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Upper & Lower GI Assignment

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A high and transverse stomach would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

sthenic

b)

asthenic

c)

hyposthenic

d)

hypersthenic

2.

A patient comes to radiology with a history of a gastric ulcer. Which of the following procedures would be most diagnostic to demonstrate this lesion?

a)

Oral, water-soluble upper GI series

b)

Carbon dioxide upper GI series

c)

Double-contrast upper GI series

d)

Single-contrast barium sulfate upper GI series

3.

A stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L1-2 would be found in a(n) ____ patient.

a)

sthenic

b)

hyposthenic

c)

asthenic

d)

hypersthenic

4.

A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed:

a)

intussusception

b)

colitis

c)

diverticulosis.

d)

volvulus.

5.

A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:

a)

enteritis

b)

volvulus

c)

diverticulosis

d)

intussusception

6.

An infant is brought to the ED with a possible intussusception. Which of the following procedures may actually correct this condition?

a)

. Small bowel series

b)

Barium or air enema

c)

Small bowel enema

d)

Defecography

7.

At what level should the CR and image receptor be centered for the RAO or PA upper GI projection and/or position on asthenic body type of patient?

a)

L1

b)

Lower costal margin

c)

L3-4

d)

Iliac crest

8.

At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?

a)

During shallow breaths

b)

During deep breaths

c)

Suspended expiration

d)

Suspended inspiration

9.

CR centering for an esophagogram should be to the vertebral level of:

a)

T3 or T4

b)

the sternal angle

c)

T5 or T6.

d)

T7

10.

Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1-hour small bowel radiograph should be:

a)

1 inch (2.5 cm) below the level of the iliac crest

b)

2 inches (5 cm) above level of the iliac crest.

c)

at the level of the ASIS.

d)

at the level of the iliac crest.

11.

During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

a)

a. directly superior.

b)

b. toward the coccyx.

c)

c. toward the umbilicus.

d)

d. directly posterior.

12.

For an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is one 16-oz cup for a small bowel only series.

a)

true

b)

false

13.

How much barium is typically given to a 3- to 10-year-old child during an upper GI series?

a)

14 to 16 ounces

b)

6 to 12 ounces

c)

1 cup

d)

4 to 6 ounces

14.

How much obliquity is required for the RAO position for the esophagus?

a)

45 to 60 degrees

b)

35 to 40 degrees

c)

10 to 15 degrees

d)

20 to 30 degrees

15.

In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?

a)

Lithotomy

b)

Modified lithotomy

c)

Prone

d)

Sims’

16.

Lipids (fats) are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol as they are digested and absorbed by the:

a)

none of the options (are not digested).

b)

stomach only.

c)

stomach and small bowel.

d)

small bowel only.

17.

Once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastric secretions, it is termed:

a)

lipids.

b)

chyme

c)

bile

d)

biologic catalysts.

18.

Patient preparation for an adult upper GI series includes:

a)

NPO 8 hours before the procedure.

b)

NPO 24 hours before the procedure.

c)

NPO 24 hours before the procedure.

d)

NPO 4 hours before the procedure.

19.

Protective aprons worn during fluoroscopy must possess at least ____ mm lead equivalency (Pb/Eq.).

a)

0.25

b)

1

c)

0.75

d)

0.5

20.

Research suggests that peptic ulcers may be caused by:

a)

antibiotics

b)

smoking

c)

bacteria

d)

alcohol

21.

Saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of:

a)

lipids

b)

proteins

c)

starch

d)

minerals

22.

Swallowed air can be used as a negative-contrast medium during an upper GI series.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

The RAO position of the esophagus is preferred over the left anterior oblique (LAO) because it:

a)

is a more comfortable position for the patient

b)

is easier for the patient to hold the cup of barium in his or her left hand.

c)

reduces thyroid exposure to the patient.

d)

increases the visibility of the esophagus between the vertebrae and heart.

24.

The height of the enema bag must be set at 40 inches (100 cm) above the radiographic table at the onset of the study.

a)

false

b)

true

25.

The ideal kVp range for a double-contrast barium enema is:

a)

130 to 140

b)

70 to 80

c)

90 to 100.

d)

100 to 125.

26.

The liver is located primarily in the ____ of the abdomen.

a)

LLQ

b)

RLQ

c)

RUQ

d)

LUQ

27.

The liver performs more than 100 different physiologic functions.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

The liver secretes approximately ____ mL of bile per day.

a)

1200 to 1500

b)

100 to 250

c)

800 to 1000

d)

500 to 700

29.

The main function of bile is to:

a)

begin the digestion of complex sugars.

b)

begin the digestion of proteins.

c)

emulsify fats

d)

break down cholesterol.

30.

The patient must be NPO a minimum of ____ hours before the small bowel series.

a)

4

b)

24

c)

8

d)

6

31.

The “tapered,” or “corkscrew,” radiographic sign is often seen with:

a)

volvulus

b)

diverticulosis

c)

neoplasm

d)

intussusception

32.

Toward which aspect(s) of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in a prone position?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Body and pylorus

c)

Fundus

d)

Fundus and body

33.

What is the classification of barium sulfate as a contrast media?

a)

Radiopaque

b)

Negative-contrast media

c)

Radiolucent

d)

Isodense

34.

What is the term for the longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach?

a)

Gastric canal

b)

Haustra

c)

Valvulae conniventes

d)

Rugae

35.

What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?

a)

Suspensory ligaments

b)

Taenia coli

c)

Valvulae conniventes

d)

Haustra

36.

What type of breathing instructions should be given to the patient during an esophagogram using a thin barium mixture?

a)

Shallow breathing and continued swallowing during exposure

b)

Suspended inspiration after the last swallow

c)

Suspended respiration while continuing to swallow

d)

Exposure immediately after last bolus is swallowed (patient will not be breathing immediately after swallow)

37.

What type of contrast media is ideal for demonstrating a diverticulum within the stomach?

a)

Water soluble

b)

Single-contrast barium sulfate

c)

Radiolucent

d)

Double-contrast barium/negative-contrast agent

38.

When are small bowel series deemed to be complete?

a)

Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve

b)

Two hours after the ingestion of barium

c)

Once the contrast media reaches the rectum

d)

Once the contrast media passes the duodenojejunal flexure

39.

Where is bile formed?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Liver

c)

Duodenal mucosa

d)

Gallbladder

40.

Which aspect of the colon has the widest range of motion?

a)

Ascending colon

b)

Descending colon

c)

Sigmoid colon

d)

Transverse colon

41.

Which aspect of the gallbladder is labeled 1?

a)

Apex

b)

Neck

c)

Body

d)

Fundus

42.

Which aspect of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products along with water, vitamins, and minerals?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Small intestine

c)

Stomach

d)

Large intestine

43.

Which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum?

a)

Fundus

b)

Pylorus

c)

Body

d)

Cardiac

44.

Which of the following clinical indications would mandate the use of an oral, water-soluble contrast agent?

a)

Patient with a bezoar

b)

Patient with a possible perforated bowel

c)

Patient with a possible peptic ulcer

d)

Patient with esophageal reflux

45.

Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of a cathartic before a barium enema?

a)

Diverticulosis

b)

Diverticulitis

c)

Obstruction

d)

Colitis

46.

Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?

a)

Time

b)

shielding

c)

intensity

d)

distance

47.

Which of the following kVp ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate (single-contrast study)?

a)

125 to 140 kVp

b)

90 to 100 kVp

c)

80 to 90 kVp

d)

110 to 125 kVp

48.

Which of the following statements is true about barium sulfate?

a)

It rarely produces an allergic reaction.

b)

It should be discarded if not used within an hour after mixing.

c)

The patient may become ill if it is not prepared with sterile water.

d)

It is soluble in water.

49.

Which of the following structures is not considered to be an accessory organ of digestion?

a)

Pancreas

b)

Kidneys

c)

Liver

d)

Salivary glands

50.

Which of the following technical factors will best enhance a digital image taken during an upper GI series?

a)

Low-kVp techniques

b)

Use of compensation (wedge) filter

c)

Long SID

d)

Collimation

51.

Which one of the following cardinal principles of radiation protection is most effective in reducing the dose to the technologist during fluoroscopy?

a)

distance

b)

intensity

c)

time

d)

shielding

52.

Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?

a)

Sigmoid colon

b)

Cecum

c)

Right colic flexure

d)

Left colic flexure

53.

Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Pylorus

54.

Which part of the small intestine makes up three-fifths of its entirety?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Jejunum

c)

Ileum

d)

Ilium

55.

Which position taken during a barium enema will best demonstrate the left colic flexure?

a)

LPO

b)

RPO

c)

Left lateral decubitu

d)

AP

56.

Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine?

a)

Thickened mucosa

b)

“Napkin ring” or “apple core” sign

c)

Sail” sign

d)

Diverticula

57.

Which structure is labeled 1?

a)

Ascending colon

b)

Sigmoid colon

c)

Right colic flexure

d)

left colic flexure

58.

Which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach?

a)

Gastric border

b)

Incisura angularis

c)

Lesser curvature

d)

Greater curvature

59.

Which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus?

a)

Peristalsis and gravity

b)

Deglutition and mastication

c)

Gravity and deglutition

d)

Peristalsis and rhythmic segmentation

60.

“Chole-” is a prefix for terms pertaining to the:

a)

liver

b)

ducts

c)

gallbladder

d)

bile