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Biology Final

Total questions: 202

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which tool is most likely to be used to produce a clear image of very tiny structures inside a cell?

a)

Light Microscope

b)

Magnetic resonance imaging

c)

Electron microscope

d)

Computer Mode

2.

The cells in your body need nutrients and other materials to stay alive. To be used b your cells, the materials must be?

a)

Slightly acidic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Dissolved in fluid

d)

Transgenic

3.

The specialized structures of different types of cells are related to the cell's?

a)

Equilibrium

b)

Energy

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Function

4.

The image related shows part of a polypeptide, an ordered string of amino acids. One or more polypeptides forms?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Lipid

5.

Organisms must maintain homeostasis because cells function best when internal conditions

a)

Change at regular intervals

b)

Remain within a limited range

c)

Reflect external conditions

d)

Respond to positive feedback

6.

Atoms are not composed of

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Chemical Bonds

7.

The smallest particle of matter that can retain the chemical properties of carbon is a carbon

a)

Molecule

b)

Macromolecule

c)

Atom

d)

Element

8.

All matter is composed of

a)

Cells

b)

Molecules

c)

Atoms

d)

Carbon

9.

Ionic bonds form between particles that have

a)

Opposite charges

b)

The same charge

c)

No charges

d)

Neutral Charges

10.

Attractions between water molecules are called

a)

covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

polar bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

11.

Hydronium ions react with hydroxide ions to form

a)

water

b)

an acid

c)

a base

d)

a buffer

12.

Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates

a)

Amino acids

b)

fats

c)

nucelotides

d)

sugars

13.

Polysaccharides are

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

14.

Refer to the picture, this molecule is a?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

15.

Plants store glucose in the form of

a)

starch

b)

glycogen

c)

cellulose

d)

chitin

16.

Lipids are

a)

soluble in water

b)

made of chains of amino acids

c)

linked together with peptide bonds

d)

used by the body for storing energy

17.

All of the following are examples of lipids except

a)

oil

b)

starch

c)

steroids

d)

candle wax

18.

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?

a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

nuceloetides

d)

sugars

19.

The amino group of one amino acid is linked to the carboxyl group of another amino acid in a protein this link is a?

a)

peptide bond

b)

hydrogen bond

c)

ionic bond

d)

polar bond

20.

Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?

a)

amino acids

b)

fats

c)

nucelotides

d)

sugars

21.

DNA stores?

a)

fat

b)

carbohydrates

c)

energy

d)

hereditary information

22.

The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by

a)

ionic bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

hydrogen bonds

d)

peptide bonds

23.

The law of conservation of energy states that energy cannot be

a)

changed from one form to another

b)

taken from the surroundings in a reaction

c)

released into the surroundings in a reaction

d)

created or destroyed in a chemical reaction

24.

A chemical reaction will probably occur between two substrate molecules if they

a)

are far apart

b)

are aligned in the wrong spatial orientation

c)

have large amounts of kinetic energy

d)

have little kinetic energy

25.

An enzyme

a)

is used up in a reaction

b)

raises the activation energy of a reaction

c)

bonds with an active site on a substrate molecule

d)

lowers the activation energy of a reaction

26.

A cell contains

a)

thousands of different kinds of enzymes each assisting in a different chemical reaction

b)

one kind of enzyme that assists in thousands of different chemical reactions

c)

approximately 100 kinds of enzymes, each assisting in a different chemical reaction

d)

one enzyme that assists in reactions involving protein substrates and one enzyme that assists in reactions involving substrates that are not proteins

27.

When the volume of a cell increases, its surface area

a)

increases at the same rate

b)

remains the same

c)

increases at a faster rate

d)

increases at a slower rate

28.

Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because

a)

the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large

b)

materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large

c)

the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes

d)

waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small

29.

Studies of fossils of dinosaurs and birds show that

a)

feathers may not be an important different between dinosaurs and birds

b)

dinosaurs can be considered to be modern descendants of birds

c)

the anatomies of the dinosaurs and birds are unrelated.

d)

dinosaurs and birds share many analogous characters

30.

a model used by biologists to represent evolutionary history among species is called a

a)

phylogram

b)

cladogram

c)

histogram

d)

paralletogram

31.

sponges are animals that were once classified as

a)

bacteria

b)

fungi

c)

plants

d)

protists

32.

which of the following characteristics was used to reclassify sponges

a)

body type

b)

cell type

c)

cell walls

d)

nutrition

33.

the kingdoms eubacteria and archaebacteria were once grouped in a kingdom called

a)

Protisia

b)

animalia

c)

monera

d)

plantae

34.

four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include

a)

plants

b)

fungi

c)

animals

d)

prokarytoes

35.

which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organism

a)

archaea and animalia

b)

animalia and fungi

c)

protists and bacteria

d)

protista and fungi

36.

Bacteria: Prokaryotes

a)

Fungi:prokaryotes

b)

Animalia: prokaryotes

c)

Protista:eukaryotes

d)

Archaea:eukaryotes

37.

One difference between plants and animals is that Plants are

a)

prokaryotic and animals are eukaryotic

b)

eukaryotic and animals are prokaryotic

c)

autotrophs & animals are heterotrophs

d)

Heterotrophs & animals are autotrophs

38.

A layer of ozone in the atmosphere was critical to the formation of life on land because

a)

land plants need ozone for photosynthesis

b)

there is high concentration of ozone in the oceans

c)

ozone is necessary in order to produce oxygen

d)

ozone blocks ultraviolet radiation

39.

The first organisms to populate the surface of the land were

a)

bacteria & plants

b)

plants & animals

c)

plants & fungi

d)

bacteria & fungi

40.

All of the major phyla of animals on Earth today evolved

a)

in the air

b)

after the five mass extinctions took place

c)

during the Cambrian period

d)

prior to the appearance of protists

41.

While there was no soil present, plants were able to invade the surface of the ancient Earth because they

a)

were supported by inserts

b)

extracted minerals from protists

c)

cold obtain extra nitrogen from the rock dust

d)

formed a symbiotic partnership with fungi

42.

the first animals to invade the land were the

a)

amphibians

b)

arthropods

c)

reptiles

d)

protists

43.

Taxonomy is

a)

the study of life

b)

the science of naming & classifying organisms

c)

the evolutionary history of a species

d)

the sequence in which different groups evolved

44.

In the Linnaean system of classification , the level that identifies one unique organism is the

a)

kingdom

b)

family

c)

genus

d)

species

45.

Similar genera are grouped into a

a)

phylum

b)

class

c)

family

d)

order

46.

Similar features that evolve through convergent evolution are called

a)

analogous characters

b)

homologous characters

c)

environmental characters

d)

genetic characters

47.

Protists:Precambrian

a)

flowering plants:Mesozoic

b)

Paleozoic:fishes

c)

Bacteria:Protists

d)

Fungi: Land Plants

48.

Which of the following statements is the best summary of the importance of the Miller-Urey experiments?

a)

They showed that organic compounds can form chemical reactions of inorganic gases in a certain kind of enviroment

b)

They helped scientists eliminate the possibility that early building blocks of life could have formed naturally on the early Earth

c)

They proved that the atmosphere on the early Earth consisted of the same mixture of gases that was used in their experiment

d)

They are the only experiments that were conducted to test possibility explanations of the origin of organic compounds on Earth

49.

Meteorites have provided evidence that supports the possibility that organic compounds

a)

consist of amino acids

b)

are the building block of life

c)

came to Earth from space

d)

could not have formed naturally on Earth

50.

Which of the following molecules led scientists to explore the role of RNA in the origin of life

a)

enzymes

b)

ribozymes

c)

proteins

d)

phospholipids

51.

The fossil record consists mostly of traces of once-living organisms that were preserved in

a)

Sedimentary Rock

b)

metamorphic Rock

c)

one geologic column

d)

one kind fossil

52.

All of the following are steps in the formation of a fossil except

a)

complete consumption of a dead organism by decomposers

b)

gradual decay and dissolution of parts of a buried organism

c)

slow filling of a cast of a buried organism by minerals

d)

rapid burial of a dead organism by sediments

53.

An important tool in the practice of relative dating is the use of

a)

Radioisotopes

b)

Ribozymes

c)

Index Fossils

d)

Molecular structures

54.

Index Fossils: relative dating

a)

bacteria : oxygen formation

b)

relative dating: cast fossils

c)

eukaryotes: archaes

d)

radioisotopes: absolute dating

55.

Cyanobacteria changed Earths atmosphere as they carried out the process of

a)

atmospheric bonding

b)

photosynthesis

c)

nitrogen synthesis

d)

gradulism

56.

The interior of the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane forms a nonpolar zone that

a)

allows most polar molecules to pass through the membrane

b)

allows food to pass through the membrane

c)

repels ions and most polar molecules

d)

makes the membrane permeable to most molecules

57.

The enzymes that unwind DNA during replication are called

a)

double helixes

b)

forks

c)

Phages

d)

DNA helicases

58.

Which of the following is a theory?

a)

an educated guess

b)

a very specific prediction

c)

observations made during the Voyage of the Beagle

d)

a broad explanation that has been scientifically tested and supported

59.

What does evolution mean in biology?

a)

change in species over time

b)

change in individuals over time

c)

change in theories over time

d)

change in ecosystems over time

60.

Chloroplasts are thought to be the result of an invasion of large prokaryotic cells by

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

small photosynthetic prokaryotes

d)

protiests

61.

As cell size increases, the surface area-to-volume ratio

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

increases then decreases

d)

remains the same

62.

Which of the following shapes would allow a cell to have the greatest surface area-to-volume ratio?

a)

sphere

b)

cube

c)

egg-shape

d)

broad and flat

63.

Which cells have a cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and DNA?

a)

only animal cells

b)

only prokaryotic cells

c)

only eukaryotic cells

d)

all cells

64.

The genetic material that provides instructions for making proteins is

a)

DNA

b)

cytosol

c)

cytoplasm

d)

a ribosome

65.

A structure within a eukaryotic cell that carries out specific activities inside the cell is called a(n)

a)

organelle

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

a ribosome

66.

Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is correct?

a)

They have a nucleus

b)

Their evolution preceded that of eukaryotes

c)

The organelles in their cytoplasm are surrounded by membranes

d)

They are multicellular organisms

67.

Which structures produces vesicles filled with proteins?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Transport vesicles

c)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Nucleus

68.

Refer to the illustration, the cell shown is probably an animal cell because?

a)

has mitochondria

b)

does not have a cell wall

c)

has a cell membrane

d)

does not have a nucleus

69.

Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate fibers are three kinds of cytoskeleton

a)

protein fibers

b)

membranes

c)

organelles

d)

dna

70.

What kind of cytoskeleton fibers could help a cell change shape to fit into a space

a)

microfilaments

b)

microtubules

c)

intermediate fibers

d)

tubulin fibers

71.

Which of the following is true of both DNA and some proteins?

a)

made in nucleus

b)

made in ribosomes

c)

must be kept separate from cytoplasm

d)

must be kept separate from nucleus

72.

Cell : Cell membrane ::

a)

Nucleus : DNA

b)

Nucleus : Nuclear envelope

c)

Organelle : Cell

d)

Cell : DNA

73.

The organelle that moves proteins and other substances through the cell is the

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

mitochondrion

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

cytoplasm

74.

Plant cells have a large membrane-bound compartment in which water, waste products, and nutrients can be stored. This compartment is called the

a)

mitochondrion

b)

chloroplast

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

central vacuole

75.

Sunlight : chloroplasts

a)

Chloroplasts : lysosomes

b)

organic compounds : mitochondria

c)

organic compounds : ribosomes

d)

ATP : vesicles

76.

All the following are found in both plant and animal cells, except

a)

a cell wall

b)

a cell membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

77.

Short, thick outgrowths that allow prokaryotes to attach to surfaces or each other are called

a)

flagella

b)

microtubules

c)

microfilaments

d)

pili

78.

Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell

a)

chloroplast

b)

fungus

c)

bacterium

d)

muscle cell

79.

Which of the following pairs contains unrelated items?

a)

eukaryote-plant

b)

ribosome-protein

c)

cell wall-animal cell

d)

mitochondria-atp

80.

What level of organization is the small intestine?

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

81.

Proteins in the cell membrane that identify the cell are called

a)

cell-surface markers

b)

receptor proteins

c)

enzymes

d)

transport proteins

82.

As a result of diffusion, the concentration of many types of substances

a)

always remain greater inside a membrane

b)

eventually becomes balanced on both sides of a membrane

c)

always remains greater outside of a membrane

d)

always becomes imbalanced on both side of a membrane

83.

The dispersal of ink in a beaker of water is an example of

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

endocytosis

84.

Proteins that serve as tunnels for specific substances through the lipid bilayer are

a)

cell-surface markers

b)

channel proteins

c)

receptor proteins

d)

enzymes

85.

Which of the following does not require energy

a)

diffusion

b)

endocytosis

c)

active transport

d)

sodium-potassium pump

86.

How does water pass through the cell membrane?

a)

directly through the lipid bilayer

b)

through a water ion pump

c)

through water carrier proteins

d)

through channel proteins just for water

87.

Unlike passive transport, active transport

a)

moves substances down their concentration gradient

b)

does not involve carrier proteins

c)

requires energy

d)

moves water across the cell membrane

88.

Both active transport and facilitated diffusion in volve

a)

atp

b)

movement against a concentration gradient

c)

carrier proteins

d)

channel proteins

89.

Which of the following is a form of active transport

a)

osmosis

b)

simple diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

sodium-potassium pump

90.

The sodium potassium pump

a)

is a carrier protein

b)

uses passive transport

c)

is located in the cytoplasm of a cell

d)

transports sugar molecules

91.

Proteins and polysaccharides that are too large to move into a cell through diffusion or active transport move in by

a)

exocytosis

b)

endocytosis

c)

the sodium-potassium pump

d)

channel proteins

92.

The source of oxygen produced during photosynthesis is

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

the air

d)

glucose

93.

What change takes place in the cell membrane if a signal molecule causes a transport protein to open

a)

permeability change

b)

activation of an enzyme

c)

formation of a second messenger

d)

change in chemical reactions

94.

The Galapagos finches are adapted to their environment because they have

a)

not changed

b)

evolved

c)

migrated

d)

hibernated

95.

Natural selection is the process by which

a)

change occurs in the genetic characteristics of individuals that live together in an environment from one generation to another

b)

organisms with traits well-suited to their environment reproduce at a greater rate than less well-adapted organisms in the same environment

c)

use & disuse of a characteristic leads to evolutionary change

d)

baseball players pass on the trait for strong arm muscles to children

96.

Natural selection could not occur without

a)

artificial selection

b)

gradual warming of Earth

c)

competition for unlimited resources

d)

genetic variation in populations

97.

A trait that allows organisms to survive & reproduce better than other without the trait in a specific

a)

accommodation

b)

adaptation

c)

variation

d)

selection

98.

All of the following are problems arising from inbreeding, except

a)

production of a genetically uniform population

b)

increases in the diversity within a population

c)

increased change of homozygous recessive alleles occurring

d)

reduction of a population's ability to adapt to environmental changes

99.

The unknown genotype of an individual with a dominant phenotype can be determined using a

a)

ratio

b)

dihybrid cross

c)

probability formula

d)

test cross

100.

in Humans, eyes color and height are controlled by

a)

simple dominance

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

incomplete dominance

101.

What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?

a)

type A

b)

type A B

c)

type B

d)

type O

102.

Genes that are close together on a single chromosome are considered to be

a)

alleles

b)

homozygous

c)

independent

d)

linked

103.

The scientist who worked with Martha Chase to prove that genetic material is composed of DNA was

a)

Alfred Hershey

b)

Francis Crick

c)

Oswald Avery

d)

Rosalind Franklin

104.

Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of

a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

fatty acids

d)

mucleotides

105.

purines and pyrimidines are

a)

nitrogen basic found in amino acids

b)

able to replace phosphate groups from defective DNA

c)

names of specific types of DNA molecules

d)

classification group of nitrogen bases

106.

Which of the following is not found in RNA?

a)

adenine

b)

cytosine

c)

thymine

d)

uracil

107.

Trisomy is mutation that results in a cell having an extra

a)

nitrogen base

b)

condon

c)

chromosome

d)

gene

108.

People with Down syndrome have

a)

45 chromosomes

b)

46 chromosomes

c)

47 chromosomes

d)

no x chromosomes

109.

Transcription factors are

a)

enhancer

b)

promoters

c)

regulatory proteins

d)

reformer enzymes

110.

Which cell organelle contains its own DNA

a)

the Golgi apparatus

b)

the mitochondria

c)

the plasma membrane

d)

the ER

111.

What could result from a mutation in a homeotic gene?

a)

down syndrome

b)

antibiotic resistance

c)

a leg growing in the wrong place

d)

an organism aging too quickly

112.

Darwin thought that the plants & animals of the Galapagos' Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast of South America because

a)

their ancestors had migrated from the South America to the Galapagos Islands

b)

other scientists in South America had written about similar species

c)

the island organisms has the same nucleotide sequences in their DNA as the mainland

d)

he found fossiles, proving that the animals & Plants had common ancestors

113.

Which of the following is the result of artificial selection?

a)

the rain forest plants & animals

b)

the fish that live in the ocean

c)

the recognized breeds of dogs

d)

the weeds in a garden

114.

Pakicetus is

a)

a living species

b)

an ancestor of whales

c)

a three legged mammal

d)

an ocean dwelling rat

115.

the term microevolution refers to

a)

speciation

b)

macroevolution

c)

small-scale changes in a population's genes

d)

large-scale changes in a species trails

116.

New species form during

a)

adaptation

b)

extinction

c)

microevolution

d)

speciation

117.

the hypothesis that evolution occur in "spurts" through geologic time is know as

a)

directional evolution

b)

directional equilibrium

c)

punctuated equilibrium

d)

punctuated evolution

118.

the study of developmental biology shows that

a)

closely related species will show similarities in embroys

b)

if species have changed over time , their genes should have changed

c)

closely related species will show similarities in amino acid sequences

d)

distantly related species will show similarities in anatomy

119.

What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant x heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a)

1:3:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

2:1

d)

1:0

120.

Avery's experiments showed that transformation

a)

is prevented by protein-destroying enzymes

b)

is prevented by dna-destroying enzymes

c)

causes protein to become dna

d)

is caused by a protein

121.

All of the following are true about DNA replication in prokaryotic cells except

a)

replication begins at many sites along the DNA

b)

replication begins at one site along the DNA loop

c)

replication occurs in two opposite directions

d)

there are two replication forks

122.

transcription, which is a stage of gene expression is the process by which genetic information encoded in dna is transferred to a

a)

RNA molecule

b)

dna molecule

c)

uracil molecule

d)

trna molecule

123.

RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

a)

is double stranded

b)

contains deoxyribose

c)

contains the nitrogen base uracil

d)

does not contain adenine

124.

during transcription the genetic information for making a protein is "rewritten" as a molecule of

a)

messenger rna

b)

ribosomal rna

c)

transfer rna

d)

translation rna

125.

The portions of dna molecules that actually code for the production of proteins are called

a)

transposons

b)

exons

c)

introns

d)

exposons

126.

which of the following segments of dna is not found in eukaryotes

a)

a genome

b)

an intron

c)

an exon

d)

a plasmid

127.

Darwin's observations of finches indicated descent with

a)

no change in species

b)

inheritance of large bills

c)

modification in bills

d)

convergence

128.

Beak shape in finches is affected by the

a)

number of predators in the area

b)

size of the finch

c)

color of the finch

d)

type of food available to eat

129.

Darwins theory of evolution by natural selection included

a)

microevolution and variation

b)

coevolution and selection

c)

convergence and adaptation

d)

overproduction and selection

130.

Which of the following statements is not true about the steps of natural selection?

a)

populations are able to overproduce

b)

a small amount of variation can be attributed to inherited traits

c)

the environment causes some individuals to leave more offspring than others

d)

adaptations for an environment become more common over time

131.

Population genetics involves the study of

a)

population growth

b)

population density

c)

microevolution

d)

environments

132.

To study genetic variation what must be counted or estimated in a population

a)

individuals

b)

phenotypes

c)

genotypes

d)

alleles

133.

Genetic variation and change are measured in terms of the frequency of alleles in the _______ of a population

a)

gene pool

b)

chromosomes

c)

mutation rate

d)

individuals

134.

In 1908 Hardy and Weinberg predicted that

a)

large and small populations are actually the same

b)

recessive alleles replace dominant alleles in a population over time

c)

in a population in genetic equilibrium allele frequency will not change from one generation to the next

d)

recessive alleles are usually more common than dominant alleles

135.

Which is not a cause for the actual proportions of homozygotes and heterozygotes to differ from Hardy-Weinberg predictions?

a)

the occurrence of mutation

b)

natural selection acting on genotypes

c)

genetic drift within the population

d)

nonrandom mating among individuals

136.

Homozygous : heterozygous

a)

Heterozygous : Bb

b)

Probability : Predicting chances

c)

BB : Bb

d)

Factor : Gene

137.

According to the biological species concept, any populations that do no share future offspring

a)

are fated to become extinct

b)

could be considered separate species

c)

are subspecies of one another

d)

could be reproducing asexually

138.

To which type of organism can the definition of species under the biological species concept not be applied

a)

those that are unaffected by the environment

b)

those that are interbreed, producing fertile offspring

c)

those that reproduce asexually or are known only as fossils

d)

those that are considered separate species and do not interbreed

139.

When a species begins to occupy more than one niche and divergence and speciation occur as a result the species is said to have undergone

a)

resource sharing

b)

adaptive radiation

c)

competitive exclusion

d)

geographic isolation

140.

Why is it accidental polyploidy in an individual considered a form of reproductive isolation

a)

it will have critical differences in mating behaviors

b)

it has diverged sufficiently to be a different species

c)

it is considered a hybrid and cannot produce fertile offspring

d)

it cannot pair gametes with others from the original population

141.

One kind of organic substance produce in the miller-urey experiments was

a)

amino acids

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen gases

d)

ultraviolet radiation

142.

In the miller urey experiments electrical sparks were applied to a mixture of hydrogen,

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

methane and ammonia

c)

amino acids and hydrocarbonds

d)

oxygen and ozone

143.

at the very beginning of translation the first trna molecule

a)

binds to the mrnas anticodon

b)

attaches directly to the dna codon

c)

connects an animo acid to its anticodon

d)

binds to the mrnas start codon

144.

ATP is composed of a nitrogenous base a sugar and

a)

one phosphate group

b)

two phosphate groups

c)

three phosphate groups

d)

four phosphate groups

145.

The phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cell's life is

a)

G1

b)

g2

c)

mitosis

d)

S

146.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle

a)

cytokinesis Mitosis g1 s g2

b)

s g1 g2 mitosis cytokinesis

c)

g1 s g2 mitosis cytokinesis

d)

mitosis g1 s g2 cytokinesis

147.

Cells that are not dividing remain in the

a)

mitosis phase

b)

first gap phase

c)

synthesis phase

d)

second gap phase

148.

5 steps the cell cycle

a)

6 steps: prophase

b)

9 steps:cytokinesis

c)

3 steps : meiosis

d)

4 steps: mitosis

149.

The first three phases of the cell cycle are collectively known as

a)

a gap

b)

telophase

c)

mitosis

d)

interphase

150.

cell growth: g1

a)

mitosis : cytokinesis

b)

mitosis: meiosis

c)

mitochondria replication: synthesis phase

d)

DNA copying: synthesis phase

151.

Mitosis is the process by which

a)

microtubules are assembled

b)

cytoplasm is divided

c)

the nucleus is divided into two nuclei

d)

the cell rests

152.

The phase of mitosis that is characterized by the arrangement of all chromosomes along the equator of the cell is called

a)

telophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

153.

as a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis

a)

receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell

b)

receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell

c)

donates a chromosome to the parent cell

d)

receives exactly half the chromosome from the parent cell

154.

cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of

a)

a belt of protein threads

b)

spindle fibers

c)

a cell plate

d)

centrioles

155.

The cell cycle is monitored as each cell passes through

a)

the S phase

b)

the interphase checkpoint

c)

checkpoint

d)

cytokinesis

156.

Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?

a)

budding

b)

binary fission

c)

fragmentation

d)

fertilization

157.

budding is an example of

a)

endosymbiosis

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

meiosis

d)

sexual reproduction

158.

the process of producing offspring is called reproduction and can be

a)

eukaryotic or prokaryotic

b)

zygotic or gametic

c)

asexual or sexual

d)

haploid or diploid

159.

Sexual reproduction includes

a)

budding

b)

fragmentation

c)

binary fission

d)

fertilization

160.

Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for

a)

different traits

b)

the same traits

c)

DNA

d)

sex

161.

in humans, gametes contain

a)

22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome

b)

1 autosome and 22 sex chromosomes

c)

45 autosome and 1 sex chromosomes

d)

1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes

162.

in humans, the male determines the sex of the child because male have

a)

two x chromosomes

b)

two y chromosomes

c)

one x and one y chromosomes

d)

46 chromosomes

163.

Female : XX

a)

female : gametes

b)

female : eggs

c)

male : yy

d)

male : xy

164.

How many chromosomes are in the body cells of an organism that has a haploid number of 8

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

16

165.

Diploid : somatic cell : haploid

a)

body cell

b)

chromosomes

c)

gamete

d)

zygote

166.

The space inside the inner membrane of a chloroplast is called the

a)

thylakoid

b)

reaction center

c)

pigment

d)

stroma

167.

Chlorophyll is green because

a)

it absorbs green wavelengths of light

b)

it absorbs blue and yellow wavelengths which make green

c)

it reflects green wavelengths of light

d)

of an optical illusion caused by transmitted light

168.

While one type of electron transport chain of photosynthesis is used to form molecules of ATp a second electron transport chain is used

a)

to form molecules of nadph

b)

to move molecules to another ion pump

c)

to produce water

d)

as a fuel for forming another chlorophyll molecule

169.

The energy used in the calvin cycle for the production of sugar molecules comes from

a)

atp only

b)

the krebs cycle

c)

atp and nadph

d)

carbon dioxide

170.

as light intensity increases the rate of photosynthesis

a)

increases indefinitely

b)

decreases indefinitely

c)

increases until the light saturation point is reached

d)

decreases until the light saturation point is reached

171.

The process of cellular respiration

a)

is performed only by organisms that are incapable of photosynthesis

b)

breaks down food molecules to release stored energy

c)

occurs before plants are able to continue photosynthesis

d)

occurs only in animals

172.

the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is

a)

water

b)

atp

c)

nadph

d)

oxygen

173.

water is an end procut in

a)

lactic acid fermentation

b)

alcoholic fermentation

c)

the krebs cycle

d)

the elctron transport chain in aerobic respiration

174.

which of the following is not formed during the krebs cycle

a)

co2

b)

fadh2

c)

nadh

d)

nadph

175.

the name of the process that takes place when organic compounds are broken down in the absence of oxygen is

a)

respiration

b)

oxidation

c)

fermentation

d)

photosynthesis

176.

the total amount of atp that a cell gains for each glucose molecule depends on the presence of

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

glucose

177.

Which of the following does not provide new genetic combinations

a)

random fertilization

b)

cytokinesis

c)

independent assortment

d)

crossing over

178.

the passing of traits from parents to offspring is called

a)

genetics

b)

heredity

c)

development

d)

maturation

179.

the scientific study of heredity is called

a)

meiosis

b)

crossing over

c)

genetics

d)

pollination

180.

the father of genetics was

a)

a knight

b)

hans krebs

c)

gregor mendel

d)

charles darwin

181.

mendel obtained his p generation by allowing the plants to

a)

self pollinate

b)

cross pollinate

c)

assort independently

d)

segregate

182.

step 1 of mendels garden pea experiment allowing each variety of garden pea to self pollinate for several generation produce the

a)

f1 gen

b)

f2 gen

c)

p gen

d)

p1 gen

183.

homozygous : heterozygous

a)

heterzygous : Bb

b)

gg : Gg

c)

Probability : Chance

d)

Factor : Gene

184.

What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous x heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a)

1:2:1

b)

1:3:1

c)

1:2

d)

1:0

185.

What is the probability that the offspring of a homozygous dominant individual and a homozygous recessive individual will exhibit the dominant phenotype

a)

.25

b)

.5

c)

.66

d)

1.0

186.

if a characteristic is sexlinked the gene for it is found on

a)

a sex chromosome

b)

an autosome

c)

a linked chromosome

d)

an allele

187.

mendels law of segregation states that

a)

pairs of alleles are dependent on one another when separate occurs during gamete formation

b)

pairs of alleles separate independently of one another after gamete formation

c)

each pair of alleles remain together when gametes are formed

d)

the two alleles for a trait segregate independently when gametes are formed

188.

the phenotype of an organism

a)

is used to represent its genetic composition

b)

is the physical appearance of a trait

c)

occurs only in dominant individuals

d)

cannot be seen

189.

Which of the following is the order in which these events occur

a)

A B C D E

b)

A C B D E

c)

B A C D E

d)

A B C D E

190.

Refer to the illustration the cell labeled "d" is in

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

anaphase

d)

prophase

191.

the discovery of chromosomes provided a link between the first law of heredity that stemmed from mendels work and

a)

pollination

b)

inheritance

c)

mitosis

d)

meiosis

192.

garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they

a)

are difficult to grow

b)

mature quickly

c)

produce few offspring

d)

have few traits

193.

probability is calculated by dividing the number of one kind of possible outcome by the

a)

number of other kinds of outcomes

b)

total number of all possible outcomes

c)

number of genes being considered

d)

total number of offspring produced

194.

What is the expected phenotypic ratio resulting from a homozygous dominant x heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a)

1:3:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

2:1

d)

1:0

195.

The more common name for an ovum is a

a)

egg

b)

hormone

c)

nutrient

d)

polar body

196.

which of the following processes produces the most atp

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

glycolysis

c)

lactic acid fermentation

d)

alcoholic fermentation

197.

which of the following is not a reason cells divide

a)

the cell gets too big to process and transport nutrients

b)

new cells are needed for growth

c)

dna cannot be copied quickly enough in large cells

d)

surface area to volume ratio becomes too large

198.

the region of a chromosome where two sister chromatids are held together is called a

a)

spindle

b)

centromere

c)

nucleosome

d)

centriole

199.

in a bacterium cell division takes place when

a)

its nucleus divides

b)

the cell splits into two cells one of which receives all of the dna

c)

the dna is copied a new cell wall forms between the dna copies and the cell splits into the two cells

d)

spindle fibers form

200.

the phase of the cell cycle that occupies most of an average cells life is

a)

g1

b)

mitosis

c)

g2

d)

s

201.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle

a)

cytokinesis > mitosis > g1 > s > g2

b)

s > g1 > g2 > mitosis > cytokinesis

c)

g1 > s > g2 > mitosis > cytokinesis

d)

mitosis > g1 > s > g2 > cytokinesis

202.

cells that are not dividing remain in the

a)

mitosis phase

b)

synthesis phase

c)

first gap phase

d)

second gap phase

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9th Grade - University