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nutrition

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A high yielding dairy cow has an increased demand for ....... in her daily ration

a)

MP

b)

NPN

c)

RDP

d)

UDP

2.

Typical living circumstances of rumen flora and fauna

a)

strictly anaerobic system

b)

continuous acid production

c)

almost constant pH

d)

all

3.

The energy requirement of ruminants is expressed with this unit of measure

a)

MJ/kg feed

b)

MJ/kd DM

c)

kJ/kg DM

d)

MJ/day

4.

When using the proximate analysis of feeds, it is calculated (not chemically determined) value of the feed

a)

Water content

b)

nitrogen-free extract (NE)

c)

Both

d)

neither

5.

It close-up dry cows, the negative DCAD diet

a)

increases blood Ca levels by mobilisation Ca from bone and increased absorption from the gut

b)

reduces blood Ca levels by mobilisation Ca from bone and excreting through the kidneys

c)

increases blood calcium levels by higher reabsorption of phosphorus through kidneys

d)

reduces blood calcium levels by reduced absorption of calcium from the intestine and increased gastrointestinal loss

6.

Disease caused by selenium deficiency

a)

White muscle disease

b)

lethal acrodermatitis

c)

alimentary infertility

d)

alkali disease

7.

CAB value reflects the effects of ...... on the acid-base status

a)

Dietary organic cations and anions

b)

dietary inorganic cations and anions

c)

both of organic and inorganic cations and anions

d)

dietary supplements

8.

in this animal, the blood serum is used to control the beta-carotene supply

a)

sheep

b)

horse

c)

both

d)

neither

9.

it can be used for flushing in sows

a)

Mg

b)

Vitamin C

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Biotin

10.

its quantity in the feed is determined by Kjeldahl methods

a)

Nitrogen-free extract (NfE）

b)

Ether extract (EE)

c)

crude protein (CP)

d)

crude fibre (CF)

11.

what is the meaning of RDP

a)

readily digestibel polysaccharide

b)

rapidly degradable protein

c)

rumen degradable polysacharide

d)

rumen degradable protein

12.

in case of lactic acidosis these bacteria are dominant in the rumen

a)

ruminobacter amylophylus

b)

ruminococcus albus

c)

streptococcus bovis

d)

all

13.

the ...... paper contains the priority of EU's food safety policy

a)

blue

b)

yellow

c)

white

d)

red

14.

the most important anti-nutritive factors in full fat soybean are

a)

goitrogens

b)

tannic acid

c)

trypsin inhibitor

d)

gossypols

15.

which statement is false for green forages

a)

these are cheap and palatable feeds

b)

their nutrient contents quite variable

c)

with the maturity, the digestibility of their nutrient contents improves

d)

these are generally low in readily available carbohydrates

16.

characteristics of silage making

a)

conservation by aerobic fermentation

b)

high-moisture forage conserved

c)

acetic acid produced mainly

d)

chopping followed by wilting

17.

which vitamin does not have an energy-releasing function

a)

vitamin B1

b)

vitamin b2

c)

vitamin b6

d)

biotin

18.

if wet beet pulp is given to the dairy cow, the daily ration must supplemented with

a)

protein

b)

fibr

c)

both

d)

neither

19.

these feedstuffs, that is the limiting essential aminoacid

a)

Lys

b)

Trp

c)

Met

d)

Thr

20.

This mycotoxin has a pronounced immunosuppressive effects

a)

T-2

b)

DON

c)

Both

d)

neither

21.

biochemical marker used for control of specific mineral supply

a)

selenium

b)

vitamin b6

c)

ferritin

d)

coeruloplasmin

22.

what is this feedstuff

a)

wheat bran

b)

brewer grain

c)

mal sprout

d)

extracted sunflower meal

23.

which statement is false

a)

EU's food safety policy is to keep contaminants away from feed

b)

The feed safety does not consider the hazards caused by new and unconventional agro-industrial by products

c)

feed can cause the contamination of foods

d)

consignment of non-animal origin feeds have not controlled by TRAECES

24.

it can bind mycotoxins (ex: Aflatoxin)

a)

Zoelite

b)

ZnO

c)

MgO

d)

Lecithin

25.

the pH of cron silage is

a)

always higher than that of alfalfa haylage

b)

as much as that of alfalfa haylage

c)

always lower than that of alfalfa haylage

d)

lower than of alfalfa haylage if it has been wilted

26.

both UDP and by-pass fat sources

a)

raw full-fat soybean meal

b)

heat treated extracted soybean meal

c)

hot pressed rapeseed cake

d)

all

27.

these are the consequences of high-concentrate ration of racehorse

a)

lower DCAB, increased blood pH

b)

lower DCAB, decreased blood pH

c)

higher DCAB, increased blood pH

d)

higher DCAB, decreased blood pH

28.

concentrated feeds is/are the following

a)

dried whey powder

b)

brewers grain

c)

dehydrated alfalfa meal

d)

all

29.

the approximate daily amount of meadow hay for a horse is

a)

3-4 kg

b)

5 kg

c)

10 kg

d)

15 kg

30.

one of its toxicity syndromes is exostosis on cervical vertebrae in cats

a)

Ca

b)

P

c)

vitamin b12

d)

vitamin A

31.

Physiological functions of the intestine flora

a)

degradation of bile salts

b)

production of volatile fatty acid

c)

both

d)

neither

32.

the chemical score (CS) reflects

a)

crude protein content of the feedstuff

b)

digestible crude protein of the feedstuff

c)

amino acid contein of the feed protein

d)

quantity of one essential aminoacid in the feed protein

33.

non-infectious abortion may be caused by

a)

glucans of barley

b)

pentosans of rye

c)

endophytes of fescue grass

d)

acetic acid content of corn silage

34.

the application of long-term control of feed intake in dairy cows can be used to prevent

a)

low milk fat syndrome

b)

rumen acidosis

c)

milk fever

d)

ketosis

35.

calculation of the apparent digestibility of nutrients

a)

nutrient intake divided by absorbed nutrients

b)

absorbed nutrients divided by nutrient intake

c)

nutrient intake minus nutrient output

d)

nutrient intake divided by nutrient output

36.

antinutritive effect of lectins

a)

may cause bitter taste, feed refusal

b)

reduced enzymatic protein digestion

c)

binds to intestinal epithelial cells, may cause alimental allergy

d)

binds phosphorus and thus it cannot be absorbed

37.

role of omega 3 fatty acid in chronic disease

a)

reduces production of omega 6 fatty acid, thereby producion of arachidonic acid

b)

precursor of arachidonic acid assisting in immune response

c)

has a prothobin effects

d)

reduces EPA and DHA levels, thereby reducing the production of arachidonic acid

38.

what is/are the physiological effect/s of yeast in rumen

a)

oxygen scavenging

b)

consumption

c)

stimulating of lactic acid consuming bacteria

d)

all

39.

role of glutamine supplementation in critical illness

a)

glucogenic, improves energy balance

b)

assists in renal ammonia genesis during increased protein metabolism

c)

gluconeogenic metabolite, helps to store glycogen in the liver

d)

reduces glutathione synthesis

40.

in the metabolizable protein system, the energy supply of rumen microbes is expressed by

a)

metabolizable organic matter

b)

digestible energy

c)

metabolizable energy

d)

fermentable organic matter

41.

characteristics of voluminous feeds

a)

high energy content related to volume

b)

low dry matter content related to volume

c)

high dry matter content related to the moisture content

d)

low dry matter content related to the moisture content

42.

onset of puberty is closely correlated to

a)

protein supply

b)

energy supply

c)

vitamin supply

d)

essential fatty acid supply

43.

to formulate a ration in dairy cows, the following data are needed

a)

BW

b)

Milk protein content

c)

milk fat content

d)

All

44.

what is the limiting/anti-nutritive factor of extracted sunflower meal

a)

goitrogens

b)

erucic acid

c)

Met

d)

crude fibre content

45.

if strong ion difference is increased

a)

there is a compensatory decrease in the ammount of bicarbonate and metabolic alkalosis occurs

b)

there is a compensatory increase in the ammount of bicarbonate and metabolic acidosis occurs

c)

there is a compensatory increase in the ammount of bicarbonate and metabolic alkalosis occurs

d)

there is a compensatory decrease in the ammount of bicarbonate and metabolic acidosis occurs

46.

among cereal grains, oats are relatively high in

a)

ether extract

b)

crude fiber

c)

both

d)

neither

47.

the beta-carotene content of alfalfa hay can be decreased mostly by

a)

cell respiration

b)

plant enzyme

c)

sun light

d)

raining

48.

urea supplementation can be applied if

a)

protein balance is positive

b)

protein balance is zero

c)

protein balance is negative

d)

energy excess is in the small intestine

49.

urea supplement is used as a source of

a)

CP

b)

NPN

c)

MPE

d)

UDP

50.

If the feeding level=1, it means that

a)

animal is fed on the maintenance energy level

b)

GE content of feed = DE conten of feed

c)

faecal energy loss = urinary energy loss

d)

transformation factor (k) of ME when concerted to NEm

51.

which of the following additives will be banned in the EU by 2022

a)

Hormones

b)

CuSO4

c)

ZnO

d)

Organic selenium

52.

abortion may be caused by the following mycotoxinc/s

a)

F-2

b)

T-2

c)

Both

d)

neither

53.

the appropriate ratio of dietary copper to zinc is important in the

a)

development of the orthopaedic system

b)

developmen of the urogenital system

c)

production of milk

d)

proper function of the cardiovascular system

54.

which statement is correct

a)

DE=GE minus urinary and gaseous energy loss

b)

DE=ME minus heat increment

c)

DE=ME minus GE

d)

DE=GE minus faecal energy loss

55.

feature/s of dried sugar beet

a)

it contains well digestible CF

b)

swelling in the stomach

c)

both

d)

neither

56.

probiotics are

a)

live mirobial food supplements supporting eubiosis

b)

specific type for selective bacterial fermentation

c)

carbohydrates which cannot be fermented by intestinal bacteria

d)

live microbial food supplements producing antibiotic like metabolites

57.

in dairy cow the energy requirement for the maintenance is expressed by

a)

NEm

b)

NEl

c)

NEm+NEg

d)

MEm

58.

hay is important in prevention of

a)

Gastic ulcer in horse

b)

rumen acidosis in cattle

c)

diarrhea in rabbits

d)

all

59.

after calving the obese condition of dairy cows

a)

lengthens the interval to first ovulation

b)

increases the appetite

c)

both

d)

neither

60.

Iron supplementation is necessary in

a)

piglets

b)

foals

c)

calves

d)

all

61.

decreased vitamin E content of feeds resulted by rancidity can lead to

a)

white muscle disease in lambs

b)

motor-neuron disease in horses

c)

encephalomalacia in chickens

d)

all

62.

in dairy cows, the post-partum hypocalcemia may result in

a)

displaced abomasum

b)

retained placenta

c)

milk fever

d)

all

63.

these nutrients will be determined by the proximate analysis

a)

Crude fibre (CF)

b)

CF+NDF

c)

CF+NDF+ADF

d)

CF+NDF+ADF+ADL

64.

what is behind the pregnancy toxaemia in ewes

a)

protein overfeeding

b)

mycotoxins (DON)

c)

heavy metals

d)

energy deficiency

65.

the phytic acid content of cereal grains have a significant effect on phosphorus bioavailability in the following animals

a)

goats

b)

broilers

c)

dairy cow

d)

all

66.

dietary NDF content involved

a)

hemicellulose

b)

hemicellulose + cellulose

c)

hemicellulose + cellulose + lignin

d)

hemicellulose + cellulose + lignin + crude fibre

67.

DE content of a feed is originated from

a)

digestible nutrients

b)

digestible nutrients * simple nutrients

c)

digestible nutrients / simple nutrients

d)

GE+digestible nutrients

68.

hot-pressed rapeseed cake is fed as an

a)

energy source

b)

UDP source

c)

Both

d)

neither

69.

the effect of mycotoxin containmination can be reduced by

a)

heat treatment of feedstuffs

b)

chemical treatment of feedstuffs

c)

adding binding materials

d)

all

70.

which of the statement is not true for legume seeds

a)

the protein content of pea is the lowest

b)

the nutrient content of lupin is closest to that of pea

c)

they are relatively low in sulphur containing amino acid

d)

many of the antinutritive factors of soy are heat labile

71.

quality of silage depends on

a)

chop length

b)

DM content of feedstuff

c)

Both

d)

neither

72.

hay steamer is used to

a)

decrease the mold content of the hay

b)

decrease the dust content of the hay

c)

decrease the bacteria number of the hay

d)

all

73.

that type of protein evaluation of feeds is based on the nitrogen retention of the animal

a)

biological value (BV)

b)

essential amino acid indexe (EAA-index)

c)

pepsin digest residue (PRD)

d)

chemical score (CS)

74.

feeding whole corn to horses (40% DM in daily ration)

a)

increases the energy intake and heat production during winter

b)

can cause dysbiosis and diarrhea

c)

can cause abortion

d)

increase daily water comsuption

75.

which statement is true for haylage

a)

it has higher DM content than silage

b)

it has higher acetic acid content than silage

c)

its production is cheaper and less complex than that of silage

d)

its structural fibre content is lower than that of silage

76.

the possible effect/s of nitrate toxicity

a)

reduced DMI

b)

Higher incidence of abortion

c)

both

d)

neither

77.

this mycotoxin primarily damages the liver

a)

Aflatoxin

b)

Fumonisin B1

c)

Ochratoxin

d)

F-2

78.

which statement is correct

a)

overweight of the animal decreases the leptin production

b)

overweight of the animal increases the leptin production

c)

overweight of the animal increases the amount of NPY

d)

increasement of the size of adipocytes decreases the leptin production

79.

its deficiency may reduce the fertility in cattle

a)

Mg

b)

Mn

c)

Mo

d)

K

80.

vitamin D is considered as an immune modulator because it

a)

has antioxidant capacity

b)

enhances macrophage differentiation

c)

enhances dendritic cell maturation

d)

decrease chemotaxis

81.

he oat protein contains 3% of lys, while the egg protein contain 7% of lys. how to calculate the chemical score (CS) of oat protein for lys

a)

3*7

b)

7+3

c)

3/7

d)

7/3

82.

the possible effect/s of vitamin E and Se deficiency in cattle

a)

embryo mortality

b)

reduced production of vitamin A binding protein (ABP)

c)

both

d)

neither

83.

alfalfa hay shouldn't be given to a dry cow because

a)

it is too low in K but high in protein

b)

it is too high in Ca and K

c)

it is too high in Ca but low in K

d)

it is too high in Ca, K and P

84.

Their proteins requirements are expressed by UDP

a)

pigs

b)

poultries

c)

cattle

d)

none

85.

they are required for the microbial protein synthesis in the rumen

a)

UDP+FOM

b)

RDP+FOM

c)

UDP+RDP+FOM

d)

UDP+RDP

86.

Due to the enhanced protein requirement of a high-yielding dairy cow it has to be increased

a)

RDP content of the ratio

b)

UDP content of the ratio

c)

NPN content of the ratio

d)

Both RDP and NPN content of the ratio

87.

their protein requirements are expressed by digestible crude protein

a)

pig

b)

poultries

c)

both

d)

neither

88.

which statement is correct

a)

the total calcium content of blood plasma is not affected by hypoalbuminermia

b)

the total calcium content of blood plasma is increased by hypoalbuminemia

c)

the total calcium content of blood plasma is reduced by hypoalbuminermia

d)

the total calcium content of blood plasma is not related to the protein losing enteropathy

89.

which of the statements is correct

a)

phytin-phosphate is absorbed well, its presence is favourable to P-supply

b)

phytin-phosphate is absorbed unwell but its prescence causes hyperphosphatemia in monogastric species

c)

phytin-phosphate is absorbed unwell in the ruminants in contract to the monogastric animals

d)

phytin-phophate is absorbed unwell, its presence in the ruminants rumen is not necessarily associated with hypophosphatemia due to presence of the phytase enzyme

90.

in the case of concentrated feeds

a)

high digestible orgainic matter content is related to the volume

b)

high digestible orgainic matter content is related to the dry matter content

c)

high digestible orgainic matter content is related to the moisture content

d)

high energy content is related to the fibre content

91.

NPN supplement can be given if

a)

CP-MP=negative

b)

MEP-MPN=negative

c)

MPN-MPE=negative

d)

RPD-UDP=negative

92.

they have both anti-nutritive and immunostimulant effects

a)

beta-glucans of barley

b)

pentosans of rye

c)

both

d)

neither

93.

during hay making, the plant cell respiration reduced the content of

a)

moisture

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

all

94.

in the case of eubiosis in the animals intestinal flora

a)

90% main flora

b)

50% concomitant flora

c)

10% residual flora

d)

neither

95.

which statement is correct

a)

DE=GE-faecal energy loss

b)

ME=DE-faecal energy loss

c)

NEm=DE-urinary and faecal energy loss

d)

NEg=DE-heat loss

96.

RDP overfeeding reduces

a)

Quantity of sperm cell

b)

lifespan of embryo

c)

conception rate

d)

all

97.

they belong to the voluminous feed

a)

Green alfalfa

b)

green alfalfa + corn silage

c)

green alfalfa + corn silage + meadow hay

d)

green alfalfa + corn silage + meadow hay + extracted sunflower meal

98.

which feed additive will be phased out in the EU by 2022

a)

Copper sulphate

b)

magnesium oxide

c)

magnesium sulphate

d)

zinc oxide

99.

which statement is correct?

a)

the wheat bran has a higher protein content than that of wheat germ

b)

the wheat bran has a higher ether extract content than that of wheat germ

c)

the wheat bran has a higher fibre content than that of wheat germ

d)

the wheat bran has a higher energy content than of wheat germ

100.

what causes the DOD (developmental orthopaedic disease) in large-breed puppies

a)

excess Ca intake

b)

excess vitamin D intake

c)

excess energy and nutrient intake

d)

Ca, P and vitamin D deficiencies

101.

Crude fibre (CF) determination is based on the following method

a)

boiling of the feed in a weak acid solution

b)

boiling of the feed in a weak alkaline solution

c)

boiling of the feed in a weak acid solution then in weak alkali solution

d)

boiling of the feed in a weak acid solution then in weak alkali solution followed by neutral treatment

102.

it is/ they are rich in linoleic acid

a)

corn

b)

soybean

c)

both

d)

neither

103.

which volatile FA is the most important metabolic substance of the rumen cellulolytic bacteria

a)

propionic acid

b)

lactic acid

c)

butyric acid

d)

acetic acid

104.

the microscopial qualification of feedstuffs can be used to recognise the contamination/s caused by

a)

ergot particles

b)

moulds

c)

insects

d)

all

105.

if the digestibility of dietary crude protein (CP) is 80%, it means

a)

80% of the consumed CP builds in the body tissue

b)

80% of the consumed CP has been absorbed

c)

80% of the absorbed CP builds in the body tissue

d)

only 20% of the consumed CP has been lost via urine

106.

Which statement is false

a)

The EU's food safety policy is comprehensive and integrated

b)

the success of the EU's food safety policy demands greated responsibility, traceability and transparency

c)

Official food safety controls are established only in the external border countries of the EU

d)

consumers must be provided with essential information

107.

what is the limiting essential amino acid in this feedstuff

a)

Lys

b)

Met

c)

Thr

d)

Trp

108.

In dairy cows, the beta-carotene deficiency may

a)

prelong the oestrus period

b)

increase the embryo motality

c)

both

d)

neither

109.

what parameter/s must be considered to formulate daily rations in daily cows

a)

number of lactation

b)

period of lactation

c)

milk sugar content

d)

all

110.

the following feedstuffs are ...... by products

a)

milling

b)

starch industry

c)

brewery

d)

distillery

111.

EU measures have established maximum levels for the following contaminants

a)

erucic acid

b)

nitrates

c)

both

d)

neither

112.

the acid load of animals is decreased if the daily ration has high

a)

P

b)

Cl

c)

Ca

d)

S

113.

microorganisms on feedstuffs require 14-25% humidity

a)

deposite fungi

b)

field fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

protozoa

114.

leptin is

a)

an anabolic peptide

b)

a catabolic peptide

c)

a hormone released from the fat cells

d)

a hormone released from the hypothalamus

115.

during oxidative rancidity, these compounds cause the characteristic rancid odour

a)

fatty acids

b)

peroxides

c)

aldehyde

d)

glycerides

116.

vitamin C deficiency may result in

a)

shortening of tibia in guinea pigs

b)

cage layer fatigue in laying hens

c)

both

d)

neither

117.

which feedstuff can be seen in the picture

a)

extracted soybean meal

b)

extracted rapeseed meal

c)

corn germ

d)

brewers grains

118.

metabolizable protein is used for expressing the protein requirements of

a)

lactating mares

b)

lactating sows

c)

dairy goats

d)

all

119.

pregnancy toxaemia in ewes is caused by

a)

energy deficiency

b)

protein deficiency

c)

vitamin and mineral deficiencies

d)

peroxide loading

120.

its/their CP content is 35-50%

a)

full fat soya

b)

hot/cold-pressed cake

c)

extracted meals

d)

corn gluten

121.

maintenance energy requirement of dairy cow is expressed by

a)

ME

b)

NEm

c)

NEl

d)

ME+NEm

122.

its/their color reflects the heat damage

a)

DDGS

b)

Skim milk powder

c)

hay

d)

all

123.

it's determined by in vitro enzymatic method

a)

essential amino avid index (EAA)

b)

protein efficiency ratio (PER)

c)

both

d)

Neither

124.

in the case of sows, low-DCAD-value diets

a)

reduce the size of following litter

b)

increase the pH of the urine

c)

reduce the risk of urinary tract infection

d)

improve ovulation

125.

calculation of the biological value (BV)

a)

retained N per N-intake

b)

Facal N per N-intake

c)

both

d)

neither

126.

which statement is correct

a)

forages always have higher P content than Ca

b)

Forages always have higher Ca content than P

c)

grasses should be cut at bud stage

d)

legumes shoud be cut at boot stage

127.

which statement is false

a)

lactulose selectively stimulate the growth of bacteria in the colon

b)

inulin improves the intestinal microbial balance in host animals

c)

plant extracts can increase the activity of endogenous digestive enzymes

d)

acidifier can be used to decrease the gastric pH in piglets

128.

it is found primarily on corn, causing leukoencephalomalacia in horse

a)

aflatoxin

b)

satratoxin

c)

fumonisine

d)

slaframine

129.

it can cause uterus prolapse and vulvar oedema in swine

a)

fumonisine

b)

zearalenone

c)

aflatoxin

d)

vomitoxin

130.

dietary factor increasing the buffering capacity in ensiling process

a)

protein content

b)

alkali metals

c)

both

d)

neither

131.

feeding of young green forages can cause

a)

diarrhea

b)

toxicosis

c)

deficiencies

d)

all

132.

the approximate daily amount of maize silage for dairy cows is

a)

5-10 kg

b)

10-15 kg

c)

20-30 kg

d)

30-35 kg

133.

which statement/s is/are correct for the feedstuff shown by the picture

a)

its readily available carbohydrate content is mostly starch

b)

its fibre content is easily digestible

c)

both

d)

neither

134.

its amount can be up to 40% in diets for monogastric animals

a)

soybean

b)

extracted soybean meal

c)

extracted sunflower meal

d)

cold-pressed rapeseed meal

135.

it improves wound healing, promotes scar formation

a)

vitamin A

b)

vitamin C

c)

vitamin D

d)

Vitamin B6

136.

if the body condition below the optimum

a)

the re-breeding time is lengthened

b)

the conception rate is decreased

c)

both

d)

neither

137.

the CP content of cereal grains

a)

5-10%

b)

10-15%

c)

15-20%

d)

20-25%

138.

determination of Nitrogen-free extract (NfE) is based on

a)

calculation by using data obatined from proximate analysis

b)

calculation by proximate analysis

c)

calculation by using data obtained from kjeldahl method

d)

calculated by using data obtained from the Soxhlet method

139.

NPN means

a)

nitrogen-provided nucleosides

b)

non-protein nitrates

c)

non-protein nitrogen

d)

net protein nitrogen

140.

taurine deficiency may cause ..... in cats

a)

acyclic ovarian function

b)

reduced conception rate

c)

embryo motality

d)

all

141.

characteristics of the microbial flora in the large intestine

a)

produces vitamin B

b)

impairs the utility of nutrients

c)

produces toxin

d)

promotes the colonisation of pathogenic bacteria

142.

which animal origin protein source can be given to pigs

a)

fish meal

b)

insect protein

c)

both

d)

neither

143.

it is a collection of standards and guideline for the health protection of consumers

a)

which paper

b)

codex alimentarius

c)

EFSA's scientific reports

d)

HACCP system

144.

descending ulcerative dermatitis is caused by .... deficiency in poultries

a)

vitamin B6

b)

biotin

c)

pantothenic acid

d)

neither

145.

its deficiency may result in curled toe disease in broilers

a)

biotin

b)

vitamin B2

c)

Mn

d)

Cu

146.

as a result of urea supplementation of the daily ration in ruminant spps, the following compounds can be produced

a)

utilizable protein

b)

undegradable protein

c)

microbial protein

d)

utilizable protein + undegradable protein

147.

they have a strong proinflammatory effect and are predominantly found in the lamina propria layer of the GI tract

a)

Th1 cell

b)

Th2 cell

c)

Th10 cell

d)

Th17 cell

148.

which is/are the parts of GI tract from an immunoprotective point of view

a)

cellular

b)

humoral

c)

microbial

d)

all

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