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general surgery part exam 2022-2

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements about primary sclerosis cholangitis is correct?

a)

Is frequently associated with high fever and chills

b)

Course is usually rapidly progressive to liver failure

c)

Can usually be managed successfully by anti-inflammatories and corticosteroids

d)

Is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease

2.

Which of the following regarding splenic trauma is true?

a)

Most children with blunt splenic trauma require splenectomy

b)

Patients may return to full-contact activity in 3 weeks

c)

Active blushes and pseudoaneuryms are usually managed non-surgically

d)

Splenic salvage is associated with increased transfusion.

3.

Which of the following proto-oncogenes is associated with a G protein defect?

a)

Myc

b)

Ras

c)

Src

d)

Erb B

4.

Which of the following antibodies is the most abundant in the body?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgD

5.

Regarding microsomal drug metabolism, which of the following is true?

a)

Phase II reactions describe demethylation, oxidation, reduction, and hyrolysis reactions

b)

Cimetidine is a P-450 inducer

c)

Warfarin is a P-450 inhibitor

d)

The P-450 system transforms aromatic hydrocarbons into carcinogens

6.

A schistosomiasis abscess is best treated by:

a)

Percutaneous drainage and antibiotics

b)

Flagyl

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Praziquantel

7.

An amoebic abscess is best treated by:

a)

Percutaneous drainage and antibiotics

b)

Flagyl

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Praziquantel

8.

A pyogenic abscess is best treated by:

a)

Percutaneous drainage and antibiotics

b)

Flagyl

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Praziquantel

9.

All of the following are true about bladder cancer except;

a)

The most common type is transitional cell carcinoma

b)

Schistosomiasis infection is a/w squamous cell cancer of the bladder

c)

Transitional cell cancer limited to the submucosa can be treated with intra-vesicle BCG or trans-urethral resection

d)

Transitional cell cancer with muscle invasion (T2) can be treated with wedge resection

10.

The most common type of ovarian tumor is:

a)

Epithelial

b)

Germ cell

c)

Sex-cord

d)

Lymphoma

11.

The following structures are found in the anterior compartment of the leg:

a)

Posterior tibial artery, peroneal artery, tibial nerve

b)

Anterior tibial artery and superficial peroneal nerve

c)

Sural nerve, gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris muscles

d)

Anterior tibial artery, deep peroneal nerve

12.

You are asked to see a 1-day old infant with Down’s syndrome due to feeding intolerance. In addition to the diagnosis of Down’s the records indicate that polyhydramnois was noted during the pregnancy. The mother describes the baby’s emesis as green. Which of the following condition does this child most likely have?

a)

Tracheoesophageal fistula

b)

Intussesception

c)

Duodenal atresia

d)

Pyloric stenosis

13.

A mother brings her 1-month old to you because of a sudden onset of bilious emesis. You examine the patient then order an upper GI which reveals that the duodenum does not cross the midline. Given the most likely diagnosis, what will ultimately be required to correct this problem?

a)

Pyloromyotomy

b)

Air-contrast enema

c)

Duodenojejunostomy

d)

Resect Ladd’s band, counterclockwise rotation of bowel, place cecum in LLQ (cecopexy), and perform an appendectomy

14.

A 48 yo male that drinks a case of beer daily had nausea and vomiting at home about 5 hours before he presents to the ER due to chest pain. Vitals- BP 100/50, HR 110; you subsequently bolus crystalloid. A chest xray shows a left effusion and pneumothorax. What is the most sensitive test to diagnose this pt’s condition?

a)

Abdominal CT

b)

Chest CT

c)

Angiogram

d)

Gastrograffin swallow followed by thin barium swallow

15.

The most common location for Boerhaave’s to occur is:

a)

The left posterior lower esophagus

b)

The left posterior middle esophagus

c)

The upper stomach

d)

The left posterior upper esophagus

16.

أجمل وحده مين ؟

a)

^_^

b)

وحدة

c)

^_^

d)

^_^

17.

You open the pt and find gastric contents coming out through a hole in his esophagus. You wash it out and then FIRST:

a)

Place a chest tube and close

b)

Perform a myotomy

c)

Full thickness bites where you see fluid coming out

d)

Esophagectomy

18.

All of the following are true about nitrous oxide (NO) except:

a)

Increases cAMP

b)

Precursor is arginine

c)

Released primarily from vascular endothelium

d)

Receptor is guanyl cyclase

19.

All of the following are true of the hepatic acute phase response except:

a)

IL-6 is the most potent stimulus

b)

Albumin is decreased

c)

C-reactive protein is increased

d)

Transferrin in increased

20.

Which correctly describes the zones of the retroperitoneum?

a)

Zone 1 includes the pelvis and is associated with pelvic fractures

b)

Zone 2 includes the central retroperitoneum

c)

If you find a hematoma in zone 2 when exploring the patient for blunt trauma, you do not have to explore it if it remains stable throughout the operation

d)

Zone 3 injuries, whether they are blunt or penetrating, always need to be explored

21.

Which of the following is true regarding the efficacy of prophylactic antibiotics following a GSW through the colon?

a)

Giving a single dose of abx 2 hrs preoperatively increases SSI in these patients

b)

Infection rates are significantly lower when antibiotics are given for a complete 5 day course

c)

There is no statistical difference when antibiotics are given within 2 hours of initial skin incision and when given within the first 3 hours when the skin incision is made

d)

There is no evidence supporting continuing abx beyond 24 hours even when the bowel is perforated

22.

Which of the following is the most important prognostic factor in patients with malignant melanoma?

a)

Surface size

b)

Tumor grade

c)

Depth

d)

SLN biopsy status

23.

Which of the following is NOT a component of informed consent?

a)

Disclosure

b)

Comprehension

c)

Competency

d)

Voluntariness

e)

Description of basic procedural standards of care

24.

Which of the following is true about the secretory diarrhea seen in gastrinoma patients?

a)

It partially is due to enterocyte damage from the excessive acid

b)

It can be improved by NG suctioning

c)

It may be the only complaint in around 20% of patients presenting with gastrinoma

d)

A and C only

e)

All of the above are true

25.

Which of the following forms does fat take to enter the lymphatic system and eventually reach the liver?

a)

Free fatty acids

b)

Chylomicrons

c)

Triglycerides

d)

Monoglycerides

26.

A 63 yo female with a longstanding history of Type 2 diabetes and noncompliance with medication presents with some bony deformity of her right foot and a clean ~4 cm plantar ulcer. The pulses are good and there is no evidence of cellulitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

a)

Ulcer debridement and skin graftingBony reconstruction and ulcer debridement

b)

Bony reconstruction and ulcer debridement

c)

Modified fitted boots

d)

Below knee amputation with early prosthetic fitting

27.

A 38 yo female underwent a laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication and hiatal hernia repair 2 days ago that was technically difficult. She now is mildly tachycardic and complains of shortness of breath. Chest x-ray shows an effusion on the left and a small amount of free air under the diaphragm. Her SBP is 140/90 mmHg and UOP is good. Which study is best to determine the site of leak?

a)

MRI of chest and abdomen

b)

Water-soluble contrast study

c)

EGD

d)

EUS

28.

Which of the following patients with an AAA should be offered elective repair?

a)

A 45 yo male with a 4 cm aneurysm that was 3.8 cm 6 months ago

b)

A 59 yo female with a 5.1 cm asymptomatic aneurysm

c)

A 61 yo male with a 4.8 cm aneurysm that was 4.0 cm 6 months ago

d)

All of the above should be offered elective repair

29.

Of the following, which is the most critical component of neovascularization in tumor metastases?

a)

HER receptor

b)

VEGF receptor

c)

Neu receptor

d)

FGF receptor

30.

Which of the following lab values is most consisted with primary hyperparathyroidism?

a)

Cl 105, phos, 3, elevated renal cAMP

b)

Cl 105, phos 4, elevated renal cAMP

c)

Cl 107, phos 3, and decreased renal cAMP

d)

Cl 106, phos 4, decreased renal cAMP