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MCN 2nd year

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

is a fluid that consists of erythrocytes and leukocytes, thrombocytes

a)

Blood

b)

pus

c)

amniotic fluid

d)

mucus

2.

the blood that is returned to the right atrium is?

a)

oxygenated

b)

deoxygenated

c)

both oxygenated and deoxygenated

d)

none of the above

3.

also known as the heart's pacemaker

4.

refers to the movement of specific electrolytes into and out of peacemaker cells that spread to nearby cells

a)

Cardiac Arrest

b)

Cardiac Potential

c)

Cardiac Action Potentional

d)

Cardiac Rate Potential

5.

is caused by the slow influx of sodium ions till the threshold is reached

a)

Polarization

b)

Depolarization

c)

Postpotential

d)

Prepotential

6.

the heart is enclosed in what specific sac?

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

d)

pericardium

7.

it serves as a barrier between cardiac muscles and the bloodstream and contains necessary blood vessels, it is also the heart's innermost layer?

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

d)

pericardium

8.

is known as the muscular layer of the heart, which contracts and releases involuntarily, and is responsible for keeping the heart pumping blood around the body.

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

d)

pericardium

9.

the outermost layer of the heart which provides signals for proper heart formation and maturation within the embryo and secreting factors that are important for the proliferation and survival of cardiomyocytes

a)

epicardium

b)

myocardium

c)

endocardium

d)

pericardium

10.

there are _ layers of the heart

a)

4

b)

3

c)

5

d)

2

11.

known as thrombocytes, they also help in the process of blood that is clotting

a)

WBC

b)

plasma

c)

platelets

d)

RBC

12.

also known as leukocytes, they are the vanguard that protect the body from infection

a)

WBC

b)

RBC

c)

Plasma

d)

Platelets

13.

is the liquid component of blood, in which the red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are suspended. It constitutes more than half of the blood's volume and consists mostly of water that contains dissolved salts (electrolytes) and proteins

a)

WBC

b)

RBC

c)

Plasma

d)

Platelets

14.

is the liquid component of blood, in which the red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are suspended. It constitutes more than half of the blood's volume and consists mostly of water that contains dissolved salts (electrolytes) and proteins

a)

WBC

b)

RBC

c)

Plasma

d)

Platelets

15.

how many chambers are in a heart?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

5

16.

this system transports nutrients and oxygen throughout the body

a)

Lymphatic system

b)

Cardiovascular system

c)

Respiration System

d)

Nervous System

17.

deoxygenated blood is passed through the _________ to be pumped through the pulmonary artery to the lungs for re-oxygenation and removal of carbon dioxide

a)

left ventricle

b)

left atrium

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

18.

the _____ _______ receives the newly oxygenated blood from the lungs and the pulmonary vein

a)

left atrium

b)

right atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

right ventricle

19.

choose the correct pattern where blood is circulated through the heart

1. right atrium

2. left ventricle

3. right ventricle

4. left atrium

a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,3,2,4

c)

1,3,4,2

d)

2,4,3,1

20.

this type of circulation provides a blood supply to the heart muscle itself. It begins near the origin of the aorta by two coronary arteries: the right coronary artery and the left coronary artery.

a)

cardiac system circulation

b)

pulmonary circulation

c)

bronchial circulation

d)

all of the above

e)

none of the above

21.

supplies blood to the tissue of the larger airways of the lung.

a)

cardiac system circulation

b)

pulmonary circulation

c)

bronchial circulation

d)

all of the above

e)

pulmonary and bronchial circulation

22.

this circulation focuses on the lungs where oxygen-depleted blood is pumped away from the heart, via the pulmonary artery, to the lungs and returned, oxygenated, to the heart via the pulmonary vein.

a)

cardiac system circulation

b)

pulmonary circulation

c)

bronchial circulation

d)

all of the above

e)

pulmonary and bronchial circulation

23.

this cycle refers to the sequence of events in which the heart contracts and relaxes with every heartbeat.

a)

Cardiac Cycle

b)

Respiratory Cycle

c)

Pregnancy Cycle

d)

Menstruation Cycle

24.

also known as the relaxation period of the heart where the ventricles refills with blood as they relax

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

tachystole

d)

bradystole

25.

also known as the contraction period of the heart where the ventricles contract as they force the blood out of the aorta and main pulmonary artery

a)

systole

b)

diastole

c)

tachystole

d)

bradystole

26.

is a measurement of the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Cardiac outcome

c)

Cardian input

d)

Cardiac cycle

27.

volume of the blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole or before contaction

a)

payload

b)

preload

c)

afterload

d)

contractility

28.

the ability of the ventricles to stretch.

a)

payload

b)

preload

c)

afterload

d)

contractility

e)

stretchability

29.

resistance against which the ventricle pump

a)

payload

b)

preload

c)

afterload

d)

contractility

e)

stretchability

30.

  is due to a slow influx of sodium ions until the threshold is reached, followed by a rapid depolarization and repolarization.

a)

post potential

b)

depolarization

c)

prepotential

d)

Cardiac Action Potential

31.

refers to when the sinoatrial cells are resting, they have a negative charge on their membranes.

a)

post potential

b)

depolarization

c)

prepotential

d)

Cardiac Action Potential

e)

polarization

32.

 

All the ions travel through ion channels in the membrane of the sinoatrial cells. The potassium and calcium start to move out of and into the cell only once it has a sufficiently high charge which is termed as?

a)

Volume-Gated

b)

Voltage-Gated

c)

Channel-Gated

d)

Cell-Gated

33.

a process allowing the muscle cells of the ventricles to regain their ability to depolarize again.

a)

Repolarization

b)

Polarization

c)

Depolarization

d)

Unpolarization

34.

often therapy for cardiovascular disorder to correct the congenital concerns.

a)

Open Heart Surgery

b)

Closed Heart Surgery

c)

Heart Valve Repair

d)

Cardiotomy

35.

blue tinge to the skin or mucous which occur if a shunt allowing deoxygenated blood to enter the arterial system.

a)

Cyanosis

b)

Halitosis

c)

Jaundice

d)

Hyperpigmentation

36.

which is not a factor influencing the size and shape of the pelvis:

a)

environmental factor

b)

developmental factor

c)

metabolic factor

d)

Racial Factor

37.

as excessive androgen may produce (_____) pelvis.

a)

android

b)

gynecoid

c)

anthropoid

d)

platypelloid

38.

which is not an example of catecholamines

a)

dopamine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

epinephrine

d)

Prostaglandines

39.

Catecholamines help the body respond to stress or fright and prepare the body for ______ reactions

a)

environmental

b)

negative

c)

positive

d)

fight or flight

40.

this used to be called adrenaline

a)

dopamine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

epinephrine

d)

Prostaglandines

41.

this is also called noradrenaline

a)

dopamine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

epinephrine

d)

Prostaglandines

42.

The sympathetic system release epinephrine as the parasympathetic releases what to counteract sympathetic reactions??

a)

dopamine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

epinephrine

d)

Prostaglandines

43.

which component of labor does maternal psychological status refer to?

a)

Psyche

b)

Position

c)

Passage

d)

Passenger

e)

Powers

44.

refers to a fetus with a fetal part other than the head engaging the maternal pelvis.

a)

Fetal Malpresentation

b)

Fetal Malposition

c)

Fetal correction

d)

Fetal Complication

45.

occurs when the occiput of fetuses who are in vertex presentation is rotated so that it is not oriented anteriorly in the maternal pelvis.

a)

Fetal Malpresentation

b)

Fetal Malposition

c)

Fetal correction

d)

Fetal Complication

46.

refers to a malpresentation at childbirth where the baby is in a transverse lie (its vertebral column is perpendicular to that of the mother)

a)

Breech

b)

Compound

c)

Shoulder

d)

Vertex

47.

known as the "crown of the head" which indicates that the crown of the head is presenting towards the cervix.

a)

Breech

b)

Compound

c)

Shoulder

d)

Vertex

48.

is a fetal presentation in which an extremity presents alongside the part of the fetus closest to the birth canal.

a)

Breech

b)

Compound

c)

Shoulder

d)

Vertex

49.

A fetal position during delivery in which the frontal part of the skull including the forehead and the top of the head is first to descend into the birth canal.

a)

Sincipal Presentation

b)

Face Presentation

c)

Brow Presentation

d)

Fontanelle Presentation

50.

the fetal head and neck are hyperextended, causing the occiput to come in contact with the upper back of the fetus while lying in a longitudinal axis. Edema and bruising of the face, eyes, and lips are common occurrences; prepare the client for this possibility before seeing the infant for the first time

a)

Sincipal Presentation

b)

Face Presentation

c)

Brow Presentation

d)

Fontanelle Presentation

51.

The fetal forehead is the presenting part and 50% convert to vertex or face presentation where The presenting diameter is mento-vertical which is 13.5cm

a)

Sincipal Presentation

b)

Face Presentation

c)

Brow Presentation

d)

Fontanelle Presentation

52.

occurs when the baby's buttocks or feet or both are in place to come out first during birth. this presentation is often determined by fetal ultrasound at the end of pregnancy.

a)

Sincipal Presentation

b)

Face Presentation

c)

Brow Presentation

d)

Fontanelle Presentation

e)

Breech Presentation

53.

is the first form of fluid that is released by the mammary glands after giving birth. It's nutrient-dense and high in antibodies and antioxidants to build a newborn baby's immune system.

a)

breastmilk

b)

amniotic fluid

c)

colustrum

d)

colostrom

e)

colostrum

54.

what type of breech presentation is it called when the sacrum is the presenting part, knees flexed and both of the baby's knees are bent and his feet and bottom are closest to the birth canal.

a)

Frank Breech

b)

Complete Breech

c)

Incomplete Breech

d)

Footlong Breech

55.

the sacrum is the presenting part, the baby's bottom is down, but his legs are straight up with his feet near his head or extended. this is the most common breech presentation

a)

Frank Breech

b)

Complete Breech

c)

Incomplete Breech

d)

Footlong Breech

56.

one or both feet are presenting downward, increasing the risk of umbilical cord prolapse and will deliver before the rest of their body.

a)

Frank Breech

b)

Complete Breech

c)

Incomplete Breech

d)

Footlong Breech

57.

this maneuver is the sweeping/external rotation of each thigh combined with rotating the pelvis in the opposite direction resulting in the flexion of the knee and the delivery of each leg.

a)

Pinard's

b)

Loveset's

c)

Nostradamus'

d)

Mauriceau - Smelilie- Viet maneuver

e)

McRoberts maneuver

58.

– hyperflex maternal hips (knees to chest position) and tell the patient to stop pushing. This widens the pelvic outlet by flattening the sacral promontory and increasing the lumbosacral angle.

a)

Pinard's

b)

Loveset's

c)

Nostradamus'

d)

Mauriceau - Smelilie- Viet maneuver

e)

McRoberts maneuver

59.

which is performed by placing the index and middle fingers over the maxillary prominence on either side of the nose.

a)

Pinard's

b)

Loveset's

c)

Nostradamus'

d)

Mauriceau - Smelilie- Viet maneuver

e)

McRoberts maneuver

60.

rotation of the trunk of the fetus during a breech birth to facilitate delivery of the arms and the shoulders

a)

Pinard's

b)

Loveset's

c)

Nostradamus'

d)

Mauriceau - Smelilie- Viet maneuver

e)

McRoberts maneuver

61.

reveal ventricle enlargement if the shunt is large as well as check your heart's rhythm and electrical activity. Sensors attached to the skin are used to detect the electrical signals produced by your heart each time it beats.

a)

CT angiography

b)

Cardiac catheterization

c)

Echocardiography with color flow Doppler

d)

Electrocardiography (ECG)

e)

Chest X-ray

62.

patent ductus measures the speed and direction of the blood flow within the heart. It screens the four valves for leaks and other abnormalities.

a)

CT angiography

b)

Cardiac catheterization

c)

Echocardiography with color flow Doppler

d)

Electrocardiography (ECG)

e)

Chest X-ray

63.

is used to study the various functions of the heart or to obtain diagnostic information about the heart or its vessels and rule out any associate disorder.

a)

CT angiography

b)

Cardiac catheterization

c)

Echocardiography with color flow Doppler

d)

Electrocardiography (ECG)

e)

Chest X-ray

64.

an imaging test that uses X-rays to look at the structures and organs in your chest.

a)

CT angiography

b)

Cardiac catheterization

c)

Echocardiography with color flow Doppler

d)

Electrocardiography (ECG)

e)

Chest X-ray

65.

a type of medical test that combines a CT scan with an injection of a special dye to produce pictures of blood vessels and tissues in a part of your body.

a)

CT angiography

b)

Cardiac catheterization

c)

Echocardiography with color flow Doppler

d)

Electrocardiography (ECG)

e)

Chest X-ray

66.

is a condition that affects bone development in children. It causes bone pain, poor growth, and soft, weak bones that can lead to bone deformities. 

a)

osteoporosis

b)

otitis media

c)

osteomalacia

d)

rickets

67.

refers to a marked softening of your bones, most often caused by severe vitamin D deficiency. 

a)

osteoporosis

b)

otitis media

c)

osteomalacia

d)

rickets

68.

pharmacologic agents that suppress or stop uterine contraction

 

a)

Tocolytic

b)

cortiscosteroids

c)

relaxin

d)

Analgesic

69.

a hormone produced by the ovary and the placenta with important effects on the female reproductive system and during pregnancy. In preparation for childbirth, it relaxes the ligaments in the pelvis and softens and widens the cervix. 

a)

Tocolytic

b)

cortiscosteroids

c)

relaxin

d)

Analgesic

70.

a hormone produced by the ovary and the placenta with important effects on the female reproductive system and during pregnancy. In preparation for childbirth, it relaxes the ligaments in the pelvis and softens and widens the cervix. 

a)

Tocolytic

b)

cortiscosteroids

c)

relaxin

d)

Analgesic

71.

-  is an incision made in the perineum (the tissue between the vaginal opening and the anus during childbirth

a)

episiotomy

b)

colostomy

c)

Amniotomy

d)

Periniotomy

72.

an emergency procedure instituted during labor to treat fetal distress by stopping uterine contractions with a tocolytic agent and allowing the restoration of maternal-fetal circulation so that the fetus can recover from distress

 

a)

Intrauterine resuscitation

b)

Extrauterine resuscitation

c)

Extrauterine recumberation

d)

Intrauterine recumberation

73.

delivery of the fetus through an abdominal incision

a)

Cesarean

b)

Caesarean

c)

Caucasian

d)

Crustacean

74.

stimulating uterine contractions by pharmacologic means to hasten labor and delivery

a)

Augmentation of labor

b)

Trial of Labor

c)

Progression of Labor

d)

Stimulation of Labor

75.

 is a condition in which the body or a region of the body is deprived of adequate oxygen supply at the tissue level.

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Hypoglycemia

76.

artificial breaking of the amniotic sac to hasten labor

a)

hysterotomy

b)

Amniotomy

c)

craniotomy

d)

uterotomy

77.

is a technique used by doctors to free a baby from the birth canal in cases of shoulder dystocia. The doctor's hand is placed behind the non-impacted shoulder of the baby. The shoulder is rotated in a twist maneuver until the impacted shoulder is released.

a)

Woods screw maneuver

b)

Gaskin's Maneuver

c)

Mc. Robert's Maneuver

d)

Loveset maneuver

78.

Rolling the patient onto her hands and knees, known as the all-fours, is a safe, rapid, and effective technique for the reduction of shoulder dystocia.

a)

Woods screw maneuver

b)

Gaskin's Maneuver

c)

Mc. Robert's Maneuver

d)

Loveset maneuver

79.

occurs when a baby's head or body is too large to fit through the mother's pelvis

a)

Cephalopelvic disproportion 

b)

Cephalic disproportion

c)

pelvic disproportion

d)

Both A and B

80.

recognized when the fetal head is delivered onto the perineum but appears to be pulled back tightly against the perineum

a)

head dystocia

b)

brow dystocia

c)

shoulder dystocia

d)

cranial dystocia

81.

          Anterior-posterior diameter less than 10 centimeters; transverse diameter less than 12 centimeters. Makes engagement difficult, Influences fetal position and presentation

a)

Contracted Pelvic Inlet

b)

Contracted Mid-Pelvic Plane

c)

Contracted Pelvic Outlet

d)

Contracted Cephalopelvic Inlet

82.

interspinous diameter less than 9.5cm, this type of pelvic shape hampers internal rotation of the fetal head and Secondary arrest of dilatation or arrest in the descent of the fetal head occurs

a)

Contracted Pelvic Inlet

b)

Contracted Mid-Pelvic Plane

c)

Contracted Pelvic Outlet

d)

Contracted Cephalopelvic Inlet

83.

          interischial tuberous diameter less than 8 cm.

a)

Contracted Pelvic Inlet

b)

Contracted Mid-Pelvic Plane

c)

Contracted Pelvic Outlet

d)

Contracted Cephalopelvic Inlet