dioscorides

d)

Hippocrates

2.

What medicinal plant has been used by healthcare providers in the Middle Ages for heart problems?

a)

foxglove

b)

echinacea

c)

saw palmetto

d)

sage

3.

The National Drug Code (NDC) is

a)

a unique and permanent signifier providing product information

b)

made of 12 or more characters.

c)

required by the Centers for Disease

Control and Prevention.

d)

used for newly marketed drugs only.

4.

What is one of the main purposes of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

(HIPAA)?

a)

to offer health insurance to all employed US citizens

b)

to safeguard the confidentiality of patient medical records

c)

to enforce pharmacist-to-technician staffing ratios

d)

to offer Medicare patients a

prescription drug plan

5.

In the United States, which of the following may sign a prescription for a Schedule II drugs?

a)

pharmacists and chiropractors

b)

physicians and dentists

c)

veterinarians and pharmacy technicians

d)

podiatrists and physical therapists

6.

Under which circumstances would a state law be followed over a federal law?

a)

when federal law is too restrictive

b)

when state law is less stringent

c)

when state law is more stringent

d)

when the federal law is too restrictive and the state law is less stringent

7.

What happens after INDA has been submitted and Phase 3 studies have been successfully completed?

a)

The FDA grants approval.

b)

The drug manufacturer can submit an NDA to the FDA.

c)

Phase 4 studies can automatically start on patients with the indication being studied.

d)

The drug is manufactured for the prescription market.

8.

Probiotics are microorganisms that

a)

cause severe life threatening infections

b)

promote positive health benefits.

c)

are present on food and cause it to

spoil.

d)

cause low-grade infections that need

antibiotic treatments.

9.

Why is the generic drug application submitted to the FDA called abbreviated?

a)

It only needs to prove safety.

b)

It only needs to prove efficacy.

c)

It only need to prove bioequivalence.

d)

It needs to prove safety and efficacy.

10.

Under what condition might the FDA approve a prescription drug be marketed as an over-the-counter medication?

a)

safe track record

b)

public demand

c)

healthcare savings

d)

safe track record and healthcare savings

11.

What is the term for specific situations when a drug should not be used?

a)

side effects

b)

drug interactions

c)

contraindications

d)

indications

12.

A drug considered by the FDA to be both pharmaceutically and therapeutically equal to another is called

a)

a biosimilar drug

b)

an identical drug

c)

an alternative drug

d)

a bioquivalence drug

13.

What is the official legal source for selecting a drug product that is therapeutically and pharmaceutically equivalent to a brand name drug?

a)

Drug Facts and Comparisons

b)

The FDA Online Orange Book

c)

USP/NF

d)

Physician's Desk Reference

14.

Which synthetic drug resembles a natural hormone that reduces the body’s natural mechanism of swelling and white blood cell overproduction in response to stress, such as an injury or infection?

a)

celecoxib

b)

lidocaine

c)

codeine

d)

prednisone

15.

Which of the following drugs is a beta-adrenergic blocker (beta blocker)?

a)

albuterol

b)

carisoprodol

c)

metoprolol

d)

tramadol

16.

When a patient states that she is allergic to penicillin, which antibiotic should not be prescribed for her?

a)

Cleocin

b)

Zithromax, Z-Pak

c)

Cipro

d)

Augmentin

17.

An “Avoid sun exposure” warning should be placed on the following antibiotic:

a)

doxycycline

b)

ciprofloxin

c)

metronidazole

d)

azithromycin

18.

Which is the fastest working respiratory drug, which is used for acute attacks of asthma and shortness of breath?

a)

albuterol

b)

salmeterol

c)

formoterol

d)

fluticasone

19.

When you see a drug with the suffix -statin, you know that drug is for

a)

hypertension

b)

infection

c)

hyperlipidemia

d)

hyperglycemia

20.

What is NOT a property of caplets?

a)

They have powder or granular material inside

b)

They are tamper-proof.

c)

They are easier to swallow than large tablets.

d)

They have a longer shelf life than capsules.

21.

What is the shelf life in proper storage conditions of most pediatric antibiotic suspensions that are reconstituted or mixed with water?

a)

20-21 days if stored in the refrigerator

b)

4-5 days at room temperature

c)

15-18 days if stored in the refrigerator

d)

7-10 days at room temperature

22.

What is NOT a parenteral route of administration?

a)

subcutaneous

b)

intrauterine

c)

intradermal

d)

intramuscular

23.

What could cause an embolism when an intravenous (IV) solution is administered?

a)

The entire drug was administered too fast.

b)

The intravenous (IV) solution is a dextrose solution.

c)

The solution is not free from particulate matter

d)

The drug was administered slowly over a designated period of time.

24.

What dosage form provides a fast onset of action for a localized condition with minimal systemic side effects?

a)

suppository

b)

lotion

c)

tablet

d)

patch

25.

An elderly patient with arthritis in her hands needs to begin using insulin for her high blood sugar. What product would be the best for her?

a)

insulin vial and syringes for mealtime and long acting

b)

insulin pens for mealtime and long acting

c)

insulin pen for mealtime and vial for long acting

d)

All of the choices are correct.

26.

A patient is using an insulin that is cloudy in the vial. What is the correct procedure to prepare the insulin to be drawn up in the syringe that is stored in the refrigerator?

a)

agitate and warm by gently rolling between the hands

b)

Shake well and warm between hands.

c)

Warm under hot water but do not shake.

d)

Do not agitate or warm; use cold.

27.

an error of a single decimal place is an error by a factor of

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

10

28.

If a patient is due to receive medication at 0900, 1300, and 1700, what are the corresponding administration times in the 12-hour system, Greenwich Mean Time ?

a)

9:00 a.m.; 3:00 p.m.; 7:00 p.m

b)

9:00 a. m. ; 1:00 p.m.; 5:00 p.m.

c)

9:00 p.m.; 1:00 a.m.; 5:00 a.m.

d)

9:00 p.m.; 3:00 a.m.; 7:00 a.m.

29.

The pharmacy refrigerator accidentally stayed open for several hours. By the time someone noticed, the refrigerator thermometer read 45ºF. What is the equivalent temperature on the Celsius scale?

a)

4ºC

b)

7ºC

c)

9ºC

d)

11ºC

30.

You need to dispense 500 mL of a liquid preparation. If the dose is 2 tsp, how many doses are in the final preparation?

a)

30 doses

b)

50 doses

c)

70 doses

d)

90 doses

31.

How is 0.6% sodium chloride expressed as a fraction?

a)

0.6/10

b)

6/10

c)

6/100

d)

6/1,000

32.

The average adult male with body surface area (BSA) 1.6 m

2 requires 10 mg of metoclopramide (Reglan) per dose. The dose for pediatric patients is proportionate to that amount. How much Reglan will a child with a BSA of 0.4 m 2 require?

a)

2.5 mg

b)

3.6 mg

c)

4 mg

d)

6.6 mg

33.

The weight of 150 mL of a solution is 180 g. What is the specific gravity of the solution?

a)

0.15

b)

1.2

c)

1.8

d)

18

34.

Convert the fraction strength of nitroglycerin 1/150 gr to a decimal.

a)

0.67

b)

0.0067

c)

0.067

d)

0.00067

35.

To make a MgSO4 IV solution with 24 mEq of MgSO4 per liter, how many milliliters of a concentrated MgSO4 8 mEq/2 mL must be added to the liter bag?

a)

3 mL

b)

12 mL

c)

6 mL

d)

0.6 mL

36.

You need to make a 500 mL bag of 5% lidocaine solution. How many grams of lidocaine will you need?

a)

10 g

b)

15 g

c)

20 g

d)

25 g

37.

A prescription for Armour Thyroid 2 gr is received at the pharmacy. How many milligrams of thyroid will each tablet contain?

a)

32 mg

b)

65 mg

c)

130 mg

d)

180 mg

38.

A patient is prescribed 4 mL of a drug in an 80 mL sterile saline IV solution. Which drug to solution ratio is equivalent?

a)

2:50

b)

7:150

c)

8:200

d)

6:120

39.

In the community pharmacy, a pharmacy technician may ________________

a)

counsel a patient concerning a new prescription.

b)

respond to DUR alert for drug interactions.

c)

compound extemporaneous nonsterile products.

d)

recommend an over-the-counter (OTC) drug for a patient.

40.

Refills for a patient’s prescription for propranolol are NOT authorized even if listed on the medication container label if the prescription [pick the lowest number that is true _____________

a)

is more than 24 months old.

b)

is more than 18 months old.

c)

is more than 12 months old

d)

is more than 6 months old

41.

How can the pharmacy technician tell if a prescription utilizes some type of tamper-resistant prescription (TRP) pad to eliminate forgeries?

a)

Light blue marks appear when erased with an ink eraser.

b)

The prescription number is in the upper right-hand corner of the sheet.

c)

The word "VOID" appears when the prescription is photocopied.

d)

A security watermark is on the front of the sheet.

42.

A patient comes in wanting a refill for her insulin but no prescriber has sent a refill over. She says that it is an automatic refill. What happens?

a)

Find the automatic refill on her profile and fill it.

b)

Confirm the automatic refill with the prescriber’s office.

c)

Check that it is not an early refill and ask for allergy and medication information while the pharmacist reviews the precription.

d)

Ask the pharmacist to confirm the automatic refill with the prescriber.

43.

Mr. Hernandez asks to have his labels written in Spanish as well as any medication information. Where should this go on the patient profile?

a)

identifying information

b)

prescription preferences

c)

HIPAA confidentiality consent form

d)

insurance and billing information

44.

Which drug type should never be counted in a counting machine?

a)

benzodiazepines

b)

statins

c)

viatmins

d)

hormones

45.

In the tiered copay prescription system, __________________

a)

the prescriptions with higher day supply quantities will have higher copays.

b)

there are escalating costs for generic drugs, preferred brands, and nonpreferred brands

c)

most insurance plans cover a 60-day supply of a brand name medication if mail-order is used.

d)

the amount of the co-pay decreases as the number of family members covered increases.

46.

_____ is designed to cover active and retired members of the military and their dependents.

a)

real-time insurance claims processing via wireless telecommunications

b)

pharmacy determination of the co-pay and drug coverage for insurance plans

c)

a record that accounts for each unit of Schedule II drugs dispensed or received

d)

an agreement made by a pharmacy for a specific PBM

47.

A prescription is received for 1 vial of Levemir 100 units/mL insulin with the sig “Inject 60 units under the skin every day.” One vial has 10 mL of insulin. How many days will the prescribed medication last?

a)

12 days

b)

14 days

c)

16 days

d)

30 days

48.

Mr. Smith’s prescription insurance card says he needs to copay $5 for preferred generic, $25 for non-preferred generics, and $100 for non-preferred brand name drugs. He has 3 prescriptions: hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg, Synthroid 125 mcg, Pradaxa 150 mg. The hydrochlorothiazide and levothyroxine (Synthroid) are preferred generics, and the Pradaxa and Synthroid are non-preferred brand names. He requests the brand name Synthroid. What will his copay be for all the drugs?

a)

$130

b)

$205

c)

$110

d)

$55

49.

_____ is designed to cover active and retired members of the military and their dependents.

a)

Medicaid

b)

COBRA

c)

Workers' Compensation

d)

Tricare

50.

You will need the HCPCS and ICD-10 code to bill Medicare Part B for ______________

a)

prescriptions

b)

durable medical equipment

c)

medication therapy menagement

d)

immunizations

51.

Mr. Jones has been prescribed “pilocarpine 1% ophthalmic solution, 1 drops OU four times a day.” He wants 2 x 15 mL bottles billed to his insurance. What amount for days supply should you put on the prescription before processing? (This insurance and PBM company estimates 20 drops per mL, though others go with 15 or 16 drops per mL. You need to check before calculating for the

claim.)

a)

30

b)

60

c)

75

d)

150

52.

Is sending a claim to the insurance company, you incorrectly calculate the days supply. It was supposed to be 30 days, but you submitted 90 days. The patient is back for a refill, and the insurance will not pay. What do you tell the patient?

a)

They have to pay for the prescription.

b)

The pharmacy will give them the medication at no charge.

c)

You need to call the insurance correct your mistake before you can refill the prescription

d)

They will need a new prescription from the doctor.

53.

How long after an audit do you have to challenge the validity of the claims?

a)

2 weeks

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

1 year

54.

What is an advantage of a primary wholesale purchasing agreement?

a)

more variety in stock and competitive service fees

b)

an exclusive agreement by a pharmacy and prime vendors

c)

lower inventory and inventory-associated costs

d)

reduces the quantity of each product on the shelves

55.

When is a DEA 222 form required for purchasing drugs?

a)

if the drugs are Schedule II or III

b)

if the drugs are prescription

c)

if the drugs are Schedule II

d)

if the drugs is a legend drug

56.

A month’s supply of an allergy medication costs the pharmacy $49.60. The selling price is $58.13. What is the amount of markup and the markup percentage?

a)

$8.53, 17%

b)

$8.99, 16%

c)

$9.53, 17%

d)

$9.87, 16%

57.

The dispensing record of products with pseudoephedrine needs to be kept on file for a minimum of

a)

2 months

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

5 years

58.

Lactobacillus and bifidobacterium are strains of ________ used to restore gastrointestinal flora after taking an antibiotic.

a)

yeast

b)

virus

c)

bacteria

d)

fungus

59.

A patient says the pen needles they are using hurt, leave a large hole, and cause bleeding. Which size needle could be recommended that has a shorter length and smallest gauge?

a)

32 g 8 mm

b)

32 g 4 mm

c)

29 g 6 mm

d)

29 g 5 mm

60.

What is the definition of markup?

a)

AWP x discount percent

b)

retail selling price - acquisition price

c)

acquisition price + dispensing fee

d)

profit x retail selling price

61.

The pharmacy pays $150 for #1,000 fluoxetine 20 mg capsules. The AWP is $350 per #1,000. Cash customers are usually charged AWP for their prescriptions, but you want to give this patient a 20% discount. How much will you charge the patient for 30 capsules, and how much profit are you making?

a)

$10.50 _ $6.00

b)

$8.40 _ $2.10

c)

$10.50 _ $3.90

d)

$8.40 _ $3.90

62.

The pharmacy likes to have a PAR of 5 but not more than 8 of azithromycin 250 mg tablet packets of 6 tablets each on the shelf at the start of each day. When you are ordering for tomorrow, you notice there are 3 packs on the shelf. How many will you order?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

63.

If 125 mg of a material is desired, and 130 mg is the actual measurement, what is the percentage of error?

a)

4%

b)

5%

c)

15%

d)

20%

64.

A pharmacy technician is using the geometric dilution method. At what point is the most potent ingredient placed into the mortar?

a)

at the middle of the compounding process

b)

at equal stages of the compounding process

c)

at the beginning of the compounding process

d)

at the end of the compounding process

65.

What spatula should be used when compounding with iodine or mercuric salts?

a)

stainless steel

b)

plastic

c)

hard rubber

d)

stainless steel or hard rubber

66.

What is the highest accepted percentage of error compared to the desired quantity has been established by the USP in a weight or measurement?

a)

±1%

b)

±5%

c)

±10%

d)

±12%

67.

Calculate the least weighable quantity of a balance with incremental units of 5 mg where you only allow an error range of ±5%.

a)

1 mg

b)

10 mg

c)

100 mg

d)

1000 mg

68.

To get the most precise and accurate liquid volume measurement, select a container

a)

in which the liquid will fill more than 20% of the container's volume.

b)

in which the liquid will fill less than 20% of the container’s volume.

c)

that is 80% larger than the capacity

being measured.

d)

that is 90% larger than the capacity

being measured.

69.

Where do you read the volume of a graduated cylinder?

a)

top of the meniscus

b)

bottom of the meniscus

c)

middle of the meniscus

d)

depends on the liquid

70.

Calculate the beyond-use-date for a solution containing water in which the active ingredients have the following expiration date: Ingredient A 10/2025; Ingredient B 1/2020; and Ingredient C 3/2021.

a)

14 days from date prepared

b)

30 days from the date prepared

c)

6 months from the date prepared

d)

1 year from the date prepared

71.

The _____ meets regularly to review formulary changes as well as to review medication error

reports.

a)

Hospital Board

b)

Pharmacy and Therapeutics (P & T) Committee

c)

Infection Control Committee

d)

Institiutional Review Board (IRB)

72.

What in the patient drawer can be used as a quality-assurance tool to determine why a missing dose occurred?

a)

unit dose packaging

b)

syringes

c)

investigational drugs

d)

remaining medications

73.

A hospital does a daily cart fill at 0600. An order is received at 0800 for Zantac 150 mg po q12h. The standard administration times for q12h at the hospital are 0900 and 2100. How many doses of medication will the patient need until the next cart fill?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

74.

What type of medication order is used for each patient who receives a common treatment or surgery where the same set of medications and treatments apply?

a)

daily order

b)

continuation order

c)

discharge order

d)

standing order

75.

What parts of a syringe must not be touched?

a)

inner plunger shaft and syringe tip

b)

inner plunger shaft and barrel

c)

calibration marks and piston plunger

d)

barrel and plunger shaft

76.

When patients stop their antibiotics or antivirals because they feel better, what may happen?

a)

antimicrobial resistance

b)

fungal overgrowth

c)

severe diarrhea

d)

ground water contamination

77.

Universal precautions work to protect healthcare workers and patients from

a)

tuberculosis

b)

MRSA

c)

hepatitis A & B

d)

All of the choices are correct

78.

In the sterile cleanroom facility layout, the airflow is always

a)

toward the PEC workbench

b)

out of the high positive pressure buffer room

c)

entering through the anteroom

d)

into the high negative pressure buffer room

79.

What is the correct position for your hands during hand and forearm washing?

a)

hands pointed down

b)

hands pointed up

c)

hands out to the side

d)

hands and arms horizontal in front

80.

What is used to clean the PECs?

a)

sterile water

b)

sterile 70% isopropyl alcohol

c)

lint-free, aseptic cleaning wipes

d)

All of the choices are correct

81.

Select the term for the degree of acidity or alkalinity (basic) of a solution.

a)

osmolarity

b)

osmotic pressure

c)

tonicity

d)

pH value

82.

Which of the following is true regarding small-volume parenterals (SVP)?

a)

SVPs are administered over a period of time ranging from 12 to 24 hours.

b)

Most SVPs prepared by sterile compounding personnel are IV piggybacks (IVPBs)

c)

SVPs are commonly available in 250 mL, 500 mL, and 1,000 mL sizes

d)

SVPs are used to replenish fluids and provide electrolytes and nutrients

83.

A 1 L of IV is running at 125 mL/hr. How many hours will this bag last before running empty?

a)

3 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

10 hours

84.

A woman of reproductive age must confirm in writing her understanding of the risks of working with hazardous drugs and the importance of taking additional precautions to prevent pregnancy as part of

a)

USP Chapter <797>

b)

NIOSH alert

c)

medical surveillance

d)

OSHA policy

85.

What is the technique used if you need to recap a needle when compounding?

a)

cap and click

b)

punch and stick

c)

safety needles

d)

scoop method

86.

While a pharmacy technician is entering a new prescription for Ms. Anders, he takes a phone call from Ms. Anderson who is having side effects that the pharmacist needs to know about so the technician checks her profile to see which medication she is talking about. As a result, when he returns to entering the prescription, he accidentally enters Ms. Ander’s new medication under Ms. Anderson’s profile. This kind of error is known as a(n) ________________

a)

distraction error

b)

capture error

c)

wrong dosage form error

d)

omission error

87.

What happens if a controlled substance prescription is NOT dated?

a)

The prescription can be filled in by the patient

b)

The pharmacist can write a date in the date blank after confirming with the prescriber's office

c)

The pharmacy technician can write the current date in the date blank

d)

the validity of the prescription cannot be determined

88.

A pharmacy technician used a counting tray to count a medication containing penicillin. What should happen next?

a)

the counting tray should be sterilized in an autoclave

b)

the counting tray should be cleaned with isopropyl alcohol

c)

the counting tray should be scrubbed with a bleach solution

d)

the counting tray should be cleaned with 2% sodium hypochlorite solution

89.

A national voluntary and confidential program for reporting medication errors is known as

a)

MERP

b)

MEDMARK

c)

iMAR

d)

eMAR

90.

What drug do first responders use to reverse overdose from opioid or heroin?

a)

naltrexone

b)

naloxone

c)

naproxen

d)

buprenorphine

91.

Which DEA number would not pass the validity test for a Dr. Smith?

a)

AS3496127

b)

AS4912413

c)

AS1159208

d)

AS1134590

92.

In terms of billing in community pharmacy, pharmacy technicians _________________

a)

can bill insurance for a brand name drug and dispense a generic drug

b)

cannot dispense a refill of a drug if the prescription is more than one year old

c)

can accept a drug discount card from a patient using Medicare Part D

d)

cannot refill a controlled drug prescription

93.

Medical records are considered the property of the _____________________

a)

facility that generates them

b)

patient physician

c)

health insurance company

d)

patient

94.

What is the reason pharmacy technicians should become involved in professional organizations?

a)

to receive monetary rewards for participation in committees

b)

too receive more vacation days

c)

to travel every few months

d)

to participate in decisions that affect the future of pharmacy practice

95.

What is the purpose of a cover letter?

a)

to show all the resources used in your job search

b)

to highlight your qualifications proven int he resume

c)

to remind potential employers to read your resume

d)

to let the employer know your salary range

96.

A prescription for amoxicillin 125 mg/tsp oral suspension has the sig: ss tsp po tid. What directions should be printed on the label?

a)

Take 1 teaspoonful by mouth three times a day.

b)

Take 2 teaspoonfuls by mouth three times a day.

c)

Take one-half teaspoonful by mouth three times a day

d)

Take one-quarter teaspoonful by mouth three times a day.

97.

If the ratio of diphenhydramine is 1:5 in a 100 mL solution, what percent of the solution is diphenhydramine?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

15%

d)

50%

98.

Lactulose syrup is available in pint (480 mL) bottles. The patient needs to take 30 mL po BID. How many pints need to be dispensed for a months supply?

a)

1 pint

b)

2 pints

c)

3 pints

d)

4 pints

99.

You need to draw up oral syringes with 12.5 mg of diphenhydramine. The oral solution is available as 25 mg/10 mL. How many oral syringes can be filled from 4 ounces of solution?

a)

46 oral syringes

b)

19 oral syringes

c)

24 oral syringes

d)

96 oral syringes

100.

The antipyretic dose of ibuprofen for a child is 10 mg/kg po q6h. What is the appropriate dose of a 100 mg/tsp ibuprofen suspension for a 4-year-old who weighs 45 pounds?

a)

4 tsp

b)

2 tsp

c)

10 tsp

d)

1 tsp