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Biology Final Winter 2022

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The term aerobic means

a)

wine-making

b)

with carbon dioxide

c)

without carbon dioxide

d)

with oxygen

e)

without oxygen

2.

Humans use calories they obtain from ____ as their energy source.

a)

food

b)

water

c)

sunlight

d)

minerals

3.

which of the following is the result of glycolysis?

a)

reduction of FAD to FADH2

b)

production of carbon dioxide

c)

conversion of glucose to 2 pyruvic acids

d)

conversion of NADH to NAD+

4.

The end products of the KREBS cycle include all of the following except

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

ATP

d)

NADH

5.

In the electron transport chain, electrons are passed from one electron transport molecule to another and are finally accepted by

a)

an oxygen molecule

b)

a molecule of carbon dioxide

c)

a molecule of water

d)

ADP

6.

Which of the following processes is most efficient (produces most ATP per molecule if glucose oxidized)

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

alcoholic fermentation

d)

lactic acid fermentation

7.
This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen is present.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
light-independent reaction
c)
cellular respiration
d)
light-dependent reaction
8.
Glucose is broken down during which process
a)
Krebs cycle
b)
Calvin cycle
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Photosynthesis
9.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
10.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
11.
Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
12.
Which molecule isn't an energy carrier?
a)
FADH2
b)
NADH
c)
oxygen
d)
ATP
13.

For the two pyruvic acids that enter from glycolysis, the Krebs cycles will yield:

a)

1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2

b)

1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 FADH2

c)

1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2

d)

2 ATP, 8 NADH, and 2 FADH2

e)

2 ATP, 4 NADH, and 2 FADH2

14.

The initial reaction of the Krebs cycle produces:

a)

Glucose and pyruvate

b)

H2O and CO2

c)

CO2, acetyl-CoA, and NADH

d)

Coenzyme A and NADH

15.

Where does the Krebs cycle take place?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Inner Mitochondrial Membrane

c)

Outer Mitochondrial Membrane

d)

Mitochondrial Matrix

16.

The waste product produced during the Krebs cycle is...

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

ATP

17.

True or False: The Krebs cycle anaerobic.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

How are the electrons extracted during the Krebs cycle transferred to the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

ATP

d)

CO2

19.

How many turns of the Krebs cycle per glucose molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

20.

Where does the pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis go next if oxygen is present?

a)

the Calvin Cycle

b)

the electron transport chain

c)

the Krebs Cycle

d)

back through the glycolysis process

21.

Glycolysis has a net gain of how many ATP molecules?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

22.

The number of ATP molecules produced out of Krebs Cycle for one molecule of glucose is:

a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
0
23.
How many FADH2 molecules are produced by 1 molecule of glucose?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
24.
How many NADH molecules are produced by a molecule of glucose through the Krebs' Cycle?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)

8

25.

NADH and FADH2

a)

carry electrons to the ETC.

b)

bind with Acetyl CoA.

c)

make pyruvic acid

d)

make water.

26.

Oxygen is an end product of Krebs Cycle

a)

True

b)

False

27.

In what part of the mitchondria does the electron transport chain occur?

a)

Inner mitochondrial membrane (folds of the mitochondria)

b)

Outer mitochondrial membrane

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Ribosomes

28.

Production of ATP by ATP synthase is driven by

a)

H+ movement

b)

electron movement

c)

NADH movement

d)

FADH2 movement

29.
What enzyme in the ETC is responsible for generating the ATP molecules?
a)
ATPase
b)
ATP synthase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
none of the above
30.

Hydrogen ions are pumped from the __________ to the ___________.

a)

matrix; intermembrane space

b)

intermembrane space; matrix

c)

matrix; cytoplasm

d)

intermembrane; cytoplasm

31.

The final electron acceptor in electron transport chain is

a)

NAD+

b)

FAD

c)

Oxygen

d)

Water

32.

How many ATP produced for each NADH that enter the electron transport chain from Kreb's cycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

If no oxygen is present, ____ follows glycolysis.

a)

the link reaction

b)

the citric acid cycle

c)

fermentation

d)

the calvin cycle

34.

Which of the following processes creates the most ATP during aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis

b)

fermentation

c)

electron transport chain

d)

Kreb's Cycle

35.
What is a reactant for the electron transport chain?
a)

CO2

b)
ATP
c)
Oxygen
d)
Water
36.
What is needed from the Krebs Cycle in order for the Electron Transport Chain to occur?
a)
ATP
b)
FADH2
c)
CO2
d)
H20
37.
What is a product of the Electron Transport Chain?
a)
CO2
b)
O2
c)
C6H1206
d)
H2O
38.
What enzyme in the ETC is responsible for generating the ATP molecules?
a)
ATPase
b)
ATP synthase
c)
Hexokinase
d)
none of the above
39.
Which passes high energy electron into the electron transport chain
a)
NADH & FADH2
b)
ATP & ADP
c)
citric acid
d)
acetyl CoA
40.

Which of the following happen during the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

High energy electrons travel down the ETC, pumping H+'s into the intermembrane space

b)

H+'s travel down the ETC, pumping high energy electrons into the intermembrane space

c)

H+'s diffuse through ATP Synthase, turning it so it can make ATP

41.

At the end of the ETC, what binds to the electrons and 2H+'s?

a)

H2O

b)

ATP

c)

O2

d)

CO2

42.

Where does light dependent reactions take place?

a)

Stroma

b)

Thylakoid

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

43.

Which of the following is not produced in the light dependent reaction?

a)

oxygen

b)

ATP

c)

sugar

d)

NADPH

44.

Choose the statement that best describes light reaction.

a)

It converts CO2 to sugar molecule

b)

It converts light energy to chemical energy of ATP and NADPH

c)

It takes place in the stroma

45.

Which of the following colors is not absorbed well by chlorophyll pigments?

a)

green

b)

blue

c)

violet

46.

What is the waste-product of light-dependent reaction?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

carbon dioxide

47.
Where does the light independent reaction take place?
a)
Matrix
b)
Stroma
c)
Thylakoid membrane
d)
Cytoplasm
48.
What happens to NADPH and ATP after they are used in the Calvin Cycle?
a)

they recycle back to the light independent reactions

b)

they are used to make PGAL

49.
Which of the following is NOT a reactant of the Calvin Cycle?
a)
NADPH
b)
ATP
c)
Oxygen
d)
Carbon dioxide
50.

In green plants, the primary function of the Calvin cycle is to

a)

Use ATP to release carbon

b)

Split water to release oxygen.

c)

Construct sugar from carbon dioxide.

d)

Use NADPH to release carbon

51.
What does NADPH do? 
a)
carries electrons to the Calvin cycle
b)
carries electrons to the ETC
52.
The Calvin Cycle occurs in the ___________.
a)
Stroma
b)
Thylakoid Membrane
c)
Enzyme ATP Synthase
d)
Chlorophyll
53.
The 5-Carbon molecules that the Calvin Cycle starts and ends with, is called _____________.
a)
PGA
b)

PGAL

c)
RuBP
d)
RuDp
54.

After 12 PGAL molecules are created, 10 are used to regenerate _________, while the other 2 are used to create __________.

a)
RuBP, C6H12O6
b)
Glucose, CO2
c)
ATP, Glucose
d)
Glucose, RUBP
55.

Which cell organelle carries out photosynthesis ?

a)

chlorophyll

b)

mitochondrion

c)

chloroplast

d)

cytoplasm

56.

The light dependent reactions produce oxygen gas & convert ADP & NADP+ into the energy carriers ATP & NADPH.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

57.

Electron carrier molecules are crucial in the LDR. Identify the correct order of the electron transport chain.

a)

Photosystem II, Photosystem I, ATP formation

b)

ATP formation, Photosystem I, Photosystem II

c)

Photosystem I, Photosystem II, ATP formation

58.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
59.

What replaces the 2 electrons that are lost in chlorophyll in Photosystem II?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

glucose

d)

rubisco

60.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
61.
What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of energy for living things
a)
Sugar
b)
Sun
c)
Moon
d)
Carbon Dioxide
62.

In the ________________________, energy from the sun is used to make ATP and NADPH.

a)

light-independent reaction

b)

dark reaction

c)

light-dependent reaction

d)

Calvin cycle

63.
Which conclusion best matches the trends shown on the graph?
a)
Bean plants produce more ATP than corn plants.
b)
Corn plants require more oxygen than bean plants.
c)
Corn plants release more carbon dioxide than bean plants.
d)
Corn plants produce sugars at a faster rate than bean plants.
64.

Which lettered graph represents the affect of light intensity on photosynthetic rate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.

Which lettered graph represents the effect of carbon dioxide gas on photosynthetic rate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

66.

Which lettered graph represents the effect of temperature on photosynthetic rate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.
In DNA, Adenine pairs with ___________. 
a)
Guanine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
68.
DNA has a _____________ structure. 
a)
double helix
b)
single strand
c)
ring 
d)
chain
69.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
70.
The mRNA leaves the ________ to find the ribosome to make proteins.
a)
cell
b)
nucleotide
c)
nucleus
71.

DNA holds the code for making

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

sugars

72.

Choose the sequence of the mRNA strand that would be match up with to the following strand:

GTAGTCA

a)

UATUAGA

b)

ACGACTG

c)

CAUCAGU

d)

CATCAGT

73.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
74.

Which is the mRNA molecule that would be created from this DNA template:

TGGCAAGTACGT

a)

ACCGTTCATGCA

b)

UGGCAAGUACGU

c)

UCCGUUCUUGCU

d)

ACCGUUCAUGCA

75.
What part of protein synthesis does this diagram represent?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA
76.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

77.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

78.

How many codons equals 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

79.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

80.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

81.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

82.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

83.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
84.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
85.

What process is steps 1-3 referring to?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Nucleus

86.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

87.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

88.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
89.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
90.

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of a gene is called

a)

a mutation

b)

a codon

c)

a translation

d)

an anticodon

91.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
92.

Translate this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Thr-Glu-Stop

c)

Met-His-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

93.

The tRNA carries the ____________________ which matches the _________________ on the mRNA strand.

a)

anticodon; codon

b)

codon; anticodon

c)

amino acid; DNA

d)

anitocodon; nucleotide

94.

Protein Synthesis is

a)

the process in which cells follow a series of steps to create proteins

b)

DNA replication -> Transcription -> Translation

c)

DNA is copied from mRNA, which is used as a template for the instructions to make protein

d)

All of the above!

95.
Why are framshift mutations harmful?
a)
They cause chromosomes to break
b)
Every amino acid following the mutation will be different
c)
They cause the DNA to relocated
d)
They burn out your clutch
96.
What situation causes a deletion?
a)
Part of the chromosome is missing
b)
Part of the chromosome is attached backwards
c)
Part of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome
d)
Part of a chromosome is duplicated 
97.
What situation causes a duplication?
a)
Part of the chromosome is missing
b)
Part of the chromosome is attached backwards
c)
Part of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome
d)
Part of a chromosome is duplicated 
98.
What situation causes an inversion ?
a)
Part of the chromosome is missing
b)
Part of the chromosome is attached backwards
c)
Part of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to a different chromosome
d)
Part of a chromosome is duplicated 
99.
What mutation would cause a protein to be shorter then normal?
a)
Insertion
b)
Start codon found
c)
Stop Codon Found
d)
Inversion
100.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
101.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
102.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
103.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
104.
This produces 2 identical cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
105.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
106.
Goes through P.M.A.T two rounds 
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Osmosis
d)
Transcription
107.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
108.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
109.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
110.

Name this phase of Meiosis

a)

Anaphase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

111.

The phase in Meiosis where crossing over occurs:

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Prophase I

c)

Prophase II

d)

Profés

112.

Name this phase of Meiosis:

a)

Telophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase II

d)

Anaphase II

113.

The phase in Meiosis in which 2 daughter cells are formed:

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Metaphase II

114.

The phase of Meiosis in which homologous pairs line up along the equator:

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Metaphase II

115.
Which of the following produces identical nuclei in cells?
a)
pollination
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
fertilization
116.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
117.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.  
a)
homozygous 
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
118.
You get one homologous chromosome from your ________ and one from your _______.  
a)
dad, mom
b)
brother, sister
c)
grandmother, grandfather
d)
dog, cat
119.
When does the nuclear membrane break down?
a)
anaphase
b)
telphase
c)
prophase
d)
metaphase
120.
Which of the following is NOT a part of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
121.
Identify the phase of mitosis
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
122.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome 
123.
When does the genetic material get replicated?
a)
G2
b)
metaphase
c)
S phase
d)
anaphase
124.
This picture shows which process?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
the cell cycle
d)
DNA Replication
125.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell ______.
a)
Grows
b)
Rests
c)
Replicates DNA
d)
Divides
126.
Mitosis results in...
a)
Four 1n cells
b)
Four 2n cells
c)
Two 1n cells
d)
Two 2n cells
127.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
 G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
128.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
129.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
130.

The structure labeled B is a(n)

a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
131.
What part of the cell cycle results in the splitting of the new cells?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
132.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
133.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
134.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
135.
Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix?
a)
Helicase
b)
Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primerase
136.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
137.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
138.

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

b)

sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

c)

sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

d)

sugar, phosphate, protein

139.

The directionality of DNA is said to be ___________, because it is side by side by goes in opposite directions.

a)

Anti-directional

b)

Parallel

c)

Anti-parallel

d)

Anti-uniform

140.

Which scientists determined the shape of DNA

a)

Francis Crick & James Watson

b)

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase

c)

Rosalind Franklin & Maurice Wilkins

141.
Who was responsible for the experiment depicted by the image/data table?
a)
Oswald Avery, et. al.
b)
Watson and Crick
c)
Erwin Chargaff
d)
Frederick Griffith
142.

Hershey-Chase experiment confirms that-

a)

Protein is genetic material, not DNA.

b)

Neither protein nor DNA is the genetic material.

c)

DNA is genetic material,not protein.

d)

Protein and DNA are genetic material.

143.

What did Avery use to destroy the protein and DNA to prove that DNA was the genetic material?

a)

Bacteriophages

b)

X-ray diffraction

c)

Enzymes

d)

Radioactive isotopes

144.
From his work with mice and pneumonia-causing bacteria, Frederick Griffin coined the term
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Transformation
d)
Translation
145.

Provided clear x-ray crystallography images of DNA

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Franklin

c)

Wilkins

d)

Pauling

e)

Chargaff

146.

Chargaff's rules state that....

a)

The amount of A's always = the amount of C's and the amount of T's always = the amount of G's.

b)

The amount of A's always = the amount of A's and the amount of C's always = the amount of C's.

c)

The amount of A's always = the amount of G's and the amount of C's always = the amount of T's.

d)

The amount of A's always = the amount of T's and the amount of C's always = the amount of G's.

147.

Look at the image of DNA, what do the circles represent?

a)

Sugars

b)

Phosphates

c)

Bases

d)

Covalent Bonds

148.

How are the base pairs held together?

(in other words, what holds the 2 strands together?)

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Complementary base pairing

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Sugar phosphate backbone

149.
Number 3
a)
Ocular Lens
b)
Objective Lens
c)
Diaphragm
d)
Base
150.
Number 10
a)
Stage
b)
Stage Clips
c)
Diaphragm
d)
Base
151.
Number 12
a)
Course Adjustment
b)
Fine Adjustment
c)
Small Adjuster
d)
Large Adjuster
152.
What will be the total magnification if ocular lens is 10X and objective lens is 4X?
a)
4X
b)
40X
c)
10X
d)
100X
153.

What objective lens do you start with when using a microscope?

a)

High

b)

Medium

c)

Low

154.

Never use this knob/adjuster on high power.

a)

Fine focus

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Course focus

155.

If you wanted to center the image what direction would you move your slide in?

a)

Down and left

b)

Down and right

c)

Up and left

d)

Up and right

156.
If you move the slide left while viewing, in which direction will it appear to move?
a)
right 
b)
left
c)
up 
d)
down
157.
If you move the slide down while viewing, in which direction will it appear to move?
a)
right 
b)
left
c)
up 
d)
down
158.
Which part is the lighted area you see when looking through the eyepiece?
a)
coarse adjustment knob
b)
diaphragm
c)
field-of-view
d)
revolving nosepiece
159.
The ________ of the microscope would show you the SMALLEST field of view.
a)
low power objective
b)
medium power objective
c)
high power objective
d)
ocular
160.
When you viewed the letter "e" under the microscope, what did you observe?
a)
"e" was only backwards
b)
"e" was only upside down
c)
"e" was backwards and upside down
d)
"e" looked the same

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