wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Math 2

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A type of bond issued jointly by two or more corporations.

a)

Joint Bond

b)

Debenture Bond

c)

Registered Bond

d)

Collateral Trust Bond

2.

A type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroads equipments.

a)

Equipment obligation bond

b)

Debenture bond

c)

Registered bond

d)

Insfrastructure bond

3.

If the security of the bond is a mortgage on certain specified asset of a corporation, this bond is classified as

a)

Registered bond

b)

Mortgage bond

c)

Coupon bond

d)

Joint bond

4.

A type of bond where the corporation’s owners name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it.

a)

Registered bond

b)

Preferred bond

c)

Incorporators bond

d)

All of these

5.

An increase in the value of a capital asset is called

a)

Profit

b)

Capital gain

c)

Capital expenditure

d)

Capital stock

6.

Bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid.

a)

Registered Bond

b)

Coupon Bond

c)

Mortgage Bond

d)

Collateral Trust Bond

7.

An amount of money invested at 12% interest per annum will double in approximately 

a)

4 Yrs

b)

5 Yrs

c)

6 Yrs

d)

7 Yrs

8.

The 72 rule is used to determine

a)

How many years money will triple

b)

How many years money will double

c)

How many years to amass 1 million

d)

How many years to quadruple the money

9.

To triple the principal one must use

a)

Integration

b)

Derivatives

c)

Logarithms

d)

Implicit functions

10.

A currency traded in a foreign exchange market to which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supply.

a)

Money market

b)

Hard currency

c)

Treasury bill

d)

Certificated of deposit

11.

Everything a company owns to which has a money value is classified as an asset. Which of the following is classified as an asset?

a)

Intangible asset

b)

Fixed asset

c)

Trade investments

d)

All of these

12.

Which of the example of an intangible asset?

a)

Cash

b)

Investment in subsidiary companies

c)

Furnitures

d)

Patents

13.

Land buildings, plants and machinery are examples of 

a)

Current assets

b)

Trade investments

c)

Fixed assets

d)

Intangible assets

14.

The reduction in the money value of a capital asset is called

a)

Capital expenditure

b)

Capital loss

c)

Loss

d)

Deficit

15.

It is negotiable claim issued by bank in lieu of a team deposit.

a)

Time deposit

b)

Bond

c)

Capital gain

d)

Certificate of deposit

16.

Any particular raw materials or primary product (e.g. cloth, wool, flour, coffee..)  is called

a)

Utility

b)

Necessity

c)

Commodity

d)

Stock

17.

If denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of others. The term usually applies to floating exchange rates.

a)

Currency appreciation

b)

Currency devaluation

c)

Currency float

d)

Currency depreciation

18.

The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound).

a)

Currency appreciation

b)

Currency float

c)

Currency devaluation

d)

Currency depreciation

19.

The residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded)m have been allowed for.

a)

Divided

b)

Equity

c)

Return

d)

Par Value

20.

A saving which takes place because good are not available for consumption rather than the consumer really want to save.

a)

Compulsory saving

b)

Consumer saving

c)

Forced saving

d)

All of these

21.

A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security.

a)

Bond

b)

Bank Note

c)

Coupon

d)

Check

22.

Defined as the capacity of commodity to satisfy human want.

a)

Discount

b)

Necessity

c)

Luxuries

d)

Utility

23.

It is the profit obtained by selling stocks at a higher price than its original purchase price.

a)

Debenture

b)

Goodwill

c)

Capital gain

d)

Internal rate of return

24.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given time and place.

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Utility

d)

Market

25.

The quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at a certain price at a given time and place.

a)

Demand

b)

Supply

c)

Market

d)

Utility

26.

“When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal to the demand

a)

Law of diminishing return

b)

Law of supply

c)

Law of demand

d)

Law of supply and demand

27.

“When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the others factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output.”

a)

Law of diminishing return

b)

Law of supply

c)

Law of demand

d)

Law of supply and demand

28.

An accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustments.

a)

Cost of goods sold

b)

Variance

c)

Overhead

d)

Payback

29.

The simplest economic order quantity (EOQ) model is based on which of the following assumptions.

a)

Shortages are not allowed.

b)

Demand is constant with respect to time.

c)

Reordering is instantaneous. The time between order placement and receipt is zero.

d)

All of the choices

30.

In the cash flow, expenses incurred before time = 0 is called

a)

Receipts

b)

Disbursements

c)

Sunk Costs

d)

Firsts Costs

31.

In economics, a “short – term” transaction usually has a lifetime of 

a)

3 months or less

b)

1 year or less

c)

5 years or less

d)

10 years or less

32.

An imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected.

a)

Sunk cost

b)

Opportunity cost

c)

Replacement cost

d)

Initial cost

33.

In replacement studies, the existing process or piece of equipment is known as

a)

Challenger

b)

Defender

c)

Liability

d)

Asset

34.

In replacement studies, the new process or piece of equipment being considered for purchase is known as.

a)

Challenger

b)

Defender

c)

Asset

d)

Liability

35.

_______ means that the cost of the asset is divided into equal or unequal parts, and only one of these parts is taken as an expense each year.

a)

Capitalizing the asset

b)

Expensing the asset

c)

Depreciating the asset

d)

Artificial expense

36.

Indicate the CORRECT statement about depreciation.

a)

The depreciation is not the same each year in straight line method.

b)

The declining balance method can be used even if the salvage calue is zero.

c)

The sum-of-years’ digit method (SYD), the digits 1 to (n + 1) is summed.

d)

Double declining balance depreciation is independent of the salvage value.

37.

An artificial deductible operating expense designated to compensate mining organizations for decreasing mineral reserves.

a)

Deflation

b)

Reflamation

c)

Depletion

d)

Inflation

38.

The change in cost per unit variable change is known as 

a)

Sunk Cost

b)

Increment Cost

c)

Fixed Cost

d)

Semi-Variable Cost

39.

What type of cost increases step-wise?

a)

Supervision cost

b)

Direct labor cost

c)

Semi-variable cost

d)

Operating and maintenance cost

40.

Which of the following is NOT a variable cost?

a)

Cost of miscellaneous supplies

b)

Income taxes

c)

Payroll benefit costs

d)

Insurance costs

41.

Which of the following is Not a fixed cost?

a)

Rent

b)

Janitorial service expenses

c)

Supervision costs

d)

Depreciation expenses

42.

The annual costs that are incurred due to the functioning of a piece of equipment is known as

a)

General, selling and administrative expenses

b)

Prime cost

c)

Operating and maintenance costs

d)

Total cost

43.

The sum of the direct labor cost and the direct material cost is known as

a)

Prime cost

b)

Total cost

c)

Indirect manufacturing expenses

d)

Total cost

44.

Research and development costs and administrative expenses are added to the factory cost to give the _______ of the product.

a)

Total cost

b)

Marketing cost

c)

Manufacturing cost

d)

Prime cost

45.

The manufacturing cost plus selling expenses equals

a)

Total cost

b)

Indirect production cost

c)

Administrative cost

d)

Miscellaneous cost

46.

Which of the following is NOT a direct labor expense?

a)

Inspection

b)

Testing 

c)

Supervision

d)

Assembly

47.

All are administrative expenses EXCEPT:

a)

Marketing 

b)

Accounting

c)

Data processing

d)

Office supplies

48.

One of the following is NOT a selling or marketing expense. Which one?

a)

Advertising

b)

Commission

c)

Insurance

d)

Transportation

49.

Research and development expenses includes all EXCEPT one. Which one?

a)

Testing

b)

Drafting

c)

Prototype

d)

Laboratory

50.

Which is not a factory overhead expense?

a)

Pension, medical, vacation benefits

b)

Expediting

c)

Quality control and inspection

d)

Testing

51.

Bookkeeping consists of two steps, namely recording the transactions and categorization of transactions. Where are the transactions (receipts and disbursements? Recorded?

a)

Journal

b)

Ledger

c)

Columnar

d)

Statement of account

52.

The following are ledger accounts EXCEPT:

a)

Asset accounts

b)

Bank accounts

c)

Liability accounts

d)

Owner’s equity accounts

53.

The journal and the ledger together are known simply as _____ of the company.

a)

Accounting system

b)

The books

c)

Bookkeeping system

d)

Balance sheet

54.

The basic accounting equation is

a)

Assets = Liability + Owner’s equity

b)

Liability = Assets + Owner’s equity

c)

Owner’s equity = Assets + Liability

d)

Owner’s equity = Liability – Assets

55.

The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as

a)

Solvency

b)

Liquidity

c)

Leverage

d)

Insolvency

56.

The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as 

a)

Solvency

b)

Leverage

c)

Insolvency

d)

Liquidity

57.

What is considered as an index of short-term paying ability?

a)

Current ratio

b)

Acid test ratio

c)

Gross margin

d)

Return of investment

58.

An acid test ratio is a ratio of

a)

Gross profit to net sales

b)

Net income before taxes to net sales

c)

Quick assets to current liabilities

d)

Net income to owner’s liabilities

59.

The ratio of the net income to the owner’s equity is known as

a)

Price-earning ratio

b)

Profit margin ratio

c)

Return of investment

d)

Gross margin

60.

Payback period is the ratio of

a)

Initial investment to net annual profit

b)

Cost of goods sold to average

c)

gross profit to net sales

d)

net income before taxes to net sales

61.

A secondary book of accounts the information of which is obtained from the journal

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Ledger

c)

Worksheet

d)

Trial balance

62.

The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time is referred to as

a)

Annual cost

b)

Capitalized cost

c)

Increment cost

d)

Operating cost

63.

A stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of regulating the price of that product.

a)

Stock pile

b)

Hoard stock

c)

Buffer stock

d)

Withheld stock

64.

A negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit is called

a)

Cheque

b)

T-bills

c)

Currency

d)

Certificate of deposit

65.

A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit

a)

Cooperative

b)

Corporation

c)

Enterprise

d)

Partnership

66.

A document which shows the legal ownership of financial security and entitled to payments thereon.

a)

Coupon

b)

Contract

c)

Bond

d)

Consol

67.

A government bond which have an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity

a)

Coupon

b)

T-bill

c)

Debenture

d)

Consol

68.

Refers to the orders quantity that minimizes the inventory cost per unit time.

a)

Economic order quantity

b)

Social order quantity

69.

What is referred to as an individual who organizes factors of production to undertake a venture with a view to profit?

a)

Agent

b)

Entrepreneur

c)

Salesman

d)

Commissioners

70.

The money that is inactive and does not contribute to productive effort in an economy is known as

a)

Idle money

b)

Hard money

c)

Soft currency

d)

Frozen asset

71.

In counting the number of days when computing simple interest,

a)

The first day is included

b)

The last day is excluded

c)

The first day is included and the last day is excluded

d)

The first day is excluded and the last day is included

72.

In the so-called “Banker’s Rule”,

a)

The number of days in 1 year is 360 days

b)

The number of days in 1 year is 365 days

c)

The number of days in each month is 30 days 

d)

The number of days in 1 year is 366 days

73.

To discount an amount F for n conversion periods means

a)

To find the present value on a day which is n periods after F is due

b)

To find the present value on a day which is n periods before F is due

c)

To find the present value on a day which is (n-1) periods before F is due

d)

To find the present value on a day which is (n+1) periods before F is due

74.

In the formula for compound interest, F= P (1+i)n, the value (1+i)n is called ____.

a)

Discount factor

b)

Interest factor

c)

Accumulation factor

d)

Increase factor

75.

To find the present worth of a future amount in compound interest, we use the formula P=F(1+i)-n. What do you call the factor (1+i)-n?

a)

Discount

b)

Accumulation factor

c)

Interest factor

d)

Reduction factor

76.

What refers to an equation stating that the sum of the values, on a certain comparison date, of one set of obligations is equal to the sum of the value of another set of this date?

a)

Equality of value

b)

Equation of value

c)

Equality equation

d)

Similarity equation

77.

What is an annuity whose payments extend over a period of time whose length cannot be foretold accurately?

a)

Annuity certain

b)

Annuity uncertain

c)

Incremental annuity

d)

Contingent annuity

78.

What do you call the time between successive payment dates of an annuity?

a)

Period interval

b)

Annuity period

c)

Payment interval

d)

Annuity term

79.

The time from the beginning of the first payment interval to the need of the last one is called the _____ of the annuity.

a)

Period

b)

Term

c)

Nature

d)

Type

80.

What refers to the extinction of the debt by any satisfactory set of payments?

a)

Liquidation

b)

Liability discharge

c)

Discharging debt

d)

Amortization of debt

81.

What do you call a fund, usually by periodic deposits, to insure the accumulation of money to provide for possible large payments?

a)

Escrow fund

b)

Sinking fund

c)

Mutual fund

d)

Corporate fund

82.

What is the term for the borrowed principal usually mentioned in a typical bond?

a)

Bond Rate

b)

Face Value

c)

Coupon Rate

d)

Coupon Value

83.

Any date on which a coupon of a bond becomes due will be referred to as a _____.

a)

Maturity date

b)

Term of the bond

c)

Coupon date

d)

Due date

84.

If P is the price of a bond and V is its redemption value, what do you call the value P-V?

a)

Par value

b)

Face value

c)

Premium

d)

Bond discount

85.

When can we say that the bond is purchased at a discount?

a)

When the price of the bond is greater than the redemption value.

b)

When the price of the bond is less than the redemption value.

c)

When the price of the bond is equal than the redemption value.

d)

When the price of the bond is either equal to or greater than the redemption value.

86.

When can we say that the bond is purchased at a premium?

a)

When the price of the bond is greater than the redemption value.

b)

When the price of the bond is less than the redemption value.

c)

When the price of the bond is equal than the redemption value.

d)

When the price of the bond is either equal to or greater than the redemption value.

87.

Which of the following will happen if bond is bought at a discount?

a)

Each coupon payment is too small to pay all interest due on the investor’s principal.

b)

Each coupon payment is greater than the interest due on the investor’s principal.

c)

The unpaid interest on each coupon date will not be considered as a new investment in the bond.

d)

The difference between the coupon payment and the interest due is a partial repayment of principal.

88.

In the sale of a bond, the actual purchase price on any day is called ____.

a)

Face value

b)

Quoted price

c)

Accrued price

d)

Flat price

89.

What do you call the difference between the flat price of the bond and the quoted price of the bond?

a)

Par value

b)

Accrued interest

c)

Bond rate

d)

And-interest price