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TAPP, SPP, BUILDING CODE

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Motor courts in subdivision shall have a right-of-way of NOT less than meters.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

2.

What is the width of the major road right-of-way, in meters, for subdivision of projects size 2.5 hectares and below?

a)

10

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

3.

What is the width of the major road right-of-way, in meters, for subdivision of projects size above 5 to 10 hectares?

a)

6

b)

10

c)

9

d)

12

4.

What is the width of the minor road right-of-way, in meters, for subdivision of projects size above 5 to 10 hectares?

a)

6

b)

12

c)

8

d)

10

5.

The following statement is NOT relevant to space planning

a)

How people will move through the spaces is considered.

b)

Who will use the space should be considered.

c)

How people spend their time in the building is considered

d)

How the building design character will adapt to the community is considered

6.

The following statement is NOT relevant to space planning.

a)

Privacy of people is considered.

b)

Proper selection of competent engineering consultants is considered

c)

Elements like lighting and ventilation are considered

d)

Accessibility or making the space easy to use is considered

7.

What should a prospective home builder/owner first do before proceeding with his/her project?

a)

Select his/her engineer

b)

Select his/her construction manager

c)

Select his/her budget

d)

Select his/her Architect

8.

What should an architect first do when he/she comes across a prospective client?

a)

Submits professional brief and fee proposal

b)

Sign service agreement

c)

Submits concept designs

d)

Undertake preliminary research

9.

Which of the process comes first?

a)

Prepare contract documents

b)

Sign a service agreement

c)

Prepare design development

d)

Submits design concept

10.

What stage of the process does the professional fee of the architect is approved by the owner?

a)

After the submission of the schematic design

b)

During the submission of the schematic design

c)

Before the submission of the schematic design

d)

During the submission of the concept design

11.

What stage of the process does the probable cost of the project is submitted to the owner?

a)

Before signing the service agreement

b)

After the approval of the schematic design

c)

During the submission of the schematic design

d)

After signing the service agreement

12.

The law that governs the design of low-cost housing is

a)

RA 9266

b)

PD 1096

c)

BP 220

d)

BP 344

13.

A lot or land intended for construction site can be best described by its ___.

a)

TCT

b)

Lot Plan

c)

Site survey

d)

OCT

14.

A lot or land intended for construction site can be best described by its ___.

a)

Right of way

b)

Highway

c)

Alley

d)

Street

15.

What is RROW?

a)

Recreational Right Of Way

b)

Rough Road Of Ways

c)

Road Right Of Way

d)

Right Road Of Way

16.

What is an OCT?

a)

Overland Committee for Transport

b)

Original Certificate of Title

c)

Over-all Certificate of Title

d)

Original Copy of Title

17.

Defined as intensive foci from which the observer is traveling

a)

Paths

b)

Edges

c)

Nodes

d)

Districts

18.

Most dominant element for most person's image of the city.

a)

Paths

b)

Nodes

c)

Edges

d)

Districts

19.

Responsive environments that focus on details, with a wide vocabulary of visual cues possess.

a)

Legibility

b)

Visual Appropriateness

c)

Variety

d)

Personalization

20.

The shape of urban cities formed by two corridors of intense development crossing the center.

a)

Radio-centric

b)

Articulated Sheet

c)

Rectilinear

d)

Linear

21.

Acknowledged as the icon of middle class suburbanization during the 1950s

a)

Projects 1 to 8

b)

Philam-Life Homes

c)

Forbes Park

d)

Quezon City

22.

Largest in land area among Metro Manila’s 12 cities:

a)

City of Manila

b)

Kalookan City

c)

Quezon City

d)

Muntinlupa City

23.

Among Lynch’s elements of the city, these are defined as lateral references that are not coordinated axes:

a)

Paths

b)

Edges

c)

Nodes

d)

Districts

24.

Among Lynch’s elements of the city, these are defined as lateral references that are not coordinated axes:

a)

Paths

b)

Edges

c)

Nodes

d)

Districts

25.

The third level of Ian Bentley’s responsive environments; important in terms of physical form and activity patterns:

a)

Permeability

b)

Legibility

c)

Robustness

d)

Richness

26.

Designed Seaside, which signified the start of the New Urbanism movement:

a)

Peter Katz

b)

Peter Calthorpe

c)

Andres Duany & Elizabeth Plater-Zyberk

d)

David Sucher and Daniel Solomon

27.

According to Tonnies, what type of community life is one in which impersonal, superficial & business-like relationships prevail

a)

Rural

b)

Damay

c)

Gesselschaft

d)

Gemeinschaft

28.

Determines current housing needs:

a)

Housing to be replaced

b)

Housing for new family formation

c)

Housing special groups

d)

All of the Above

29.

The first planned park in the United States

a)

Golden Gate Park, San Francisco

b)

Central Park, New York

c)

Yosemite Park, California

d)

Washington Park, Chicago

30.

The largest city of the Yellow River Valley of China

a)

Anyang

b)

Ghejin

c)

Sunru ghin

d)

Beijing

31.

Designer of the European planned city of Savannah in Georgia, USA

a)

Frederick Law Olmstead

b)

Col. Frank Nicholson

c)

Charles Fourier

d)

James Oglethorpe

32.

The first city that signified the rise of the church, with the church being an integral part of its urban design

a)

Rome

b)

Constantinople

c)

Madrid

d)

Versailles

33.

The military towns of Spanish settlements

a)

Laws of the Indies

b)

Pueblo

c)

Presidio

d)

Missions

34.

The first noted urban planner because of his design of the city of Miletus

a)

Vitruvius

b)

Hippodamus

c)

Damascus

d)

Paleo

35.

The best representation of the “speculators town” of the settlements in early America

a)

Charleston

b)

Williamsburg

c)

Philadelphia

d)

New York City

36.

Leader of the Reform Movements during the Industrial Revolution

a)

Robert Owens

b)

Ebenezer Howard

c)

James Oglethorpe

d)

Soria Y Mata

37.

Author of “Tomorrow: a Peaceful Path to Social Reform” and main proponent of the Garden Cities

a)

Robert Owen

b)

Ebenezer Howard

c)

James Oglethorpe

d)

Soria Y Mata

38.

The first garden city designed by Raymund Unwin and Barry Parker:

a)

Welwyn

b)

Hampstead

c)

Letcheworth

d)

Windsor

39.

Designed the Garden City of Welwyn:

a)

Unwin and Parker

b)

Ebenezer Howard

c)

Louis de Soisson

d)

Clarence Perry

40.

   World fair in Chicago in 1891, setting off the City Beautiful Era:

a)

The Columbian Exposition

b)

The White City

c)

World Cities Expo

d)

City Beautiful Movement

41.

Designed the reconstruction of Paris using the principles of the city beautiful movement:

a)

John Nash

b)

Daniel Burnham

c)

Charles Buckingham

d)

Baron Hausmann

42.

Designed the Brasilia, the new capital of Brazil during the City Beautiful era:

a)

Albert T Meyer

b)

Edward Lutyens

c)

Walter Griffin

d)

Lucio Costa

43.

Frank Lloyd Wright’s project proposal that would allot one acre of land to each American family:

a)

Le Contemporaine

b)

Unite D Habitation

c)

Broadacres

d)

Acreville

44.

Proposed the Linear City that would serve as a satellite to the city of Madrid

a)

Jose Marseilles

b)

Diego San Andres

c)

Soria Y Mata

d)

Felipe Selecios

45.

Proposed the “Arcology Alternative: or 3D city:

a)

Soria Y Mata

b)

Paolo Soleri

c)

Frank Lloyd Wright

d)

Kiyonori Kikutake

46.

Proposed the first “Floating City” as an alternative to land reclamation:

a)

Soria Y Mata

b)

Paolo Soleri

c)

Frank Lloyd Wright

d)

Kiyonori Kikutake

47.

  Believed that planning should first start at the micro level and thus designed the “neighborhood unit”:

a)

Clarence Perry and Clarence Stein

b)

Ebenezer Howard

c)

Frank Lloyd Wright & Louis Sullivan

d)

Louis Kahn

48.

Describes the housing shortage or backlog.

a)

Difference between number of acceptable housing & number of families

b)

Housing for new family formation

c)

Housing produced minus existing housing

d)

All of the above

49.

Type of urban ecological process in land use planning patterning in cities or communities defined as the entrance of a new population and/or facilities into an occupied area

a)

Succession

b)

Invasion

c)

Concentration

d)

Decentralization

50.

In the increase of urban population, which of the following factors indicates excess of in-migration over out-migration.

a)

Natural increase

b)

Reclassification

c)

Concentration

d)

Net Migration

51.

Factors indicating Net Migration.

a)

Excess of births over deaths

b)

Excess in young population

c)

Excess of in-migration over out-migration

d)

Rural areas having achieved urban status

52.

Urban design control that allows builders and developers more space if they provide desirable features such as plazas, arcades, and other open spaces

a)

Flexible Zoning

b)

Incentive Zoning

c)

Cluster Zoning

d)

Land Use Planning

53.

The largest and simplest function of a city

a)

Economic

b)

Government

c)

Housing

d)

Transportation

54.

Intersections that separate lanes of traffic by use of islands.

a)

Channelization

b)

Rotaries

c)

Clover leaf

d)

Diamonds

55.

Basic subdivision design.

a)

Grid iron

b)

Radial on grid iron

c)

Curvilinear

d)

Radial super blocks

56.

What major problem brought about the discipline of city planning?

a)

Physical Chaos

b)

Land Value

c)

Urban growth

d)

Crime

57.

What part of basic data and planning studies in a comprehensive development plan describes the physical setting of the community or region?

a)

Economic base study

b)

Man-made features

c)

Land use survey and inventory

d)

History and geography

58.

The urban model of growth and development that presents the emergence of self-sufficient sectors.

a)

Concentric zone model

b)

Multiple nuclei model

c)

Sector model

d)

Urban realms model

59.

Density control method that regulates the proportions between the built area of the building and the lot area.

a)

Number of occupants per square meter

b)

Floor area ratio

c)

Number of occupants per floor

d)

Floor space index

60.

A general term to describe the idea of consciously renewing the outworn areas of towns and cities.

a)

Historic preservation

b)

Adaptive reuse

c)

Urban renewal

d)

Urban gentrification

61.

A mixed use community with an average 670 meters distance of a transit stop and commercial core area. PETER CALTHORPE

a)

Transit oriented development

b)

Traditional neighborhood development

c)

Planned unit development

d)

New urbanism

62.

A group of architects, planners, and urban designers formed to educate citizens worldwide of the benefits of new urbanism.

a)

The Council of New Urbanism

b)

The Congress for New Urbanism

c)

The New Urbanism Movement

d)

The Association of New Urbanists

63.

According to the new theory of New Urbanism, neighborhoods must have a discernible center within a five minute of walk of all dwellings, and equivalent to ___.

a)

200 to 300 meters

b)

300 to 500 meters

c)

600 to 700 meters

d)

Approximately 1 kilometer

64.

Minimum width of sidewalks, according to new urbanism principles

a)

1.20 meters

b)

2.00 meters

c)

2.50 meters

d)

3.00 meters

65.

Which of the following indicates good site planning

a)

Maximized land use/space

b)

Controlled environmental hazards

c)

Efficient maintenance

d)

All of the above

66.

One of the key housing agencies of HUDCC that concentrates on the production aspect of housing

a)

HLURB

b)

NHA

c)

NHMFC

d)

HIGC

67.

One of the funding agencies of Housing, locally known as the Pag-ibig Fund.

a)

GSIS

b)

HDMF

c)

SSS

d)

143 Fund

68.

An urban design control that is used to limit height and building bulk, creates setbacks and open space, and ultimately generate a relatively uniform urban fabric, computed as the ratio of the total floor area and the lot area.

a)

Building Code

b)

Floor Area Ratio

c)

Floor Space index

d)

Land Zoning

69.

The salient provision of this law requires developers of proposed subdivision project at least 20% of the total subdivision area or total subdivision project cost for socialized housing.

a)

RA 7279

b)

RA 1432

c)

RA 4266

d)

RA 1680

70.

The wet and dry market is its main feature with quasi-residential commercial or mixed-use development.

a)

Central Business District

b)

Town Center

c)

Neighborhood Center

d)

Minor CBD

71.

Refers to the acquisition of land at values based on existing use in advance of actual need to promote planned development and socialized housing programs.

a)

Land investing

b)

Land Swapping

c)

Land Banking

d)

Land Assembly

72.

Refers to the process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another piece of land of equal value, or for shares of stock in a government or quasi-government corporation.

a)

Land investing

b)

Land swapping

c)

Land banking

d)

Land assembly

73.

Refers to those areas declared as such under existing statutes and pertinent executive issuances.

a)

Idle lands

b)

Areas of priority development

c)

Blighted lands

d)

Component lands

74.

Refers to the areas where the structures are dilapidated, obsolete and unsanitary, tending to depreciate the value of the land and prevent normal development and use of the area.

a)

a. Idle lands

b)

b. Blighted lands

c)

c. Areas for priority development

d)

d. Component lands

75.

Constructed and financed by the private sector as a business venture and sold at prevailing market prices and interest.

a)

a. Condominium Project

b)

b. Economic and Socialized Housing

c)

c. Subdivision Project

d)

d. Open Market Housing

76.

Housing project for moderately low-income families with lower interest rates and longer amortization periods

a)

a. Condominium Project

b)

b. Economic and Socialized Housing

c)

c. Subdivision Project

d)

d. Open Market Housing

77.

As per NSO, what structure is 3 or more units, intended for residential use only, usually consisting of 3 or more housing units?

a)

a. Single House

b)

b. Duplex

c)

c. Multi-Unit Residence

d)

d. Medium-Density Residence