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NUR354 pharm II exam 2 review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

what are the 3 components of the CV system?

a)

blood vessels

b)

heart

c)

blood

d)

CSF

2.

what is the criteria for normal BP? (please label the values)

(a)  

3.

what are the criteria to be diagnosed for HTN? SATA

a)

SBP >130

b)

DBP >80

c)

2-3 visits to establish baseline

d)

living sedentary lifestyle

4.

this term is defined as the hardening of blood vessels

a)

Arteriosclerosis

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Hypertension

5.

this term is defined as the buildup of plaque in the blood vessels

a)

Arteriosclerosis

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Aneurysm

d)

Hypertension

6.

what term defined rupture of the blood vessels?

(a)  

7.

identify some non-pharmacological interventions for hypertension. SATA

a)

quit smoking

b)

increase caffeine intake

c)

reduce alcohol

d)

following a ADA diet

8.

True or False. BP meds can be discontinued right away if the patient deems it not helpful to their BP.

a)

true

b)

false

9.

Which of the ff statements are true regarding HTN medications? SATA

a)

Most BP meds are NOT safe in pregnancy

b)

Assess BP after administration

c)

BP meds are RARELY given PRN

d)

Many pts are only prescribed one BP med

10.

what is the goal for BP treatment?

a)

to immediately lower BP to reach a therapeutic level

b)

to maintain good level for a long period

c)

to reduce the risk of MI or stroke

d)

to d/c therapy of other meds r/t HTN

11.

RAAS (renin-angiotensin aldosterone system) is run by which organ system?

a)

hepatic

b)

renal

c)

respiratory

d)

cardiac

12.

what is the main goal of the RAAS?

a)

to lower BP

b)

to bring up BP

c)

to increase clotting

d)

to prevent infection

13.

this enzyme is released by the kidneys as a part of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system.

a)

renin

b)

angiotensin I

c)

angiotensin II

d)

aldosterone

14.

this chemical is released by the liver to help with increasing of BP within the RAAS?

a)

renin

b)

angiotensin I

c)

angiotensin II

d)

aldosterone

15.

angiotensin II is a product of renin and angiotensin I.

what are the effects of angiotensin II in the body? SATA

a)

release aldosterone

b)

vasoconstriction

c)

vasodilation

d)

retains fluid in the body

16.

which of the ff are the 1st line drug classes for the tx of HTN? SATA

a)

ACE inhibitors (angiotensin converting enzyme)

b)

ARB (angiotensin receptor blockers)

c)

CCB (calcium-channel blockers)

d)

thiazide diuretics

e)

loop diuretics

17.

which drug class prevents the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

ARBs

c)

thiazides

d)

CCB

18.

ACE inhibitors can be given for HTN, cardiac disease, stroke prevention, and ________

a)

renal diseases

b)

heart failure

c)

angina

d)

dysrhythmias

19.

what is an expected side effect of lisinopril?

a)

cough

b)

kidney injury

c)

facial swelling

d)

neutropenia

20.

Losartan helps lower BP by?

a)

preventing conversion of angio I into angio II

b)

preventing angio II from plugging into its receptors

c)

inhibiting Ca channel mov't in muscles

d)

blocking renin from adding with angio I, making angio II

21.

valsartan and losartan can be given for HTN and ______.

a)

angina

b)

renal disease

c)

edema

d)

heart failure

22.

which of the ff meds are teratogenic (causes damage to fetus)? SATA

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

ARB

c)

renin blockers

d)

aldosterone antagonists

23.

there are 2 categories under Calcium Channel Blockers. Which of the two acts on the blood vessels ONLY.

a)

dihydropyridine

b)

non-dihydropyridine

24.

what drugs are under Non-dihydropyridines CCB? SATA

a)

amlodipine

b)

nicardipine

c)

verapamil

d)

diltiazem

25.

T or F. Dihydropyridine CCB are not 1st line drugs for HTN.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

which drug class is often used as 1st line tx of HTN for African American population?

a)

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

b)

angiotensin II receptor blockers

c)

dihydropyridines CCB

d)

nonhydropyridines CCB

27.

which of the ff is an indication for Dihydropyridine CCB besides HTN?

a)

angina

b)

dysrhythmias

c)

renal disease

d)

stroke prevention

28.

diuretics have different categories: loop, thiazides, _______, ADH, ___________, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. (SATA)

a)

K+ sparing

(aldosterone antagonists)

b)

Osmotic

c)

Alpha 1 antagonists

d)

hydralazine

29.

this drug blocks renin from adding with angiotensin I (creating angiotensin II).

a)

lisinopril

b)

sodium nitroprusside

c)

aliskirin

d)

hydralazine

30.

this class of diuretics is the most potent of all diuretics making it NOT 1st line for tx of HTN.

a)

thiazide

b)

K+ sparing

c)

loop

d)

osmotic

31.

which drug class works at the nephron loop (loop of Henle) and blocks the body from reabsorbing Na and Cl followed by water?

a)

carbonic anhydrase inihibitor

b)

osmotic

c)

aldosterone antagonists

d)

loop

32.

this drug at the distal convoluted tubule and blocks reabsorption of Na and Cl.

a)

chlorthalidone

b)

torsemide

c)

spironolactone

d)

losartan

33.

this drug class blocks aldosterone at the collecting duct resulting in diuresis.

a)

Carbonic anhydase inhibitor 

b)

Osmotic diuretic 

c)

ADH (antidiuretic hormone) 

d)

K+ sparing diuretics

34.

which drug classes can cause hyperkalemia? SATA

a)

K+ sparing

b)

ARB

c)

ACE

d)

CCB

35.

Osmotic diuretic drug Mannitol works by making blood hypertonic by pulling out fluid from the brain into the bloodstream. This results into a decrease of (a)   in the brain?

(proper name or initials are accepted)

36.

this drug is indicated for severe shock and cardiac arrest. It works by directly pulling water from filtrate and causes vasoconstriction.

a)

spironolactone

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

HCTZ

d)

bumex

37.

what are the indications for acetazolamide?

a)

glaucoma

b)

ALS

c)

AMS

d)

stroke

38.

this drug works by directly dilating the arteries and is indicated as an alternative agent for HTN.

a)

aliskirin

b)

isosorbide dinitrate

c)

hydralazine

d)

sodium nitroprusside

39.

this is an emergency medication given to dilate arteries and veins. this medication can metabolize into thiocyanate (cyanide).

a)

sodium nitroprusside

b)

doxazosin

c)

clonidine

d)

bidil

40.

what is the name of combo drug of Hydralazine + Isosorbide Dinitrate?

(a)  

41.

this drug is indicated for HTN and BPH.

a)

prazosin

b)

clonidine

c)

isosorbide dinitrate

d)

nicardipine

42.

this drug is mainly used for HTN but has other off label uses. it works by increasing alpha 2 resulting in vasodilation.

a)

metoprolol

b)

clonidine

c)

hydralazine

d)

nipride

43.

what is a CAM for UTI prevention?

(a)  

44.

name 1 of the primary labs done to check for kidney function

(proper name or initials are accepted)

(a)  

45.

what is the difference between AKI and CKD?

4 lines
46.

what should you include in your patient education regarding diuretics? SATA

a)

expect increased urine output

b)

take it in the morning

c)

placing a catheter in while on diuretics is necessary

d)

these drugs have an AE of dehydration

47.

T or F. it is a requirement to adjust nephrology medication (i.e., diuretics) dosages to be adjusted based on kidney function.

a)

true

b)

false

48.

Identify three classes of medications that are nephrotoxic? 

a)

aminoglycoside

b)

APAP

c)

ACE inihibitors

d)

Loop diuretics

49.

what does refractory mean?

a)

unresponsive to

b)

responsive to

c)

can cause rebound symptom

d)

is not working

50.

Give one biggest risk factor for cardiac disease (Life Simple 7)?

(a)  

51.

What is the pathway of cell death?  (SATA)

a)

ischemia

b)

infarction

c)

injury

d)

infection

52.

what is a common cause of MI?

a)

arteriosclerosis

b)

atherosclerosis

c)

aneurysm

d)

PAD

53.

stable angina or unstable angina.

This occurs when the blood vessels are in bad shape which leads to ischemia. This does not persist after treatment of nitroglycerin.

a)

stable angina

b)

unstable angina

54.

What diagnoses makes up acute coronary syndrome (ACS)? SATA

a)

stable angina

b)

unstable angina

c)

non- ST elevation MI

d)

ST elevation MI

55.

Unstable angina is when chest pain continues to persist even after the administration of nitroglycerin.

a)

true

b)

false

56.

this treatment is also called angioplasty. This requires the patient to go to the cath lab where a wire will be inserted in the femoral artery to the heart to find the clot.

(proper name or initials)

(a)  

57.

which of the ff patient populations usually suffer with torturous vessels? SATA

a)

DM

b)

HTN

c)

HLD

d)

PVD

58.

Which of the ff is the treatment for a myocardial infarction with torturous vessels?

a)

percutaneous intervention

b)

coronary artery bypass graft

c)

closed-heart surgery

d)

stenting

59.

this medication is the 1st line tx for acute angina.

a)

propranolol

b)

nitroglycerin

c)

ranolazine

d)

morphine

60.

Which classes of drugs nitroglycerin falls under? SATA

a)

direct vasodilator

b)

nitrate

c)

calcium channel block

d)

Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonist

61.

Identify the side effects of Nitroglycerin. (SATA)

a)

headache

b)

hypotension

c)

reflex tachycardia

d)

tachypnea

62.

Which of the following routes for nitro is used as a backup agent for the prevention of angina?

a)

SL

b)

TD

c)

IV

d)

PO

63.

Identify the correct dosage of nitroglycerin.

a)

0.1 mg

b)

4000 mcg

c)

0.4 mg

d)

1 mcg

64.

Nitroglycerin can be given up to 4 times, 3 mins apart.

a)

true

b)

false

65.

what are the 2 contraindications for nitro? SATA

a)

cannot be given within 48-72 hours of an ED med

b)

cannot be given for right ventricular MI

c)

cannot be given for a pt in shock

d)

cannot be given for a patient taking anticoagulants

66.

beta-blockers are used as an alternative for prevention of angina.

a)

true

b)

false

67.

The indications for beta adrenergic receptor antagonists are anxiety, angina, dysrhythmias, acute MI, hypertension, and (a)   .

(proper name or initials)

68.

Before administering these meds, a nurse must check the patients BP and HR.

a)

amlodipine

b)

labetalol

c)

verapamil

d)

torsemide

69.

administration of beta-blockers should be considered in which population of patients? (SATA)

a)

COPD

b)

DM

c)

HTN

d)

asthma

70.

There are no BP meds safe to be administered for pregnant women.

a)

true

b)

false

71.

which medication has an adverse effect of QT prolongation. it works by decreasing the O2 demand in the heart.

a)

aspirin

b)

alteplase

c)

diltiazem

d)

ranolazine

72.

which of the 2 CCB is used for angina prevention?

a)

non-dihydropyridines

b)

dihydropyridines

73.

these medications are used first for patient having a myocardial infarction. SATA

a)

alteplase

b)

morphine

c)

oxygen

d)

aspirin

74.

Alteplase falls under this drug class. It has a MOA of going to the clot and breaking it up. (proper name only!)

(w/ or w/o S accepted)

(a)  

75.

what is a proper treatment/intervention for a hypertensive emergency, asymptomatic with BP of 200/100?

a)

none

b)

give nitroglycerin

c)

give ACE inhibitors

d)

give clonidine or hydralazine

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