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Major Exam 6 - Modules 10 & 11

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Hemostasis is known as what?

a)

Applying pressure

b)

Giving blood products

c)

Agents used to promote blood clotting

d)

Stopping the loss of blood

2.

Which type of blood donation protects the patient from potential compatibility mismatch?

a)

Autologous

b)

Homologous

c)

PRBC

d)

FFP

3.

All of the following are blood components except:

a)

Plasma

b)

FPP

c)

PRBC

d)

Platelets

4.

Blood replacement components are given to a patient via:

a)

PO

b)

SC

c)

IM

d)

IV

5.

Fibrinogen reacts with thrombin to form what?

a)

Platelets

b)

ADP

c)

Fibrin

d)

Thrombus

6.

How is thrombin applied as a hemostatic agent?

a)

Intravenously

b)

Topically

c)

Subcutaneously

d)

Intramuscularly

7.

All of the following are chemical hemostatic agents except:

a)

Thrombin

b)

Argon plasma

c)

Silver nitrate

d)

Epinephrine

8.

All of the following are mechanical hemostatic agents except:

a)

Pledgets

b)

Ligature

c)

Bone wax

d)

Gelfoam

9.

All of the following are thermal hemostatic agents except:

a)

Bovie

b)

Lasers

c)

Silver nitrate

d)

Harmonic scalpel

10.

What function does the protein hemoglobin do?

a)

Carries oxygen

b)

Forms blood clots

c)

Fights infection

d)

None of the above

11.

Which of the following gives blood it's red color?

a)

Platelets

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

ADP

12.

The patient's own blood is termed:

a)

Donor blood

b)

Homologous

c)

Autologous

d)

Synthetic blood products

13.

Donated blood is termed:

a)

Homologous

b)

Blood products

c)

Autologous

d)

Synthetic blood products

14.

What is essential for coagulation of blood?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Platelets

c)

White blood cells

d)

Hematocrit

15.

The amount of volume red blood cells take up in the blood is known as:

a)

Platelets

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Hematocrit

d)

White blood cells

16.

If the patient needs blood products but their blood type is unknown, which blood type can they receive?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

AB

17.

Red blood cells are responsible for what function?

a)

Protect the body from infection

b)

Essential in blood clot formation

c)

Releasing ADP

d)

Oxygen transportation

18.

Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in:

a)

Infectious hepatitis

b)

Agglutination

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Hyperglycemia

19.

If a patient is Rh positive:

a)

They do NOT have the antigen on the surface of red blood cells

b)

They can donate blood to everyone

c)

They do have the antigen found on red blood cells

d)

They cannot receive O negative blood

20.

The most common type of homologous blood replacement given in the OR is:

a)

FFP

b)

PRBCs

c)

Whole blood

d)

Plasma

21.

If the entire mass or lesion is removed it is known as:

a)

Permanent

b)

Incisional biopsy

c)

Frozen section

d)

Excisional biopsy

22.

If a portion of the mass or lesion is removed it is known as:

a)

Smear biopsy

b)

Incisional biopsy

c)

Frozen section

d)

Excisional biopsy

23.

Any tissue, fluid, or foreign body removed from a patient is known as:

a)

Specimen

b)

Pathology

c)

Biopsy

d)

Culture

24.

Cells collected from bronchi by means of irrigation is known as:

a)

Culture

b)

Bronchial smear

c)

Bronchial washings

d)

Lukens

25.

You should always send a frozen section/specimen to the lab immediately for analysis.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

All of the following should be sent to pathology dry except:

a)

Stones

b)

Permanent section

c)

Teeth

d)

Frozen section

27.

What specimen container is used during a bronchoscopy to collect bronchial washings?

a)

Lukens

b)

Tru-cut

c)

Jamshidi

d)

None of the above

28.

Who is responsible for the specimen on the sterile field?

a)

Surgeon

b)

Assistant

c)

ST

d)

Circulator

29.

If a specimen is obtained en bloc that means:

a)

In its original position

b)

Going for a frozen section

c)

Going for cultures

d)

Removed in one piece

30.

When is a brush biopsy performed?

a)

During an incisional biopsy

b)

During a flexible endoscopic procedure

c)

During a culture swab

d)

None of the above

31.

The Lukens tube must be held in what position during use?

a)

Level

b)

Sideways

c)

Upright

d)

Doesn't matter

32.

Which of the following are sent to pathology in formalin or saline?

a)

Permanent

b)

Frozen section

c)

Smear

d)

Culture

33.

All of the following are appropriate to place a specimen on except:

a)

Telfa

b)

Emesis basin

c)

Back table

d)

Raytec

34.

Bacteria cultures obtained during surgery include:

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Urine

d)

Both aerobic and anaerobic

35.

All of the following are true in regards to positioning the patient except:

a)

Patient's body does not touch any metal

b)

Bony prominences do not need to be padded

c)

Avoid hyperextension of limbs

d)

Ensure nothing is resting on the patient

36.

When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of:

a)

Patient anxiety

b)

Dispersal of cancer cells

c)

Contamination

d)

Infection

37.

The skin prep should be performed:

a)

In a side-to-side motion

b)

From the periphery to the incision site in a circular motion

c)

In an up-and-down motion

d)

From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion

38.

If the armboards are positioned more than 90 degrees this could cause what?

a)

Hypo-extension of the arms

b)

Low blood pressure

c)

Hyperextension of the arms

d)

None of the above

39.

All of the following may be used in neurological surgery except:

a)

Knee-crutch

b)

Wilson frame

c)

Jackson table

d)

Mayfield headrest

40.

Skeletal changes, limited ROM, and tissue fragility are all considerations when positioning what type of patient?

a)

Aging patient

b)

Bariatric patient

c)

Pediatric patient

d)

Pregnant patient

41.

The jackknife position is desirable for what type of surgery?

a)

Nephrectomy

b)

Lap. Chole

c)

Pilonidal cystectomy

d)

Laminectomy

42.

What is a precaution always taken when the patient is in supine position?

a)

Safety strap 3-4 inches below the knee

b)

Protect the heels from pressure

c)

Head always in a headrest

d)

Pillows under the knees

43.

The peroneal nerve can be injured primarily from which position?

a)

Supine

b)

Lateral

c)

Prone

d)

Lithotomy

44.

Supine position allows for optimum exposure to which major body cavities?

a)

Abdominal

b)

Thoracic

c)

Peritoneal

d)

All of the above

45.

In which position must the circulator confirm that ankles and legs are not crossed?

a)

Supine

b)

Lateral

c)

Prone

d)

Kraske

46.

The sciatic nerve is primarily injured in which surgical position?

a)

Supine

b)

Sitting

c)

Lateral

d)

Kraske

47.

Alcohol prep solutions must have what percentage of isopropyl alcohol to be effective?

a)

40

b)

50

c)

60

d)

70

48.

Risks associated with prep solutions pooling under a patient include:

a)

Causes no harm to the patient

b)

Chemical burn

c)

Blistering and skin loss

d)

Both chemical burn and blistering/skin loss

49.

The upper extremity table is also known as:

a)

Wilson frame

b)

Mayfield

c)

Hand table

d)

Armboard

50.

What is Trendelenburg position?

a)

When the OR bed is tilted with the feet down

b)

When the OR bed is tilted with the head down

c)

When the patient is positioned on the side

d)

When the OR bed is flexed into a sitting position

51.

What is Reverse Trendelenburg position?

a)

When the OR bed is tilted with the feet down

b)

When the OR bed is tilted with the head down

c)

When the patient is positioned on the side

d)

When the OR bed is flexed into a sitting position

52.

Improper padding, continuous pressure, and elbows tightly flexed could result in:

a)

Sciatica

b)

Foot drop

c)

Ulnar neuropathy

d)

All of the above

53.

Shoulder braces are used in which surgical position?

a)

Reverse Trendelenburg

b)

Lateral

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Trendelenburg

54.

A footboard is used in which surgical position?

a)

Reverse Trendelenburg

b)

Lateral

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Trendelenburg

55.

Why should prep solutions dry before applying the drapes?

a)

Strike through contamination

b)

Stick better

c)

Doesn't stain the drapes

d)

Antiseptic effect

56.

In order for the circulatory system to adjust while positioning the patient should be moved:

a)

Quickly

b)

Slowly

c)

With caution

d)

No precautions are necessary

57.

Abdominal perineal, donor and recipient, mastectomy with reconstruction all require what?

a)

Several specimens

b)

Two surgeons

c)

Two separate preps

d)

None of the above

58.

All of the following are false except:

a)

Eyebrows should be shaved with an electric razor

b)

Eyebrows should never be shaved

c)

Eyebrows should be shaved for any procedure near the eye

d)

If an eyebrow is to be shaved the other should also be shaved

59.

Air embolism is unique to which position?

a)

Fowler's

b)

Kraske

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Prone

60.

Which prep solution provides a rapid and significant reduction in skin microbial count?

a)

Iodine

b)

Chlorhexidine

c)

Iodophors

d)

Alcohol

61.

Which prep solution is known to have a long residual effect?

a)

Iodine

b)

Alcohol

c)

Chlorhexidine

d)

All of the above have the same residual effect

62.

It is permissible to use tissue forceps to grasp a bullet specimen in order to pass it off the field.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Where is an amputated limb sent initially?

a)

To pathology

b)

To the morgue

c)

It is discarded

d)

None of the above

64.

Damage to or loss of specimens results in:

a)

An incorrect diagnosis

b)

Repeat or needless surgery

c)

Delayed treatment

d)

All of the above

65.

Which of the following is considered a foreign body?

a)

Bullet

b)

An implant

c)

Wood

d)

All of the above

66.

The lithotomy position requires each of the following except:

a)

Patient's buttocks rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the table

b)

Stirrups are at equal height on both sides of the table

c)

Stirrups are at the appropriate height for the length of the patient's legs

d)

Each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes

67.

When using an armboard, the most important measure to take is to:

a)

Support the arm at the intravenous site

b)

Strap the patient's hand to it securely

c)

Avoid hyperextension of the arm

d)

Avoid hypoextension of the arm

68.

Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the:

a)

Cervical plexus

b)

Radial plexus

c)

Ulnar plexus

d)

Brachial plexus

69.

In positioning for laminectomy, rolls or bolsters are placed:

a)

Horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs

b)

Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip

c)

Longitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip

d)

Below the knees

70.

In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with a wedge under the right side to tilt the patient to the left?

a)

Cerclage

b)

Marsupialization of Bartholin's cyst

c)

Shirodkar

d)

Cesarean section

71.

In which position could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?

a)

Positioned on the fracture table

b)

Positioned in lateral chest

c)

Positioned in lithotomy

d)

Positioned on the urological table

72.

Another name for the supine position is:

a)

Prone

b)

Anteriolateral

c)

Dorsal recumbent

d)

Trendelenburg

73.

The following is a risk when positioning the patient on the OR table:

a)

Hyperextension of limbs

b)

Pressure on bony prominences

c)

Improper padding

d)

All of the above

74.

When removing a patient from lithotomy position:

a)

Lower the legs separately

b)

Lower the legs quickly

c)

Lower the legs together

d)

Lower stirrups, then remove legs

75.

OR tables/frames commonly used in spinal surgery include:

a)

Andrews

b)

Wilson

c)

Jackson

d)

All of the above

76.

Positioning aids used for lithotomy position include:

a)

Candy cane stirrups

b)

Yellofin stirrups

c)

Allen stirrups

d)

All of the above

77.

Another name for the Kraske position is:

a)

Prone

b)

Lateral

c)

Jackknife

d)

Knee-chest

78.

The desirable position for better visualization in the lower abdomen or pelvis is:

a)

Fowler's

b)

Reverse Trendelenburg

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

Kraske

79.

Cultures obtained during surgery:

a)

Are handled as any other specimen

b)

Are passed off the sterile field into a bag held by the circulator

c)

Should be kept warm

d)

Should be handled only by the surgical technologist

80.

How is a frozen section sent to pathology?

a)

In formalin

b)

In saline

c)

In water

d)

Dry

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