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RAD 115 Exam 5 Review

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is #7 identifying?
a)
Ischial Tuberosity
b)
Iliac Crest
c)
Acetabulum
d)
Obturator Foramen
2.
What is #3 identifying?
a)
Femoral Neck
b)
Femoral Head
c)
Lesser Trochanter
d)
Greater Trochanter
3.
What is #1 identifying?
a)
Iliopsoas
b)
ASIS
c)
Iliac Crest
d)
Ischial Tuberosity
4.

What is A?

a)

Femur

b)

Pelvis

c)

Pubis

d)

Ilium

e)

Ischium

5.

What is B?

a)

Coccyx

b)

Sacrum

c)

Pubis

d)

Femur

6.

The double pointed prominence on the proximal surface of the tibia is called the:

a)

Intercondylar eminence

b)

Tibial Tuberosity

c)

Tibial epicondlye

d)

Trochlear grove

7.

The flat articular surface at the proximal end of the tibia is called the:

a)

Femoral Condyle

b)

Tibial Condyle

c)

Tibial Plateau

d)

Medial Meniscus

8.

To correct this image:

a)

Internally rotate leg

b)

Externally rotate leg

c)

Increase SID

d)

Tube angle caudad

9.

This position is

a)

Modified Cleaves

b)

Clements-Nakayama

c)

Judet

d)

Taylor

10.

Which bones fuse to form the acetabulum?

a)

Ischium and pubis

b)

Ilium and ischium

c)

Pubis, ilium, and sacrum

d)

Ischium, pubis, and ilium

11.

The symphysis pubis provides limited movement during pelvic trauma and during:

a)

labor and delivery.

b)

voiding.

c)

flexing and extending.

d)

walking and running.

12.

Select the correct gender to correspond with the following pelvic characteristics. Wider and shallow general shape of pelvis:

a)

Male

b)

Female

13.

What is the amount of abduction of the femurs recommended for an AP bilateral frog-leg (modified Cleaves) projection?

a)

10 to 15 degrees

b)

50 to 60 degrees

c)

40 to 45 degrees

d)

90 degrees

14.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the posterior column and anterior column of the pelvis and acetabulum?

a)

Posterior oblique (Judet method)

b)

AP axial (Taylor method)

c)

RPO and LPO projections

d)

Modified axiolateral (Clements-Nakayama method)

15.

A radiograph of an AP pelvis reveals that the lesser trochanters are not visualized. This pelvis projection was performed for nontraumatic reasons. What should the technologist do (if anything) to correct this on the repeat exposure?

a)

Rotate the lower limbs more internally 15 to 20 degrees.

b)

Do nothing. Accept the radiograph and do not repeat the exposure.

c)

Ensure that the ASIS is an equal distance from the tabletop.

d)

Angle the CR 10- to 15-degree cephalad.

16.

A radiograph of an AP pelvis reveals that the right iliac wing is foreshortened as compared with the left side. What specific positioning problem is present on this radiograph?

a)

Left rotation

b)

Right rotation

c)

Right tilt

d)

Incorrect CR centering or angulation

17.

A patient enters the ER with a possible pelvic ring fracture due to an MVA. The initial pelvis projections do not reveal any fracture or dislocation, but the ER physician is concerned about a possible right acetabular fracture. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the right acetabulum?

a)

AP axial inlet projection

b)

Axiolateral inferosuperior projection (Danelius-Miller method)

c)

Modified axiolateral projection (Clements-Nakayama method)

d)

Posterior oblique pelvis projection (Judet method)

18.

How much knee flexion is required for the weight-bearing PA axial projection (Rosenberg method) of the knee?

a)

None. The knee is fully extended

b)

30-degree flexion

c)

45-degree flexion

d)

50- to 60-degree flexion

19.

Which of the following is NOT used to visualize the intercondylar fossa.

a)

Camp Coventry

b)

Rosenberg

c)

Hughson

d)

Beclere

20.

The area of interest is the proximal tibiofibular joint and the fibular neck. Which of the following should the technologist obtain?

a)

lateral oblique knee

b)

medial oblique knee

c)

PA axial intercondylar fossa

d)

lateral knee