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Worksheets

Biology - Fall Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
2.

Complete the statement: the four major biomolecules are carbohydrates, (a)   , nucleic acids, and proteins.

3.

This model represents a complex cell. This cell belongs to a mammal, contains numerous membrane bound organelles, and has DNA bound in a nucleus.

a)

Bacteria Cell

b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)

Eukaryotic Cell

d)
Blood cell
4.

_________ cells are short-lived, numerous cells. Their genetic material is not contained within a nucleus and they are the simplest, smallest, and oldest of all cells.

a)

Endosymbiotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Prokaryotic

5.
What type of molecule is this?
a)
Nucleic acid
b)
Protein
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Lipid
6.

Which type of cell is pictured in the diagram?

a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
7.
A rigid layer that lies outside the cell's  membrane is...
a)
Cytoskeleton
b)
Cilia
c)
Cell Wall
d)
Flagella
8.

Nucleic acids are the instructions of a cell, filled with (a)   material which gives instructions for all cellular activities or synthesis.

9.

This structure is center of a cell's nucleus, the portion where DNA is most directly stored, and the site where ribosomes are created.

a)
vacuole
b)

nucleolus

c)

rough er

d)
golgi apparatus
10.

The endosymbiotic theory of cellular evolution establishes that eukaryotic cells evolved when:

a)

prokaryotic cells evolved their own organelles

b)

prokaryotic cells absorbed other mitochondrial prokaryotes

c)

Mr. Patton squeezed prokaryotic cells so hard that they became eukaryotes

d)

genetic material inside of prokaryotes mutated and developed organelles

11.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
12.

This diagram models the general structure of a virus. What are the two general structures of a virus (select all that apply)?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Genetic Material

c)

Capsid

d)

Cytoplasm

13.
Proteins are assembled within this cell organelle.
a)
nucleus
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
lysosome
d)
ribosome
14.

Which macromolecule of repeating structures is depicted in the diagram?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

15.

This virus cycle infects the cell, assembles new viruses and causes the cell to burst and release more viruses.

a)

Lytic

b)

Lactic

c)

Lysogenic

d)

Lysosome

16.
Which of the following is an example of a prokaryotic cell? 
a)
Virus 
b)
Plant Cell 
c)
Bacteria 
d)
Animal Cell 
17.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
18.

What is being represented by the letter C in the image?

a)

Enzyme Alteration Structure

b)

Active Binding Structure

c)

Enzyme Substrate Complex

d)

Enzymatic Cytosis Complex

19.
The diagram shows various molecules that move into and out of the cell. How does molecule C move out the cell?
a)
Active Transport
b)
Diffusion
c)
The use of a protein pump
d)
Manipulated osmosis
20.

Why is the pigment in photosynthesizers, chlorophyll, green?

a)

It absorbs green wavelengths of light, reflecting red and blue

b)

It absorbs blue and yellow wavelengths of light, reflecting red

c)

It absorbs red and blue, reflecting green wavelengths of light

d)

It is an optical illusion caused by the transmission of light

21.

The transport of molecules across concentration gradients and cellular membranes is described as cellular transport. Which form of cellular transport is depicted in the diagram?

a)

Passive transport

b)

Active Transport

c)

Reactive Transport

d)

Mr. Patton's Magical Teleportation Jamboree

22.

Which statement best explains why enzymes are specific to the reactions they catalyze?

a)

Enzymes can bind to any molecule in the cell.

b)

Enzymes increase the temperature of the reaction.

c)

Enzymes are used up during the reaction.

d)

Each enzyme has a unique active site that fits only certain substrates.

23.

What would most likely happen to the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction if the temperature is increased beyond the enzyme's optimal range?

a)

The enzyme would become more specific to its substrate.

b)

The reaction rate would remain unchanged.

c)

The reaction rate would decrease because the enzyme may denature.

d)

The reaction rate would increase indefinitely.

24.
How would the concentration of CO2 in water affect photosynthesis?
a)
The higher the CO2, the greater the rate
b)
The higher the CO2, the lower the rate
c)
CO2 concentration doesn't affect photosynthesis
d)
a greater rate of photosynthesis causes higher CO2 concentrations 
25.

The process illustrated in the figure is called (hint - water is being added and its split hydrogens are taking up the open bonds) :

a)

condensation

b)

protein synthesis

c)

hydrolysis

d)

dehydration synthesis

26.

When a cell forms a vesicle around unwanted particles and expels it OUT of the cell.

a)

Pinocytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Receptor-mediated

d)

Exocytosis

27.

Which statement best describes a gene?

a)

The specific DNA that a cell needs to make a protein

b)

An individual recipe from the complete genome

c)

All of the DNA that an organism has

d)

The DNA not transmitted to a new cell after division

28.

Where in a cell is RNA translated into proteins?

a)

In the cytoplasm, with ribosomes

b)

In the nucleus

c)

In the endoplasmic reticulum

d)

In the vacuole

29.

In the diagram an original DNA strand is replicated and one original strand is kept, while a copy is added to each duplicate.

This image shows that DNA Replication is _______.

a)

Progressive

b)
Semiconservative
c)
Dispersive
d)
Spontaneous
30.

Which process, from the creation of DNA to a protein, is shown in the diagram?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

31.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
32.

What is the name for the overall direction in which the majority of molecules move in a given space?

a)

Supermolecular ultraposition

b)

Average direction

c)

Overall course

d)

Net movement

33.

What is the name of the structure formed when both the substrate and enzyme are bound together?

a)

Enzyme Substrate Complex

b)

Enzyme Substrate Structure

c)

Enzysubstrate Formation

d)

Enzymatic Structural Formation

34.
What is being represented by the letter A in the image?
a)
Substrate
b)
Enzyme
c)
Product
d)
Complex
35.

Catalase is an enzyme that speeds up the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. The results of two experiments on catalase function are summarized in the graphs. Which pH and temperature combination provides the best conditions for catalase to function?

a)

pH 5 and temp 4 degrees C

b)

pH 5 and temp 25 degrees C

c)

pH 7 and temp 37 degrees C

d)

pH 7 and temp 50 degrees C

36.

Which of the following best describes the role of an enzyme in a biochemical reaction?

a)

It lowers the activation energy required for the reaction

b)

It increases the temperature of the reaction

c)

It changes the products of the reaction

d)

It acts as a reactant

37.

Use the information in the image to select the statement that BEST describes whether lactase can help break down sucrose into glucose and fructose.

a)

Lactase can help break down sucrose because sucrose is a disaccharide.

b)

Lactase can help break down sucrose because sucrose contains glucose.

c)

Lactase cannot help break down sucrose because sucrose can break down without an enzyme.

d)

Lactase cannot help break down sucrose because the shape of sucrose does not match the shape of lactase.

38.

Multiple cellular processes are depicted in the given diagram. Among them is protein excretion, which begins all the way in the nucleus with mRNA transcription and ends with the delivery of proteins to extracellular locations.

What is the name of the final step of this process?

a)

Pattonytosis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Exocytosis

39.

Mr. Patton likes this GIF and wanted to use it again.

Photosynthesis cannot produce its vital products without key reactants. Which factors might affect the production of photosynthesis?

a)

The concentration of methane available

b)

The amount of light available

c)

The availability of sulfur

d)

The concentration of available oxygen

40.

Which two molecules are the main products of photosynthesis?

a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
41.
In the diagram, what is letter A? 
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
42.

The light dependent reactions of photosynthesis could not function without redox reactions. When an electron is removed from a molecule to be transferred to another, the molecule losing the electron is ________.

a)

Oxidized

b)

Reduced

43.

Which form of cellular transport requires ATP as an energy source to move molecules against the concentration gradient?

a)

Active transport

b)

Simple diffusion

c)

Passive Transport

44.

Autotrophic organisms rely on processes like photosynthesis to create their own energy, while heterotrophic organisms need to consume energy.

Based on what you have learned in this course, how would you classify mangrove trees?

a)
Heterotrophic, multicellular, eukaryote
b)

Autotrophic, unicellular, prokaryote

c)
Autotrophic, multicellular, eukaryote
d)
Heterotrophic, unicellular, prokaryote
45.

Plants produce numerous pigments, each intended to capture particular wavelengths of light. The most essential pigments for a plant are:

a)

Xanthophylls

b)

Carotenoids

c)

Chlorophylls

d)

Tannins

46.

Which structure within the chloroplast is represented by the space between structures identified by (4), where the Calvin Cycle takes place?

a)

Lamella

b)

Thylakoid

c)

Outer membrane

d)

Stroma

47.

Electric eels are a species of amazonian fish capable of using specialized organs to build up electrical potential of up to 860 volts, enough to potentially kill an adult human.

Through what fundamental process do these eels achieve this incredible deterrence to predators like caiman and jaguars?

a)

Electric eels build up energy through electron chains from photosynthesis

b)

Electric potential is built up by moving ions across cell membranes

c)

Rapid movements create friction with the water and build static electricity

48.

True or False: eukaryotic cells cannot be single celled organisms.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

True, but for cool kids

49.

4.A

A prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell are shown. Which characteristic best distinguishes these cells as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

a)

The location of the cytoplasm

b)

The organization of the genetic material

c)

The function of the flagella

d)

The role of the cell membrane

50.

_________ cells are short-lived, numerous cells. Their genetic material is not contained within a nucleus and they are the simplest, smallest, and oldest of all cells.

a)

Endosymbiotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Prokaryotic

51.

Select which biomolecule makes up the bilayer of a cell membrane.

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

52.

(a)   cells have a high density of membrane bound organelles and make up multicellular organisms, such as planty the potted plant and Mr. Patton.

53.

This model represents a complex cell. This cell belongs to a mammal, contains numerous membrane bound organelles, and has DNA bound in a nucleus.

a)

Bacteria Cell

b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)

Eukaryotic Cell

d)
Blood cell
54.

The endosymbiotic theory of cellular evolution establishes that eukaryotic cells evolved when:

a)

prokaryotic cells evolved their own organelles

b)

prokaryotic cells absorbed other mitochondrial prokaryotes

c)

Mr. Patton squeezed prokaryotic cells so hard that they became eukaryotes

d)

genetic material inside of prokaryotes mutated and developed organelles

55.

Structural (a)   make up many of the strongest structures in nature, including the cellulose in plant walls, or the chitin in the exoskeletons of arthropods (like insects and crabs).

56.

As DNA is copied and RNA is sent out from the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, it is read by a (a)   , which then uses the directions to print proteins.

57.

Which step in the process of converting nucleic acids into proteins is shown in the diagram?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Replication

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

58.

The following nucleotide sequence is being used to replicate a new strand of DNA:

3' ACG TTC CTC AAG 5'

When nucleotides are ordered into a copied strand by DNA polymerase, what will its sequence be?

a)

3' ACG TTC CTC AAG 5'

b)

3' TGA CCG GAG TTC 5'

c)

5' GTA CCT TCT GGA 3'

d)

5' TGC AAG GAG TTC 3'

59.

The process of turning DNA into RNA is depicted in the diagram, where DNA is read as a template for ordering RNA.

If a template DNA strand read GTT ACA GAT CCC what would the transcribed RNA be?

(a)  

60.

The path from DNA to a protein is one of the fundamental processes of biology. In the diagram to the left, the three major steps in this process are shown.

In the translation step what is the most accurate description of what is happening?

a)

A ribosome is reading the nucleotides in mRNA to order amino acids into a polypeptide chain

b)

A ribosome is breaking down DNA to get the part to make proteins

c)

RNA is combining with proteins to create the second strand for DNA

d)

Mr. Patton is doing a little dance and it looks really cool

61.

The table shown displays the relationship between codons (triplets of nucleotides) and the amino acids (peptides) which they make.

If the mRNA codon is AUG, what amino acid be added to the growing polypeptide?

a)

Met

b)

Glu

c)

Ala

d)

Phe

62.

The process of turning RNA into a protein is depicted in the diagram. As the protein chain is being created, what synonym can be used for the amino acid chain being formed?

a)

Phospholipid chain

b)

Polypeptide chain

c)

Nucleic acid

d)

Ascorbic acid

63.

Which statement best describes a genome?

a)

The specific DNA that a cell needs to make a protein

b)

The complete DNA for an organism

c)

The DNA left over after cell division

d)

The DNA not transmitted to a new cell after division

64.

A peacock jumping spider, Maratus volans, sustains an injury while hunting prey and needs to create new cells to help repair the damage to its carapace (exoskeleton).

What is the most accurate description for the cellular process which will repair this damage?

a)

The spider will perform mitosis to help create new cells to fill the damaged region

b)

The spider will undergo meiosis to clone itself

c)

The spider will undergo epithelial endocytosis to create a new carapace

d)

The spider will use topoisomerase to create new nucleotides

65.

What is the correct order for the steps of mitosis?

a)

Cytokinesis --> telophase --> anaphase --> metaphase

b)

Prophase --> metaphase --> anaphase --> telophase

c)

Pattonphase --> bigphase --> kidphase

66.

Which is the most accurate biological description of the group of cellular diseases known as cancer?

a)

Cells grow incorrectly, destroying others around them

b)

Cells grow too large, bursting apart

c)

Cells cannot stop growing

d)

Cells grow too slowly, preventing efficient function

67.

Which step of cell division is displayed in the diagram?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

68.

Which step of mitosis is being displayed in the dividing plant cell shown?

a)

Prophase, because the nucleus is dissolving and chromosomes are forming

b)

Metaphase, because spindle fibers are lining chromosomes in the equatorial plane

c)

Anaphase, because the chromosomes have been pulled apart to the cell's poles

d)

Telophase, because the nucleus has reformed and the chromosomes have decondensed

69.

Where in a cell is DNA replicated during cell division?

a)

In the cytoplasm

b)

In the nucleus

c)

In the endoplasmic reticulum

d)

In the vacuole

70.

During the (a)   phase of the cell cycle, the cell grows structures and creates VIP molecules, preparing for division.

71.

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell go into a resting state and stop actively dividing?

a)

G0

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

72.

What role might the loss of telomeres in eukaryotic cells play as they age in multicellular organisms?

a)

The loss of telomeres reduces the protection of DNA, slowly damaging them

b)

DNA cannot replicate as quickly and creatures cannot replace cells quickly enough

c)

DNA cannot properly wind as it cannot be wound by the telomeres

d)

They secretly whisper to Mr. Patton what to put on his tests...

73.

What role do the phosphate and sugar play in the structure of DNA?

a)

They create ionic potential for the DNA to conduct electricity

b)

They change the chemical structure of the nitrogenous base pairs

c)

They make you feel cool and trendy

d)

They act in pairs as the firm structural backbone of DNA

74.

Accurately summarize the function of the enzyme ligase:

a)

Breaks the hydrogen bonds between DNA strands

b)

Uncoils DNA's helical structure

c)

Orders nucleotides on new DNA strands

d)

Fills in gaps in the termination stage of DNA replication

75.

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds which hold the strands of the original DNA helix together?

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

Ligase

76.

The following gene is isolated from a genome: 5' TCC GAC TTA 3'.

When this gene is replicated, what will be its matching sequence?

a)

3' ACG CAT CGG 5'

b)

3' AGG CTG AAT 5'

c)

5' TGC ATG CCG 3'

d)

5' TGC ATC AAG 3'

77.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

78.

DNA polymerase carries out what function in the DNA replication?

a)

It adds a RNA primer to sequence new nucleotide patterns

b)

It uncoils the supercoiled DNA

c)

It arranges incoming nucleotides into the correct order

d)

It splits the original DNA strand into two new strands

79.

What is the correct relationship between DNA and the biomolecules it is read to produce?

This is also known as the central dogma of biology.

a)

Proteins --> DNA --> RNA

b)

RNA --> Proteins --> DNA

c)

DNA --> RNA --> Proteins

d)

RNA --> DNA --> Proteins

80.

When DNA is replicated, at which part of its molecular structure does it break?

a)

Nitrogenous bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Nucleic bonds

d)

Phosphorous bonds

81.

What are the essential products created by the processes of the mitochondria?

a)

Carbon dioxide and oxygen

b)

Water and glucose

c)

Glucose, ATP

d)

Carbon dioxide, ATP

82.

Which of these is the correct order for the relationship of energy transfer in organisms?

a)

Light --> respiration --> thermal energy --> photosynthesis --> chemical energy

b)

Light --> photosynthesis --> chemical energy --> respiration --> chemical energy

c)

Thermal energy --> photosynthesis --> light --> respiration --> chemical energy

83.

The molecules which transfer single units of energy across an electron transport chain are called electron (a)   .

84.

The chemical equation for cellular respiration is shown in the diagram. If a cell were to catabolize 3 molecules of glucose, how many molecules of carbon dioxide would be produced?

a)

Three CO2 molecules

b)

Six CO2 molecules

c)

Twelve CO2 molecules

d)

Eighteen CO2 molecules

85.

Which of the following is an accurate summary of cellular respiration?

a)
The process by which cells convert glucose and water into carbon dioxide, oxygen, and energy in the form of ATP.
b)
The process by which cells convert glucose and oxygen into carbon dioxide, water, and energy in the form of ATP.
c)

The process by which cells convert carbon dioxide and water into energy in the form of glucose

d)
The process by which cells convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.
86.

What are the products of the cellular processes in these organelles?

a)

I: glucose and carbon dioxide

II: oxygen and water

b)

I: carbon dioxide and oxygen

II: glucose and water

c)

I: oxygen and glucose II: water and carbon dioxide

d)

I: carbon dioxide and water

II: glucose and oxygen

87.

What is an accurate descriptor of the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration requires oxygen, while anaerobic respiration does not

b)

Aerobic respiration must happen before anaerobic respiration can occur

c)

Aerobic respiration produces glucose, while anaerobic respiration produces ATP

d)

Aerobic respiration produces a lesser amount of energy than anaerobic respiration

88.

Many species of plants from arid environments use a specialized process called CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) photosynthesis. In the blistering heat of deserts, this allows cacti to store energy from sunlight in a long acid chain during the day.

Energy can be broken off of these acids and combined with CO2 in the cool of night, without losing valuable water vapor in gas exchange during the heat of the day. What is the reactant which these plants are trying to conserve, using CAM photosynthesis?

a)

CO2

b)

Water

c)

Light

d)

Glucose

89.

Chloroplasts are the organelle sites of photosynthesis in all autotrophic organisms.

Which factor does not control how much glucose a chloroplast can produce via photosynthesis?

a)

The concentration of carbon dioxide available

b)

The amount of light available

c)

The availability of water

d)

The quantity of available oxygen

90.

Which answer best describes the effect of this enzyme on the substrate which it is catalyzing?

a)

The substrate will change the chemical makeup of the substrate

b)

The substrate will facilitate a chemical reaction which will split the substrate into different products

c)

The enzyme will permanently bind to the substrate, changing by making it a more complex molecule

d)

The enzyme will dissolve the substrate, breaking it down into basic molecules for energy

91.

Which two molecules are the reactants of photosynthesis?

a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
92.

What is the fundamental process by which the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis gain energy?

a)

Photons of light heat the chloroplast, generating ATP for the cell to use

b)

Photons of light strike molecules and excite electrons, which are moved in electron chains

c)

Glucose broken down to provide the energy for ATP synthesis in the mitochondria

d)

The cell captures potable water, which it heats with light from the sun

93.

Chlorophyll is green because...

a)

photosynthesizers use it to absorb green wavelengths of light

b)

plants have no other pigments to capture the energy of light

c)

the pigment reflects green light, while absorbing red and blue light

d)
it is an optical illusion caused by the transmission of light
94.

A Saharan silver ant is stranded from its colony and spends too long in the blistering sun. The intense heat begins to denature an enzyme in its stomach essential for digesting the rigid tissues of other insects.

The ant finds its way back to the colony, but all of the digestive enzymes in its stomach remain denatured. What is most likely to happen to the ant?

a)

The ant's body will substitute a similar enzyme to break down the same substrates

b)

The ant will choose a new source of prey, which it can still digest

c)

The ant will cool down its body temperature until the enzymes repair themselves

d)

The ant will die from starvation, unable to use the denatured enzymes on the single substrate which matches them

95.

The thylakoid within the chloroplast serves what summarized purpose?

a)

It stores ATP until it can be used at a later time

b)

It synthesizes proteins for the chloroplast to grow

c)

It conducts light independent reactions to create larger energy storing molecules

d)

It receives light from the sun and uses it to move energy in the form of electrons

96.

In this fundamental equation of photosynthesis, what is the energy storing molecule being produced?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Water

c)

Glucose

d)

Oxygen

97.

How are oxidation and reduction reactions coupled in photosynthetic reactions?

a)

Redox reactions move electrons from one molecule to another, passing energy

b)

Redox reactions move ions across membranes, creating electricity which fuels photosynthesis

c)

Redox reactions create energy from oxygen absorption

d)

Redox reactions move protons from one ion to another, creating more stable molecules

98.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
99.

Which statement BEST describes how viruses harm cells and cause diseases?

a)

Viruses make cells work too hard, exhausting them until they run out of energy

b)

Viruses consume cells when they touch them, destroying them

c)

Viruses force cells to make things they need, changing their reproduction

100.

True or False: viruses need other cells to reproduce

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Which type of cell is pictured in the diagram?

a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
102.
The protein coat that surrounds either RNA or DNA is called a ___________.
a)
pathogen
b)
capsid
c)
virus
d)
provirus
103.

What cellular structure do eukaryotes, prokaryotes, and viruses all have in common?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Genetic Material

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Rough ER

104.

What are the four major biomolecules?

a)

Amino acids

Proteins

Carbohydrates

Peptides

b)

Proteins

Lipids

Amino Acids

Nucleotides

c)

Carbohydrates

Hexamer Rings

Nucleotides

Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

Lipids

Proteins

Nucleic Acids

105.

Carbohydrates and lipids are both commonly used to store (a)   .

106.

Damage to a cell's membrane requires that structural proteins be synthesized to repair the site of injury. In response to this need, the cell uses _______ to carry instructions for creating the new protein to a ribosome.

a)

Messenger Proteins

b)

Messenger RNA

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Transfer RNA

107.

Is the depicted biological reaction catabolic or anabolic?

a)

Catabolic

b)

Anabolic

c)

Neither

d)

Both

108.

The following gene is isolated from a genome: 3' ACG TAC GGC 5'.

When this gene is replicated, what will be its matching sequence?

a)

3' ACG CAT CGG 5'

b)

3' TGC CTC AAG 5'

c)

5' TGC ATG CCG 3'

d)

5' TGC ATC AAG 3'

109.

What is an accurate summary of the function of telomeres?

a)

They keep chromosomes to a certain length

b)

They help fold the proteins which stack DNA

c)

They protect DNA from degradation

d)

They make Mr. Patton look taller

110.

This repeating structure is the monomer of all nucleic acids, including DNA. What is it called?

a)

Phosphohydrate

b)

Nucleic Chain

c)

Lipase

d)

Nucleotide

111.

Accurately summarize the function of the enzyme ligase:

a)

Breaks the hydrogen bonds between DNA strands

b)

Uncoils DNA's helical structure

c)

Orders nucleotides on new DNA strands

d)

Fills in gaps in the termination stage of DNA replication

112.

Which is the most accurate definition of a mutagen?

a)

A substance which forms an unhealthy molecule from parts of your body

b)

A foreign object which can cause mutations in your cells

c)

A cell with mutated DNA, which cannot stop growing

113.

In the DNA sequence mutation depicted, what classification of mutation is most accurate, and why?

a)

Point mutation, because a single nucleotide was changed and nothing else

b)

Frameshift, because the whole DNA sequence is changed after the mutation

c)

Deletion, because an entire codon was removed from the DNA sequence

d)

Insertion, because a codon was added and changed the sequence

114.

The displayed change from an original to a mutated DNA sequence is an example of what form of mutation?

a)

Insertion

b)

Substitution

c)

Deletion

d)

Pattonation

115.

What is the fundamental biological concept of mutations, describing all mutations which we observe in nature?

a)

All mutations are a result of mixing genetic material in sexual reproduction

b)

All mutations harm an organism's survivability in their environment

c)

All mutations are random, appearing as a result of errors or genetic damage

d)

All mutations involve the substitution of one base pair for another

116.

Which form of point mutation is depicted in the mutation of the DNA sequence depicted?

a)

Missense Mutations

b)

Nonsense Mutations

c)

Silent Mutations

d)

Patton Mutations

117.

What is an accurate summary of the function of telomeres?

a)

They keep chromosomes to a certain length

b)

They help fold the proteins which stack DNA

c)

They protect DNA from degradation

d)

They make Mr. Patton look taller

118.

The California Kingsnake belongs to a group of snakes which specializes in predating other serpents. The key adaptation to this lifestrategy is that kingsnakes constrict with more force and more quickly than other snakes.

The first ancestor of kingsnakes to randomly develop different muscles inherited an example of what form of mutation?

a)

Neutral

b)

Harmful

c)

Heterotypical

d)

Beneficial

119.

If a point mutation does not change the order of the amino acid sequence, this is called what kind of mutation?

a)

nonsense mutation

b)

silent mutation

c)

missense mutation

d)

frameshift mutation

120.

Which of the following scenarios describes a mutagen?

a)

An asbestos particle is inhaled through the lungs and interferes with the replication of DNA

b)

A rusty nail pierces skin and introduces the tetanus virus into the bloodstream

c)

A defective mutation in a cell causes it to uncontrollably replicate, leading to a malignant cancer

121.

What type of mutation is depicted in the diagram demonstrated, where a single nucleotide is substituted?

a)

Nonsense

b)

Missense

c)

Silent

122.

Some hibiscus flowers have a chimera mutation which expresses as petals with two different colors.

If this discoloration does not affect the survival of the flower, what type of mutation is this?

a)

Harmful

b)

Beneficial

c)

Neutral

d)

Heterotypical

123.

A certain DNA sequence, ACT TAC CCT, suffers a mutation which deletes its second codon.

When this mutated gene is transcripted into RNA, what will the resulting sequence be?

(a)  

124.

Tim the blue crawfish has returned. Tim has a mutation which makes him bright blue, where he stands out in the clear, highly visible pond where he lives.

What category of mutation does Tim's coloration belong to?

a)

Harmful

b)

Beneficial

c)

Neutral

125.

When DNA is replicated, at which part of its molecular structure does it break?

a)

Nitrogenous bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Nucleic bonds

d)

Phosphorous bonds

126.

What is the correct order for the steps of mitosis?

a)

Cytokinesis --> telophase --> anaphase --> metaphase

b)

Prophase --> metaphase --> anaphase --> telophase

c)

Pattonphase --> bigphase --> kidphase

127.

Which step of cell division is displayed in the diagram?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

128.

Which step of mitosis is being displayed in the dividing plant cell shown?

a)

Prophase, because the nucleus is dissolving and chromosomes are forming

b)

Metaphase, because spindle fibers are lining chromosomes in the equatorial plane

c)

Anaphase, because the chromosomes have been pulled apart to the cell's poles

d)

Telophase, because the nucleus has reformed and the chromosomes have decondensed

129.

A certain DNA sequence, ACT TAC CCT, suffers a mutation which deletes its second codon.

When this mutated gene is transcripted into RNA, what will the resulting sequence be?

(a)  

130.

DNA polymerase carries out what function in the DNA replication?

a)

It adds a RNA primer to sequence new nucleotide patterns

b)

It uncoils the supercoiled DNA

c)

It arranges incoming nucleotides into the correct order

d)

It splits the original DNA strand into two new strands

131.

What is the correct relationship between DNA and the molecules which it produces?

a)

Proteins --> DNA --> RNA

b)

RNA --> Proteins --> DNA

c)

DNA --> RNA --> Proteins

d)

RNA --> DNA --> Proteins

132.

A peacock jumping spider, Maratus volans, sustains an injury while hunting prey and needs to create new cells to help repair the damage to its carapace (exoskeleton).

What is the most accurate description for the cellular process which will repair this damage?

a)

The spider will perform mitosis to help create new cells to fill the damaged region

b)

The spider will undergo meiosis to clone itself

c)

The spider will undergo epithelial endocytosis to create a new carapace

d)

The spider will use topoisomerase to create new nucleotides

133.

A particular gene sequence, CTT GAC TTA, undergoes PCR for replication.

What will be the replicated sequence of its matching strand in the first round of PCR?

(a)  

134.

A single gene is synthetically replicated through PCR. The process is stopped after three polymerase chain reactions.

At the point at which the PCR is halted, how many genes are in the buffer (including the original gene sequence)?

a)

2 gene sequences

b)

4 gene sequences

c)

8 gene sequences

d)

16 gene sequences

135.

What is the correct order for the steps of PCR?

a)

Denaturation --> Annealing --> Elongation

b)

Elongation --> Denaturation --> Annealing

c)

Pattonation --> Bigkidation --> Bioligation

d)

Annealing --> Elongation --> Denaturation

136.

What is the purpose of the buffer in the PCR process?

a)

The buffer suspends the DNA in a solution, upon which heat may act and through which molecules may move

b)

The buffer makes the DNA stronger, reinforcing its hydrogen bonds with nitrogen compounds

c)

The buffer changes the PH of the solution that the DNA is in, disrupting the bonds in their structures

d)

The buffer makes Mr. Patton look so cool. I mean, sooooo cool.

137.

What are the stages of mitosis in order?

a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
138.
With mitosis you get ___, _________ cells, but with meiosis, you get ___, ____________.
a)
4 different, 2 identical
b)
4 identical, 2 different
c)
2 different, 4 identical
d)
2 identical, 4 different
139.

The exchange of chromosome segments between sister chromatids is called ________. This process helps create genetic diversity, promoting the possibility for useful adaptation.

a)

Hypocondriatic spindoliosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Crossing over

d)

Mitosis

140.

The attached diagram shows pairs of homologous chromosomes, with mixed genes, lined up in the equatorial plane of a cell.

What step of which phase of cell division in being illustrated in this diagram?

a)

Metaphase in meiosis

b)

Metaphase in mitosis

c)

Anaphase in meiosis

d)

Anaphase in mitosis

141.

Taq polymerase is the enzyme used in PCR to order nucleotides along a strand of DNA, replicating the strand.

Why do we use Taq polymerase, specifically?

a)

Taq polymerase is the only enzyme capable of replicating DNA

b)

Taq polymerase is more efficient than any other enzyme

c)

Taq polymerase is heat resistant, which helps it endure denaturation

142.

In the annealing step of PCR, a primer is attached to a DNA strand. Select TWO answer choices below to answer each of the following questions:


1. What is the purpose of the primer in the Annealing step?

  1. 2. How are DNA strands separated in PCR?

a)

The primer indicates where Taq polymerase should attach to the strand to begin ordering nucleotides

b)

The primer undergoes endocytosis, breaking the nitrogen bonds and separating DNA strands

c)

The DNA strands absorb the primer, breaking it down to make the lipids they will need for new RNA

d)

DNA strands are denatured in PCR by heating them until the hydrogen bonds break down

143.

Eyelash vipers, Bothriechis schlegelii, are a nocturnal species of tropical pit viper in the central Americas.

These arboreal hunters have 36 chromosomes in their diploid somatic (body) cells. How many chromosomes are in their haploid sex cells?

(a)  

144.

Taq polymerase is the enzyme used in PCR to order nucleotides along a strand of DNA, replicating the strand.

Why do we use Taq polymerase, specifically?

a)

Taq polymerase is the only enzyme capable of replicating DNA

b)

Taq polymerase is more efficient than any other enzyme

c)

Taq polymerase is heat resistant, which helps it endure denaturation

145.

The attached diagram depicts homologous chromosomes, with mixed genes, being pulled apart to opposite poles of a cell.

What step of which phase of cell division is shown?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Anaphase I

146.

What are the stages of each round of cell division in meiosis, including cytokinesis?

a)

Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Cytokinesis, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

d)

Cytokinesis, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase

147.

In the diagram illustrated, pairs homologous chromosomes are aligned in the middle of the cell. What phase of meiosis is depicted?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Prophase II

d)

Anaphase I

148.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

149.

California Redwood trees, Sequoia sempervirens, is the largest singular organism in the world, reaching heights of 300 ft.

Its haploid gametes have 3 chromosomes, thus when its zygotes are formed, how many chromosomes will their diploid cells have?

a)

2

b)

6

c)

9

d)

10

150.

The attached diagram shows pairs of homologous chromosomes, with mixed genes, lined up in the equatorial plane of a cell.

What step of which phase of cell division in being illustrated in this diagram?

a)

Metaphase in meiosis

b)

Metaphase in mitosis

c)

Anaphase in meiosis

d)

Anaphase in mitosis

151.

A heterozygous long-tusked African elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant.

What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?

a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
152.

In a cross between two heterozygous parents, what is the probability of heterozygous offspring?

a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
100%
153.

Sheep have iconically white wool, a dominant trait. However, sheep can have black wool, though it is an uncommon and recessive trait.

If two heterozygous sheep mate, what are the odds that their offspring will have black wool?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

154.

Why is it so important for the health of small, isolated populations that inbreeding be avoided?

a)

Small populations can exhaust their genetics, running out of genes

b)

Isolated populations do not have access to stronger genetics, making them shorter

c)

Inbreeding increases the likelihood of recessive genetic diseases

155.

The mating season has begun and a male moose's body begins to change in preparation. Hormones are sent from the moose's pituitary glands, telling its body to begin changing.

The moose's neck adds more than 30 pounds of muscle, it grows powerful antlers, and the hormone testosterone increases its aggression toward other males.

Which body system is primarily being utilized here?

a)

Structural - Skeletal system

b)

Digestive - Excretory system

c)

Communication - Endocrine system

d)

Exchange - Respiratory system

156.

Many invertebrates have an (a)   . This external system provides structures for their bodies and protects their internal organs and environment.

157.

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the organization of life, if the arrows (-->) indicate increasing levels of complexity?

a)

Organisms --> organs --> cells --> body systems --> environments

b)

Tissues --> cells --> organisms --> organs --> body systems --> organisms

c)

Biomolecules --> organelles --> cells --> tissues --> organs --> organisms

158.

A Mexican free tail bat hunts small insects in the dark by echolocating, the process of emitting high pitched calls and listening closely for how they come back to determine where objects are.

Which body system is being utilized as the bat perceives the sounds of the returning frequencies and calculates their position?

a)

Excretory system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Muscular system

d)

Integumentary system

159.

All life on earth is related through common ancestors, and all organisms have speciated into different groups.

Which kingdom contains the majority of species on earth?

a)

Plantae

b)

Fungi

c)

Bacteria

d)

Animalia

160.

A grasshopper wants to move on to another source of food, and so sends an electrical signal to its legs. There the electrical charge is conducted across membranes by ion potentials, until it reaches the muscles along the grasshopper's femur.

There the electrical charge shifts the ions in the calcium channels, contracting the myofibrils, extending the leg, and allowing the grasshopper to jump. Which body systems were used (select two correct answers) in this biological interaction?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Muscular System

c)

Integumentary System

d)

Nervous System

161.

Which of the following are accurate characteristics of animals?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Multicellular

c)

Capable of chemosynthesis

d)

Capable of sexual reproduction

162.

Which of the following describe an interaction between the endocrine and circulatory systems, supporting the survival of bluefin tuna?

a)

The fish's brain registers the presence of a sea lion and signals the muscles to begin rapidly swimming away from a cove, back into open waters

b)

As temperatures rise, the tuna's body is flooded is with luteinizing hormone, stimulating ovulation (egg production) in time for breeding months

c)

The tuna's body is flooded with the hormone adrenaline, signaling an increased rate of blood flow and faster heart rate as a great white shark pursues it

163.

Which two systems are most directly involved when a comb jellyfish feeds on other jellyfish species, extracts nutrients from their prey, and eliminates waste?

a)

Nervous and digestive systems

b)

Reproductive and structural systems

c)

Digestive and excretory systems

d)

Integumentary and excretory systems

164.

A japanese rhinoceros beetle living in a lush forest is home to an entire community of mites, who parasitize their large host.

The mites introduce bacteria into beetles system, which releases phagocyte cells to try and destroy the intrusive prokaryotes. Which body system is being utilized by the beetle?

a)

Reproductive system

b)

Immune system

c)

Structural system

d)

Nervous system

165.

Which three body systems most directly allow fish to swim?

a)

Integumentary, muscular, endocrine

b)

Muscular, nervous, skeletal

c)

Digestive, skeletal, reproductive

d)

Immune, skeletal, kinetic

166.

The immune system defends the bodies of animals from internal threats. These threats include (a)   , some of which are microorganisms which attempt to grow inside of hosts.

167.

When the body needs to communicate messages calling for lasting biological change, the _________ system sends chemical messengers, while the ___________ system carries these messengers to different parts of the body.

Select both correct answers.

a)

Endocrine

b)

Immune

c)

Integumentary

d)

Circulatory

168.

Portia jumping spiders are a genus of Salticidae spiders specialized in hunting other spiders. While their prey could be deadly to them, Portia overcome their formidable prey with superior intelligence.

Which of the following is an example of a Portia jumping spider using its highly adapted nervous system to hunt. Choose two answers.

a)

The Portia has quick reflexes which can rapidly seize physically larger prey

b)

The Portia can learn new hunting methods for new species of prey, remembering them for later use

c)

The Portia has complex camouflage, which helps hide it from the vision of the other spiders which it hunts

d)

The Portia spiders map out the webs of their prey and strategize how to safely attack them

169.

Many species of biting flies parasitize large mammals, causing blood loss and transmitting disease. Horses have developed physical behaviors to repel these parasites, such as ear twitching, stomping, and tail swishing.

Which of the following best describes these interactions between body systems, which allow horses to repel flies with the above behaviors?

a)

The nervous system senses parasites and sends signals to the muscular system to move

b)

The circulatory system transports immune cells to the skin to repel the flies

c)

The skeletal system protects the horse with an exoskeletal integumentary system

d)

The integumentary system senses the flies and signals the excretory system to eliminate the flies

170.

How do other body systems interact with the endocrine system to regulate body processes?

Select two correct answers.

a)

The nervous system signals the release of hormones throughout the body

b)

The immune system helps prevent infection from hormones within the body

c)

The digestive system converts hormones into nucleic acids to be used in other parts of the body

d)

The circulatory system moves hormones throughout the body to signal processes

171.

All animal brains are in constant need of oxygen and animals die within minutes without this constant supply.

Which system is thus in charge of ensuring that the nervous system has the nutrients which it needs to keep animals alive?

a)

Muscular system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Patton system

172.

Biological waste eliminated by the excretory system can best be described as what?

a)

Materials which are toxic to the larger organism

b)

Materials which the organism eliminates to gain biological energy

c)

Valuable materials which are in excess of needed amounts

d)

Materials which the organism has created to facilitate reproduction

173.

The pituitary gland is a small section of many animal's brains which controls the long term growth and regulation of many other hormone releasing glands and organs.

This gland is often considered the primary organ of which body system?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Immune

c)

Endocrine

d)

Digestive

174.

The (a)   system makes up the outermost layer of an organism, including many accessory structures, such as continuously grown antlers, claws, fur, and feathers.

175.

Which of the following describes the interactions between body systems which allow terrestrial, vertebrate animals to perform a breath through lungs?

a)

Muscular, endocrine, respiratory

b)

Circulatory, skeletal, digestive

c)

Respiratory, muscular, nervous

d)

Integumentary, nervous, digestive

176.

Invertebrates who have external structures which provide structure and which protect inner body environment for homeostasis have combined which two systems?

a)

Integumentary and muscular

b)

Respiratory and muscular

c)

Endocrine and respiratory

d)

Skeletal and integumentary

177.

Which of the following would be an example of an internal stimulus being sensed by the nervous system?

a)

The heat from a nearby flame

b)

The ache of a ruptured blood vessel

c)

The physical sensation from a moved hair

d)

The vibration of an earthquake underfoot

178.

Gharials are a species of asian crocodilian which specialize in hunting freshwater fish. While they have effective eyesight, they often hunt fish in muddy waters and, like many crocodilians snap quickly at objects which touch their snouts.

Which systems allow for this hunting strategy?

a)

Integumentary, nervous, muscular

b)

Endocrine, digestive, nervous

c)

Respiratory, muscular, skeletal

d)

Reproductive, circulatory, endocrine

179.

Which body system is most directly in charge of the gradual developments which lead animals through various life stages, such as those which support reproduction?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Reproductive system

d)

Circulatory system

180.

The noses of terrestrial mammals produce mucus along the inner nostril to protect the passage into the throat and lungs from infectious microbes and foreign substances.

This mucus is produced by what body system?

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Immune system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Circulatory system

181.

While the hard, calcified outer structure of bones is dead tissue, the inner marrow of bones is actually alive. This soft inner tissue performs many vital biological functions in vertebrates, including the production of blood cells, and antipathogenic cells (such as lymphocytes and white blood cells).

In which three body systems is bone marrow involved?

a)

Skeletal system

b)

Immune system

c)

Endocrine system

d)

Circulatory system

182.

Which of the below options is an accurate definition of a hormone?

a)

A biochemical produced by the endocrine system, which signals other biological systems

b)

A group of cells which act receptors for chemical messengers sent around the body

c)

Body systems which communicate back and forth to coordinate biological processes

183.

Which of the following is a method by which the body defends itself against pathogens?

a)

Raising the internal body temperature to fever

b)

Sending monocytes to dissolve the remnants of infected cells

c)

Transporting blood cells to infected tissues

d)

All of these are functions of the immune system

184.

Snakes often prey upon species larger than their own diameter or mouth gape. The lower mandible bones of snakes are connected together and to the rest of their skulls by flexible ligaments and their skin is much more elastic than or own.

Which two body systems are most directly connected to the snake's ability to swallow large prey?

a)

Muscular

b)

Skeletal

c)

Nervous

d)

Integumentary

185.

Pictured to the left is an organelle near the nucleus, which synthesizes lipids and hormones. This structure also helps to detoxify cellular waste.

What is the name of this structure?

a)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Lysosomes

186.

This organelle is double membraned, contains its own genetic information, and is the site of cellular respiration.

What is the name and function of this organelle?

a)

Chloroplast - absorbs light and uses its energy to create processable carbohydrates

b)

Vacuole - stores cellular materials, such as vital nutrients and waste

c)

Mitochondria - intakes oxygen and glucose to create ATP

d)

Nucleus - stores DNA, creates RNA, and synthesizes ribosomes

187.

What are the three main functions of proteins?

a)

Energy storage

b)

Aids in cellular transport

c)

Enzymatic function

d)

Communicates genetic information

e)

Provides cellular structure

188.

Which of the following controls the process of cell differentiation?

a)

DNA is altered during the cell cycle

b)

Mutations develop in the DNA of an organism

c)

Specific genes are activated with specific stimuli

d)

Different types of cells have different DNA

189.

The drug PAT-833 induces apoptosis in cancer cells by forcing them to bypass the G2 checkpoint and immediately continue cell division.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the drug force the cancer cells prematurely into?

a)

G1 Phase

b)

S Phase

c)

G2 Phase

d)

M Phase

190.

What is the significance of crossing over in the replicative process of meiosis?

a)

Genes in the gametes recombine to increase genetic variation

b)

Gametes duplicate to increase the final number of chromosomes

c)

Gametes ensure that they have the same total number of chromosomes

d)

Genes replicate to ensure that offspring have the same traits as their parents

191.

The following genotypes correspond to the following traits in a fictional species of viper:

B - green scales | b - blue scales | G - green eyes | g - grey eyes

If two heterozygous individuals (BbGg) are crossed and 16 offspring are produced, how many are predicted to have blue scales and green eyes?

(a)  

192.

What is the ideal PH of enzyme B?

(a)  

193.

What biological process is being illustrated in the attached diagram?

a)

Transcription - which occurs to change genetic code using RNA

b)

Transcription - which occurs to copy genetic code so that it can be used by the cell

c)

Translation - which occurs to create proteins from a template

d)

Translation - which occurs to allow DNA to leave the nucleus

194.

A helical diagram of DNA is displayed. What does the order of the nitrogenous bases (A, T, C, G) determine?

a)

The genetic code of an organism?

b)

Polarity of a nitrogenous base

c)

Presence of a hydrogen bond

d)

Presence of a fifth nitrogenous base

195.

Based on the diagram of a viral process, how do viruses cause disease?

a)

Using the host cell's resources to replicate, the virus disrupts the cell's normal functions

b)

The virus provides the host cell with extra DNA, helping it to function more efficiently

c)

Replicating the space between the cells, without affecting the cell directly

196.

How does the interphase of the cell cycle contribute to the growth of organisms?

a)

Creating new chromosomes to prepare for cell division

b)

Separating chromosomes from one cell into two daughter cells

c)

Replicating DNA and preparing the cell for division

d)

Separating a cell's cytoplasm into two new cells

197.

A student creates a chart comparing the transfer of energy in photosynthesis and respiration.

Mark the correct energy sources for each process (there are two correct answers).

a)

Photosynthesis

chemical energy

b)

Photosynthesis

light energy

c)

Respiration

chemical energy

d)

Respiration

light energy

198.

Within the gene which encodes for the hemoglobin protein, glutamic acid is sometimes replaced with valine.

Based on the diagram, what mutation occurs at this point on the hemoglobin gene?

a)

Missense - a single nucleotide substitution results in a different amino acid

b)

Silence - the change in DNA sequence does not affect the amino acid chain

c)

Nonsense - the change of a single nucleotide creates a premature stop codon, ending the chain

d)

Frameshift - the deletion of a codon causes all amino acids to change position

199.

Modern cats can trace their ancestry to wild cats of the desert, whose bodies evolved with efficient water conservation adaptations, like filtering concentrated urine from their kidneys and reabsorbing water.

Domestic cats still need diets of moisture rich food, because of this heritage. Which two body systems are maintaining this homeostasis in domestic cats?

a)

Muscular system

b)

Digestive system

c)

Excretory system

d)

Endocrine system

e)

Reproductive system

200.

Which pair of statements best contrasts nucleic acids found in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

a)

Eukaryotes - nucleic acids are linear and found in the nucleus

Prokaryotes - nucleic acids are circular and free floating

b)

Prokaryotes - nucleic acids are linear and found in the nucleus

Eukaryotes - nucleic acids are circular and free floating

c)

Eukaryotes - nucleic acids are single stranded in the nucleus

Prokaryotes - nucleic acids are double stranded and free floating

d)

Eukaryotes - nucleic acids are double stranded and free floating

Prokaryotes - nucleic acids are single stranded in the nucleus