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CPR/AED for the Professional Rescuer and First Aid practice

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the symptoms with the correct Bloodborne Pathogen

Fatigue, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, joint pain

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

HIV

2.

Match the symptoms with the correct Bloodborne Pathogen

Fatigue, dark urine, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, nausea, jaundice

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

HIV

3.

Match the following symptoms with the correct Bloodborne Pathogen

Fever, Fatigue, diarrhea, rashes, loss of appetite, movement problems

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

HIV

4.

Which of the following Bloodborne Pathogens has no vaccine

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Hepatitis C

c)

HIV

5.

A lifeguard is cleaning up the scene of a deep wound. They are not wearing gloves and accidentally touch the blood while cleaning.

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

6.

A patron walks up to you after cutting their leg on the diving board. The cut is fatal and could lead to death if not treated quickly. In a hurry you start to bandage up the wound without wearing gloves.

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

7.

On your way to work, you notice that you are sneezing a lot. You think nothing of it and continue to go to work. At work you are in a meeting and continue to sneeze around others.

a)

Droplet Transmission

b)

Vector-borne Transmission

8.

While at a movie with friends, you are swarmed with mosquitoes. The next morning you wake up with bumps all over your body

a)

Droplet transmission

b)

Vector-borne Transmission

9.

All of the following are OSHA regulations EXCEPT ____

a)

Creating an exposure control plan

b)

Make a cleaning schedule

c)

Having medical records of one another accessible

d)

Offer the Hepatitis B vaccine free of charge

e)

Establish a recordkeeping system

10.

While on your shift, a pregnant mother goes into labor and is going to have the baby before EMS crews can arrive. Identify the proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) that you should put on

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Infectious material

d)

Goggles

11.

Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?

a)

Wearing the proper gloves

b)

Staying an efficient distance from others

c)

Wearing a mask at all times

d)

Effective hand washing

12.

Chose the option that has the steps for assisting in a sudden illness in the correct order.

a)

911, primary assessment, size up the scene, provide care, secondary assessment, report advise and release

b)

Primary assessment, 911, size up the scene, provide care, secondary assessment, report advise and release

c)

size up the scene, primary assessment, 911, secondary assessment, provide care, Report advise and release

d)

primary assessment, secondary assessment, 911, size up the scene, provide care, report advise and release

13.

You see an injured person while you are out mountain climbing. You decide to size up the scene. What are the questions that you would ask yourself?

a)

Do I have the right PPE?

b)

Will I get paid for this?

c)

Am in good relations with this person?

d)

How many people are there?

14.

You walk up to a patron that is laying on the floor of the hallway. You tap them and say their name and you get no response. You pinch their arm and their arm moves quickly.

Where does this patron rate on the AVPU?

a)

Alert

b)

Verbal

c)

Painful

d)

Unresponsive

15.

When checking for pulse and breathing on a victim you should check it for at least _____ seconds, but no more than _____ seconds

a)

5,10

b)

2,5

c)

10,20

d)

30,45

16.

How far should you move an infant's head while preforming the jaw-thrust/chin-lift maneuver?

a)

Slightly past the neutral position

b)

Past the neutral position

c)

To a neutral position

17.

Which is the pulse located on the neck

a)

Carotid Pulse

b)

Brachial Pulse

18.

Whish is the pulse located on the wrist?

a)

Carotid Pulse

b)

Brachial Pulse

19.

In a drowning victim, during CPR you would give _____ first.

a)

Chest Compressions

b)

Ventilations

20.

In an on land emergency, during CPR, you would give ______ first.

a)

Chest Compressions

b)

Ventilations

21.

Each ventilation should last about _____ second(s).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

1.5

d)

.5

22.

Overventilation can cause _____.

a)

Vomiting

b)

Heart Failure

c)

Lung disease

d)

Coughing

23.

Which of the following is the correct recovery position for an adult?

a)

laying on back

b)

laying on Stomach

c)

Side laying

24.

You are the only guard on duty. You save a passive drowning victim.

a)

Care First

b)

Call 911 first

25.

When breathing becomes Difficult

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Respiratory arrest

c)

Respiratory failure

26.

When breathing stops

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Respiratory arrest

c)

Respiratory failure

27.

When the respiratory system begins to shut down.

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Respiratory arrest

c)

Respiratory failure

28.

You reach a victim and they are not breathing but they have a pulse

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Respiratory arrest

c)

Respiratory failure

29.

In an ADULT, you should give _____ ventilation(s) every _______ second(s)

a)

1, 5-6

b)

2, 5-6

c)

1,1

d)

1, 7-8

30.

In an INFANT, you should give ___ ventilation(s) every _____ second(s)

a)

1, 6-7

b)

1, 5-6

c)

1, 3

d)

2, 5-6

31.

You should give ventilations for ____ minutes before re-checking breathing

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

5

32.

If the chest does not rise after the first ventilation, you should ______.

a)

Begin back blows, and abdominal thrusts

b)

Re-Tilt the head

c)

Begin chest compressions

d)

Move the victim

33.

Chose the only reasons that someone should stop CPR

a)

Victim begins to breathe

b)

You are too exhausted to continue

c)

The scene becomes unsafe

d)

A bystander tells you to stop

e)

Someone of higher authority takes over

34.

True or false:

A Bag-Valve-Mask can be operated by one person

a)

True

b)

False

35.

A severe allergic reaction that can cause breathing difficulties

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Respiratory arrest

36.

If you see froth around a victims mouth, you should ____.

a)

Roll them to a recovery position

b)

Begin chest compressions

c)

Continue ventilations

d)

Begin back blows and abdominal thrusts

37.

Any foreign body lodged into the airway

a)

Mechanical obstruction

b)

Anatomical airway obstruction

38.

A blockage caused by the body itself

a)

Mechanical obstruction

b)

Anatomical Airway obstruction

39.

What is the first step in caring for any land emergency

a)

Primary Assessment

b)

Calling 911

c)

Asking for consent

d)

Calling for help

40.

True or false:

If you are treating a child and there is no parent present, consent is applied

a)

True

b)

False

41.

How much oxygen does a victim get from a resuscitation mask?

a)

20-21%

b)

16%

c)

11%

d)

7%

42.

What percent does a victim get from an emergency oxygen unit?

a)

20-21%

b)

16%

c)

94%

d)

57%

43.

While monitoring an elderly women's Oxygen saturation, you notice that her oxygen saturation is 88%.

a)

Normal

b)

Mild Hypoxia

c)

Moderate Hypoxia

d)

Severe Hypoxia

44.

The most common cause of an airway obstruction is:

a)

Food

b)

Teeth

c)

Air

d)

Tongue

45.

The first step of the ADULT Cardiac chain of survival is _____.

a)

Call 911

b)

Early Defibrillation

c)

Advanced Life Support

d)

Early CPR

46.

The following is the first step of the Cardiac chain of survival.

Chose step 2 of the chain.

Step 1: Recognize emergency and call 9-1-1

a)

Integrated post-cardiac arrest care

b)

Early CPR

c)

Early defibrillation

d)

Advanced Life support

47.

The very first step of the pediatric chain of survival is (a)   .

Hint: Starts with a P

48.

What is step 2 of the Pediatric chain of survival?

a)

Pediatric Advanced Life support

b)

Early emergency care (911)

c)

Integrated post-cardiac arrest care

d)

Early CPR

e)

Injury prevention

49.

For each minute CPR and defibrillation are delayed, the victim's chance for survival is reduced by about (a)   percent.

50.

_______ refers to the death of heart tissue as a result of loss of oxygenated blood.

a)

Cardiac Arrest

b)

Heart Attack

c)

Brain death

d)

Atherosclerosis

51.

Which of the following are symptoms of a heart attack?

a)

Chest pain that lasts longer than 3-5 minutes

b)

Leg pain/discomfort

c)

Arm pain

d)

Difficulty breathing

e)

severe headache

52.

What is the first step in caring for a suspected heart attack victim?

a)

CPR

b)

Back blows and abdominal thrusts

c)

Begin giving oxygen

d)

Have them sit down

53.

Which of the following is a medication that can help with heart attacks?

a)

Tylenol

b)

Anti-inflammatory drugs

c)

Aspirin

d)

Ibuprofen

54.

When the heart suddenly stops beating

a)

Cardiac Arrest

b)

Heart Attack

c)

Brain death

d)

Atherosclerosis

55.

Identify the symptoms of a cardiac arrest

a)

Dizziness

b)

Sudden Collapse

c)

Abnormal breathing

d)

No pulse

e)

Chest pain

56.

For an ADULT, what is the correct ratio of chest compressions to ventilations

Compressions : Ventilations

a)

30:1

b)

1:30

c)

2:30

d)

30:2

57.

How many chest compressions should be given in a minute?

a)

80-100

b)

100-120

c)

60-80

d)

120-140

58.

For an ADULT, during chest compressions, the chest compressions should be no more than ____ inches deep.

a)

2.4

b)

1.5

c)

2

d)

2.2

59.

For a CHILD, during chest compressions, each compression should be about ______ inches deep.

a)

2.4

b)

2

c)

1.5

d)

2.2

60.

For an INFANT, during chest compressions, each compression should be about _____ inches deep.

a)

2.4

b)

2

c)

1.5

d)

2.2

61.

During 2 person CPR, rescuers should change positions about every ______ minute(s)

a)

5

b)

10

c)

2

d)

7

62.

On the final cycle of CPR, the person giving chest compressions should say (a)   on the 30th compression

63.

During 2 person CPR on an infant, the compression to ventilation ratio should be ______.

Compression : Ventilations

a)

30:2

b)

2:30

c)

15:2

d)

2:15

64.

CPR should ONLY be stopped if:

a)

You are too exhausted to continue

b)

A bystander tells you to stop

c)

The scene becomes unsafe

d)

EMS arrive

e)

Your shift ends

65.

When the ventricles of the heart quiver, or fibrillate, without any organized rhythm, and the electrical impulses fire at random, preventing the heart from pumping blood

a)

Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)

b)

Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)

66.

When there is no pulse in the heart, an abnormal electrical pulse controls the heart. This pulse fires so fast that the heart's chambers do not have the ability to fill, and the heart cannot efficiently pump blood.

a)

Ventricular Fibrillation (VF)

b)

Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)

67.

If the AED determines that the heart rhythm is not shockable, the person is likely in a condition called _____.

a)

Cardiac Arrest

b)

Agnia

c)

Heart Failure

d)

Asystole

68.

Between the AED analyzing the hearts rhythm, CPR should continue for about _____ minutes.

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

1.5

69.

As you are putting an AED on a victim, you notice that the pads are touching each other. What should you do?

a)

Allow them to touch

b)

Move them to anywhere on the chest/stomach that they do not touch

c)

Do not use the AED

d)

Put one on the chest, and one on the back

70.

True or False:

It is okay to put an AED pad on top of a pace maker.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

True or False:

Never place an AED pad on top of a medicated patch

a)

True

b)

False

72.

True or False:

You can put use an AED on a pregnant woman

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What are some important aspects of patient history in regards to your work as a lifeguard?

a)

Allergies

b)

Family history

c)

Medications

d)

Past and present relationships

e)

Last oral intake

74.

If a patron is having a severe diabetic emergency, you as a lifeguard should give _______.

a)

15 to 20 mg of sugar from several sources

b)

10-15 mg of sugar from several sources

c)

5-10 mg of sugar from several sources

d)

20-25 mg of sugar from several sources

75.

A condition where the blood sugar levels drop to an unsafe amount.

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Hypoglycemia

76.

A condition where blood sugar levels are too high at any given moment

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

77.

Identify the following symptoms of a stroke.

a)

Droopy Face

b)

fainting

c)

Headache

d)

Arm numbness

e)

Slurred speech

78.

A type of open wound where the skin has been rubbed or scraped away

a)

Puncture

b)

Laceration

c)

Avulsion

d)

Abrasion

79.

A type of open wound where the cut is deep and causes severe bleeding

a)

Avultion

b)

Laceration

c)

Puncture

d)

Abrasion

80.

a type of open wound that a part of the body is loose or torn off completely

a)

Avulsion

b)

Laceration

c)

Puncture

d)

Abrasion

81.

A type of open wound that does not bleed profusely and an impaled object is in the skin.

a)

Avultion

b)

Laceration

c)

Puncture

d)

Abrasion

82.

A tourniquet should be placed roughly _____ inch(es) above the wound

a)

2

b)

3

c)

1

d)

5

83.

If you are faced with a burn victim, you should run the burn site under water for roughly _______ minute(s).

a)

1

b)

5

c)

10

d)

7

84.

Identify which spiders in the US are poisonous.

a)

The Tarantula

b)

The Brown Recluse

c)

The Goliath Bird Eater

d)

The black widow

e)

The North Carolina Wolf Spider

85.

Out of 8,000 poisonous snake bites reported in the US, how many result in death?

a)

100

b)

5

c)

75

d)

15

e)

9

86.

Painful muscle spasms that usually occur in the legs and abdomen.

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Heat Exaustion

c)

Heat stroke

87.

An early indicator that the body's cooling system is becoming overwhelmed. Symptoms may be headaches, sweating, exhaustion, pale skin

a)

Heat Cramps

b)

Heat exhaustion

c)

Heat Stroke

88.

The time that the body's cooling systems shut down

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Heat exaustion

c)

Heat stroke

89.

A complete break, a chip or a crack in a bone.

a)

Fracture

b)

Dislocation

90.

Displacement of a bone away from its normal position at a joint

a)

Fracture

b)

Dislocation

91.

The tearing of a ligament at a joint

a)

Sprain

b)

Strain

92.

Stretching and tearing muscles or tendons

a)

Sprain

b)

Strain

93.

At the time that contractions begin, you have roughly ______ minutes before the placenta will be expeled

a)

60

b)

45

c)

30

d)

15