wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SRTC Section 6 Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following BEST describes the term crowning?

a)

Presenting part of the baby being visible at the vaginal opening

b)

Discharge of bloody mucus

c)

Delivery of the head during a breech birth, completing delivery

d)

Complete dilation of the cervix

2.

Which of the following BEST describes placenta previa?

a)

The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.

b)

The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

c)

The umbilical cord is the presenting part.

d)

The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.

3.

The condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall is known as which of the following?

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Abruptio placentae

c)

Ectopic Pregnancy

d)

Preeclampsia

4.

The term for a baby developing inside the mother's womb after week 8 is:

a)

Fetus

b)

neonate

c)

infant

d)

chorion

5.

What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients?

a)

Amnion

b)

Placenta

c)

Cervix

d)

Uterus

6.

You are called for a women who is about to deliver. During the labor process, your patient's water breaks. She experiences a rush of warm water and an increase in uterine contractions. The purpose of the amniotic fluid is to:

a)

provide lubrication during the delivery of the baby.

b)

allow the fetus to float during development.

c)

help maintain a constant fetal body temperature.

d)

All of the above

7.

You have been called for a young female in labor. She is lying on the floor in obvious distress from the labor pains. While you are assessing her for crowning, your partner is getting a set of vital signs. She tells you that she is getting dizzy and nauseated. Vital signs are pulse rate 120, respiratory rate 22, and blood pressure 98/62. You should be concerned that she has:

a)

Braxton-Hicks contractions

b)

Placenta previa

c)

supine hypotensive syndrome

d)

contracted food poisoning

8.

During which stage of labor is the baby born?

a)

Primary

b)

First

c)

Third

d)

Second

9.

Which of the following BEST describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor?

a)

Rupture of the amniotic sac

b)

Thinning and dilation of the cervix

c)

Expulsion of the placenta

d)

Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal

10.

Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask while evaluating a woman in labor?

a)

Do you know who the father is and what is his medical history?

b)

Is this your first pregnancy?

c)

When was the last time you were sexually active?

d)

None of the above

11.

You have been called for a 32-year-old female who is in active labor. During your assessment and interview, you note that she is 37 weeks along, this is her first child, and her contractions are 5 minutes apart. She also tells you that her pregnancy is considered "high risk." Your first concern should be:

a)

getting to the hospital

b)

assembling your delivery kit

c)

calling for a back-up unit

d)

preparing for delivery

12.

You respond to a call for a patient in active labor with her second child. Your interview with the patient shows that she is 40 weeks pregnant and has been in active labor for several hours. You determine that her vital signs are all within normal limits. After your physical exam, you determine the baby is crowning. You should next:

a)

prepare to deliver the baby on-scene.

b)

contact medical direction for orders.

c)

begin transport and plan to deliver in the ambulance.

d)

delay delivery until arrival at the hospital.

13.

You have responded to a woman who has possible premature labor. She is 8 months pregnant and is experiencing labor pains. During your assessment, you note that the baby is not yet crowning. You need to determine whether delivery is imminent or not. You should next:

a)

time her contractions.

b)

check for cervix dilation.

c)

check the level of the fundus.

d)

complete a set of vital signs.

14.

Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant woman?

a)

From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next

b)

From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction

c)

From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next

d)

After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4

15.

You have just delivered a full-term baby girl and she is doing well. You have dried her off and wrapped her in a warm blanket. You are preparing to cut the umbilical cord. Which of the following is normally true regarding cutting the umbilical cord?

a)

You must try to cut the cord before it stops pulsating.

b)

You should hold the baby above the level of the mother when cutting the cord.

c)

The infant must be breathing on his or her own before you cut the cord.

d)

The cord should be cut immediately following delivery.

16.

If assisting in a prehospital delivery while off-duty, which of the following would be the BEST choice for tying or clamping the umbilical cord?

a)

clothespin

b)

pair of shoelaces

c)

white cotton thread

d)

section of wire coat hanger

17.

Which of the following is NOT advisable following complete birth of the infant?

a)

Keep the infant at the level of the mother's vagina until the cord is clamped and cut.

b)

Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain.

c)

Place the infant on his side with his head slightly lower than his body.

d)

Dry the infant and wrap him in a blanket.

18.

Your patient is an infant who has just been delivered 3 weeks before her due date. She is breathing adequately, has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, and has cyanosis of her face and chest. Which of the following interventions should be done first?

a)

Place oxygen tubing near the infant's face at a flow rate of 10 to 12 liters per minute.

b)

Perform ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device and supplemental oxygen.

c)

Begin CPR with a compression rate of 120/minute.

d)

Place a neonatal nonrebreather mask on the infant's face.

19.

Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much?

a)

500 cc

b)

100 cc

c)

1,000 cc

d)

250 cc

20.

If the baby's umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done?

a)

Transport emergently without further intervention.

b)

Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered.

c)

Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby.

d)

Try to slip the cord over the baby's head and shoulder.

21.

Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord?

a)

Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery.

b)

Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix.

c)

Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her

d)

mmediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps.

22.

You are called for a woman with severe abdominal pain. During your assessment and interview, she tells you that she is sexually active and there is a chance she could be pregnant. Her vital signs are pulse 122, respirations 22, blood pressure 96/62, and skin cool and pale. You should immediately suspect:

a)

placenta previa.

b)

appendicitis.

c)

ectopic pregnancy.

d)

internal bleeding.

23.

Seizures due to complications of pregnancy generally occur during which of the following time periods?

a)

In the second trimester

b)

In the first trimester

c)

Before the mother even knows she is pregnant

d)

Late in pregnancy

24.

What is the term for when the fetus and placenta deliver before the 28th week of pregnancy?

a)

Induced abortion

b)

Eclampsia

c)

Spontaneous abortion

d)

Stillbirth

25.

Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman?

a)

She may lose up to 15% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

b)

The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.

c)

The mother's body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.

d)

She may lose up to 35% of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

26.

The anterior fontanelle should be closed in 96 percent of infants by the age of ________.

a)

10 months

b)

6 months

c)

3 months

d)

24 months

27.

You are at a friend's birthday party with people of all ages. There is an 11-month-old boy, just learning to stand up, who has fallen. He was holding onto the edge of a table and he toppled over. He is crying hard and his mother is trying to console him. She asks if you would mind checking him out, and you agree to take a look at him. You notice that his anterior fontanelle is bulging. This is most likely caused by:

a)

an infection causing intracranial pressure.

b)

fluid loss from dehydration.

c)

the bones of the head not fusing properly.

d)

pressure built up because of his crying.

28.

You have been called for a 2-year-old female who has fallen and is bleeding from a head laceration. Her mother states that she was running down the hallway when she fell, striking her head on a side table. You suspect that part of the reason she fell is that:

a)

A) her head is proportionately larger and heavier than an adult's.

b)

B) she has low blood sugar, making her unstable.

c)

C) she is still new to walking and may be unstable on her feet.

d)

D) both A and C are contributing factors.

29.

You are called for a child that has had a fever for a couple of days. The parents tell you that two of the other children have been home with a stomach virus and fever. As you attempt to assess the child, he pulls away from you and grabs onto his mother. Which of the following behaviors would be considered "normal" for a 4-year-old?

a)

He flares his nostrils when he breathes.

b)

He runs up to you when you enter the room.

c)

He begins to cry when you try to touch his booboo.

d)

He doesn't make eye contact as you approach.

30.

Which of the following is NOT a normal response of a small child when approached by the EMT?

a)

Fear

b)

Anxiety

c)

Indifference

d)

None of the above

31.

Which of the following would be an appropriate statement in gaining the cooperation of a 7-year-old pediatric patient during your assessment?

a)

"I'm sorry Nick, but you can't see Mommy and Daddy until you let me take your blood pressure."

b)

"Joey, this is a splint that will help your arm feel better. I promise it won't hurt when I put your arm in it."

c)

"Big girls don't cry, Emily. You're a big girl, aren't you?"

d)

"Katie, this is my stethoscope. I can use it to hear what your breathing sounds like. Would you like to look at it for a minute?"

32.

You are trying to assess Judy, a 16-year-old girl, who has abdominal cramps with nausea and vomiting. Her mother, Mrs. Smith, is attempting to give you her daughter's past medical history. It is important that you get the history of the present illness. Therefore, you should:

a)

ask Mrs. Smith if there is a chance Judy could be pregnant.

b)

ask Mrs. Smith to go write down their physician's name and phone number.

c)

ignore Mrs. Smith and ask Judy if she is sexually active.

d)

skip the history of current illness and suggest that Judy should visit her physician.

33.

Careful assessment and ongoing evaluation of the pediatric patient is critical for which of the following reasons?

a)

A sick or injured child who initially appeared stable can deteriorate very rapidly.

b)

Childhood injuries and illnesses as a result of abuse or neglect may be missed if the EMT is not thorough.

c)

Signs of significant illness and injury may be subtle and easily overlooked.

d)

All of the above

34.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the pediatric assessment triangle?

a)

Appearance

b)

Circulation

c)

Abdomen

d)

Breathing

35.

You are assessing a 2-year-old child whose mother states she has had a fever for several hours. Which of the following signs is cause for concern?

a)

Grunting at the end of expiration

b)

Crying

c)

Absence of nasal flaring with inhalation

d)

Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

36.

You are dispatched to a 1-year-old child with respiratory distress. En route, you review how to assess and treat infants with respiratory problems. Which of the following would indicate an infant with respiratory distress?

a)

Abdominal movement when breathing

b)

Wheezing upon inspiration

c)

Capillary refill time of 2 seconds

d)

Respiratory rate of 30

37.

Your patient is an 11-month-old male who began choking while his babysitter was feeding him some sliced peaches. The child has retractions of his intercostal muscles, is drowsy, and is grayish in color. Which of the following is the BEST intervention for this patient?

a)

Use of a flow-restricted oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD)

b)

Blow-by oxygen at 10 to 15 liters per minute

c)

Abdominal thrusts

d)

Back slaps and chest thrusts

38.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of shock in infants and children?

a)

Dehydration

b)

Infection

c)

Blood loss

d)

Heart failure

39.

Which of the following is an indication of shock in an infant or small child?

a)

Absence of tears when crying

b)

Capillary refill greater than 2 seconds

c)

Not producing wet diapers

d)

All of the above

40.

You are standing in line waiting to get a prescription filled for your mother. A woman walks in with a young boy in her arms. As she places him in a nearby chair, he begins to seize. Which of the following is true regarding childhood seizures?

a)

Most are due to head injuries.

b)

They usually last from 1 to 2 minutes.

c)

They usually accompany a high fever.

d)

They are due to a rapid rise in temperature.

41.

Which of the following is NOT likely to be a cause of respiratory distress in a 2-year-old child?

a)

Foreign body airway obstruction

b)

Epiglottitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

A cold

42.

Which of the following is an early sign of respiratory distress in an 18-month-old patient?

a)

Respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute

b)

Heart rate of 60 beats per minute

c)

Wheezing

d)

Drowsiness

43.

You are responding to a 6-year-old child with a fever and difficulty breathing. His mother reports that he was playing normally this morning but when he came in for lunch he had spiked a fever. Now, he is sitting up with his mouth open, drooling. Which of the following signs would point to epiglottitis?

a)

Painful swallowing

b)

Some hoarseness

c)

Loud "seal bark" cough

d)

Low grade fever

44.

Your patient is a 2-year-old female who has suffered a seizure but does not have a previous history of seizures. The patient's father states that the child has been pulling at her ear and has had a fever. They were getting ready to leave for a doctor's appointment when the child had a brief seizure. The patient is drowsy and has hot, flushed skin. Which of the following is recommended in the prehospital management of this patient?

a)

Cover the child with a towel soaked in ice water.

b)

Sponge the child's back and arms with rubbing alcohol.

c)

Place ice packs in the armpits, groin, and around the head.

d)

Remove the child's clothing down to her underpants or diaper.

45.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death in children?

a)

Infectious disease

b)

Environmental emergencies

c)

Trauma

d)

Poisonings

46.

Which of the following is LEAST common in a pedestrian child versus car incident?

a)

Abdominal injuries

b)

Upper-extremity injuries

c)

Head injuries

d)

Spinal injuries

47.

Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries?

a)

Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse.

b)

Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant.

c)

Splash burns indicate child abuse.

d)

Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse.

48.

Which of the following should increase your suspicion of child abuse?

a)

Improperly healed fractures, resulting in deformity of extremities

b)

Indications of alcohol and/or drug abuse in the home

c)

Bruises on the back and/or buttocks in various stages of healing

d)

All of the above

49.

Pop-off valves should be functional when ventilating the pediatric patient:

a)

to avoid barotrauma to the lungs.

b)

to avoid causing a pneumothorax.

c)

to avoid overinflation of the lungs.

d)

None of the above

50.

Your patient is an infant being treated for bronchopulmonary dysplasia. He is being weaned off his respirator by a process called intermittent mandatory ventilation. When you arrive, you find the infant obviously hypoxic and sick-looking. Which of the following treatments is indicated?

a)

Prompt transport to a neonatal center

b)

Oxygen administration

c)

Ventilator support

d)

All of the above

51.

Concerning aging, which of the following statements is NOT true?

a)

Many elderly patients have a high threshold for pain.

b)

The diastolic blood pressure tends to rise with age.

c)

The systolic blood pressure tends to increase with age.

d)

Some elderly people have a low threshold for pain.

52.

A diastolic blood pressure over ________ mmHg is considered hypertensive.

a)

90

b)

80

c)

50

d)

65

53.

A segment of the body associated with a specific nerve coming from the spinal cord, along which shingles can appear, is called a:

a)

motor unit.

b)

dermatome.

c)

myelin sheath.

d)

zoster.

54.

As an adult ages, the body experiences changes that cause:

a)

disease processes to take place.

b)

an increased blood pressure.

c)

an inability to maintain homeostasis.

d)

a decreased compensatory ability.

55.

You are assessing an 83-year-old female who is having hip pain. When you count her pulse you notice that the rate is irregularly irregular. What is your treatment for this patient?

a)

Contact medical control for permission to have the patient transported by helicopter from the scene.

b)

Check distal circulation, sensory, and motor sensation, apply a pelvic wrap, place on a traction splint, and transport the patient.

c)

The irregularity is not a reason for concern in itself.

d)

Alert paramedics to respond for a possible cardiac patient.

56.

Of the older patients seen in the emergency department due to a fall, ________% will die within 1 year.

a)

50

b)

10

c)

25

d)

35

57.

As you care for an elderly patient experiencing a serious medical condition, you would expect any deterioration to take place:

a)

rapidly, with a later shift to slowly.

b)

slowly and steadily.

c)

rapidly.

d)

slowly, with a later shift to rapidly.

58.

Which of the following is important to remember when communicating with an elderly patient with a hearing impairment?

a)

It is not worth the effort to try to get information from an elderly person with a hearing impairment.

b)

Make sure the patient can see you when you are speaking to him.

c)

You may need to shout in order for the patient to hear you.

d)

Speak directly into the patient's ear.

59.

When interviewing the elderly patient, the EMT can increase the accuracy of the information he or she gains by:

a)

asking multiple questions at the same time.

b)

having his or her partner assist with asking questions.

c)

allowing sufficient time for the patient to answer.

d)

speaking louder than normal.

60.

A patient gives you a story of having gone out to the movies last night, but who according to family members, has not left the house in years. This condition is called?

a)

Confabulation

b)

Depression

c)

Lying

d)

Apoplexy

61.

While interviewing your patient, she tells you that her husband will be back from the store shortly and can get you a list of her medications. Her daughter tells you that the patient's husband died 15 years ago. This situation is known as:

a)

imagination.

b)

confabulation.

c)

contemplation.

d)

hallucination.

62.

You are assessing a 67-year-old male patient who is experiencing a dissecting abdominal aneurysm. Typically, such a patient will describe the pain as:

a)

Sharp

b)

dull

c)

achy

d)

tearing

63.

When palpating the pulse of an elderly patient, you notice that there is an irregular pulsation without any kind of pattern or cycle to it. This is called:

a)

pulsus alternans.

b)

an irregularly irregular pulse.

c)

heart failure.

d)

pulsus paradoxus.

64.

Which of the following is NOT a common cause of chest pain in the elderly?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Aneurysm

c)

Angina

d)

Asthma

65.

When an elderly patient complains of abdominal pain, the EMT should consider this symptom to be:

a)

non-life-threatening unless accompanied by other symptoms.

b)

cardiac-related until proven otherwise.

c)

related to a gastrointestinal problem.

d)

an indication of a potentially serious problem.

66.

During your assessment of an unconscious, unresponsive 80-year-old female patient, you notice that she has dentures. Your assessment reveals she has an open airway, is breathing on her own at a rate of 12 per minute, is slightly pale, and has a bounding radial pulse. In managing this patient's airway, what would be your most appropriate action?

a)

Prepare to insert an oral airway.

b)

Tilt the head to a sniffing position.

c)

Perform a jaw thrust as needed.

d)

Remove the dentures.

67.

An elderly patient you are transporting to the hospital for complaints of feeling faint and having abdominal pain provides you with a list of medications he currently takes. Among the medications listed is naproxen. The patient's vital signs include a blood pressure of 148/92, pulse rate of 120, respiratory rate of 28, and clear bilateral breath sounds. Which of the following would be the most likely condition the patient is experiencing related to the abdominal pain?

a)

Lower gastrointestinal bleeding

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

d)

Constipation

68.

An elderly patient who is experiencing a myocardial infarction is more likely to complain of which of the following symptoms than a younger patient would?

a)

Shortness of breath with chest pain

b)

A rash caused by shingles

c)

No chest pain or shortness of breath

d)

Shortness of breath without chest pain

69.

The elderly population is at least ________ times as likely to use the EMS system as patients in other age groups.

a)

10

b)

5

c)

0.5

d)

2

70.

Which of the following is the likely result of diminished thyroid function in the elderly?

a)

Decreased tolerance of heat and cold

b)

Thin, dry, wrinkled skin

c)

Increased toxicity of medications

d)

Difficulty chewing and swallowing

71.

Upon your arrival for a medical call at a private residence, you find an elderly male patient complaining of difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings would provide you with the most valuable information about potential problems this patient may be experiencing?

a)

Patient's positioning on the couch

b)

Patient's mental status

c)

Patient's vital signs

d)

Temperature in the house

72.

Which of the following lung conditions is the fourth leading cause of death among the elderly?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Tuberculosis

73.

Which of the following is a serious complication of a fall with chest injuries suffered by a 75-year-old male?

a)

Collapsed lungs

b)

Blood clots

c)

Bruised ribs

d)

Pneumonia

74.

Which of the following statements is believed to be true regarding domestic elder abuse?

a)

The elders are usually in good health.

b)

There is seldom a family history of elder abuse.

c)

The abusers are usually well-adjusted.

d)

None of the above.

75.

The use of a made-up experience to replace lost memories with imaginary ones is called:

a)

hysteria.

b)

confusion.

c)

confabulation.

d)

denial.

76.

Which of the following BEST describes when positive pressure is applied to the patient's airway using a CPAP machine?

a)

Between inhalation and exhalation

b)

During both inhalation and exhalation

c)

During exhalation only

d)

During inhalation only

77.

What is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient?

a)

To assist the patient with waste removal

b)

To assist the patient with feedings

c)

To assist the patient with sleeping

d)

To assist the patient with breathing

78.

Which of the following is true in regards to touching a patient who is being shocked with an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)?

a)

It depends on the AICD model as to whether or not the EMT can feel the shock.

b)

The EMT will always feel the shock, and it is very dangerous to the EMT as well.

c)

The EMT cannot feel the shock of an AICD when delivered to the patient.

d)

The EMT will always feel the shock, but it is not very painful.

79.

Which of the following refers to a condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living?

a)

Disability

b)

Handicapped

c)

Disabled

d)

Terminal

80.

Which of the following BEST describes a disease such as deafness?

a)

Acquired disease

b)

Congenital disease

c)

Either a congenital or acquired disease

d)

Neither a congenital nor acquired disease

81.

Which of the following serious health problems is related to homelessness?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart disease

c)

Liver disease

d)

Tuberculosis

82.

Jarl is a male who is 5 foot 7 inches tall and weighs 250 pounds. What is Jarl's body mass index (rounded to the nearest tenth)?

a)

39.1

b)

38.4

c)

36.5

d)

35.2

83.

Which of the following groups of people makes up the largest portion of the homeless population?

a)

Families

b)

Children

c)

Veterans

d)

Femals

84.

At which of the following locations is an EMT likely to encounter a patient using an advanced medical device?

a)

Specialty care center

b)

Nursing home

c)

Private residence

d)

All of the above

85.

When preparing to move a patient that is using a specialty medical device from his house to the ambulance, which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask the family?

a)

A) What worked best for moving the patient the last time he was transported by ambulance?

b)

B) How do you normally move the patient?

c)

C) Can you carry the patient to the ambulance since you know the best way to move the patient?

d)

D) Both A and B are correct.

86.

You are on the scene of a pediatric patient who is on a specialized home monitoring system. This situation was not specifically addressed in your EMT class and your EMT partner has not encountered this situation, either. What is an advisable course of action?

a)

Request an advanced life support ambulance crew to respond for assistance.

b)

Ask the parent or caregiver what has been done in the past to correct the situation.

c)

Load the patient and rapidly transport the patient to the closest hospital for evaluation.

d)

Contact medical control and ask to speak to a specialist for advice.

87.

Which of the following situations are frequently problematic for patients who have tracheostomy tubes?

a)

Mucus buildup

b)

Tracheal tears

c)

Air embolism

d)

Tube malplacement

88.

While transporting a patient who has an indwelling Foley catheter, it is important to keep the collection bag:

a)

level with the patient.

b)

higher than the level of the patient.

c)

Lower than the level of the patient.

d)

with the patient's caregiver.

89.

While ventilating a conscious patient's tracheostomy tube with a connected bag-valve mask, the EMT should verify the patient's comfort level for which of the following?

a)

Ventilation pressure

b)

Ventilation volume

c)

Ventilation rate

d)

All of the above

90.

During a power failure, how should the EMT verify adequate ventilations are being administered to an unresponsive patient with a tracheostomy tube using a bag-valve mask?

a)

Observe for chest rise and fall.

b)

Observe for improving skin color.

c)

Ensure a good connection between the bag-valve mask and the tracheostomy tube.

d)

All of the above

91.

Which of the following is the main advantage of peritoneal dialysis over hemodialysis?

a)

Peritoneal dialysis is less prone to infection.

b)

Peritoneal dialysis is more effective.

c)

Peritoneal dialysis is likely to be done at the patient's home.

d)

Peritoneal dialysis is much faster.

92.

Assessing blood pressure on a patient with an AV shunt, fistula, or graft could lead to which of the following?

a)

Damage to the AV shunt, fistula, or graft, requiring surgery

b)

Inaccurate blood pressure readings

c)

Nothing, as there is no need to avoid assessing blood pressure in a patient's arm with an AV fistula, shunt, or graft.

d)

Uncontrollable hemorrhage in the extremity

93.

Which of the following is the correct position to use when transporting a patient who has a tracheostomy tube?

a)

Supine

b)

Shock position

c)

Head slightly elevated

d)

Prone

94.

A patient uses a home ventilator connected to his tracheostomy tube to breathe. Which of the following is the correct procedure to use when moving this patient to the ambulance?

a)

Ventilate the patient's nose and mouth with a bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

b)

Do nothing; there is no need to ventilate the patient between the house and the ambulance.

c)

Ventilate the patient's tracheostomy tube via a connected bag-valve mask at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

d)

Ventilate the patient with mouth-to-mask ventilations at a normal rate and volume while the patient is disconnected from the ventilator.

95.

To determine the appropriate depth an EMT should insert a catheter tip into a tracheostomy tube in order to clear a blocked airway, the EMT should:

a)

multiply the internal diameter of the tracheal tube by 10.

b)

insert the catheter until the tip is no longer visible.

c)

measure against the length of the obturator.

d)

measure from the stoma to the carina.

96.

Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one?

a)

In the lower right chest

b)

In the upper left chest

c)

In the upper right chest

d)

In the lower left chest

97.

You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient's nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a:

a)

J-tube.

b)

gastric tube.

c)

tracheal tube.

d)

nasogastric tube.

98.

A condition that interferes significantly with a person's ability to engage in activities of daily living is referred to as a:

a)

disability.

b)

special need.

c)

developmental disability.

d)

physical handicap.

99.

Which of the following is a characteristic of child abusers of special need patients?

a)

They usually identify with the child's pain and suffering.

b)

Alcohol and drug abuse is uncommon.

c)

They usually want the child's injuries treated.

d)

They rarely feel guilt or remorse.

100.

Which of the following statements is true regarding child abuse injuries of special needs patients?

a)

Head injuries are usually the first sign in child abuse.

b)

Splash burns indicate child abuse.

c)

Shaken baby syndrome never causes death of the infant.

d)

Rib fractures in young children suggest child abuse.