wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

PATHO test 1

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

which statement best desribes the term syndrome

a)

the study of disease

b)

a group if symptoms

c)

a state of normaicy or function

d)

an abnormality of function

2.

which components of blood plasma can be detected by a blood chemistry test?

a)

triglycerides-lymphocytes-electrolytes

b)

platelets-BUN-glucose

c)

thyroid levels- CBC- glucose

d)

BUN- Glucose - liver enzymes

3.

examples of nutritional defiencey are

a)

scurvy

b)

kwashiorkor

c)

obesity

d)

two are correct

4.

what do nuclear medicine scans utilize

a)

magnetic and radio waves

b)

conventional x ray machines

c)

radioactive isotopes

d)

ionizing x rays wuth computer imaging

5.

a nurse is asked to collect a 24 hour urine sample. Which of the following best describes this process?

a)

is most commonly requested specimen

b)

is utilized to evaluate excretion rates of some substances

c)

this is the first voided speciment of the day

d)

requires the nurse to cleanse the genital areas

6.

what does histology study

a)

organs

b)

cells

c)

joints

d)

tissues

7.

what does the differential white blood cell count include when it is ordered with a CBC?

a)

the count/ percentage of each white blood cell types

b)

neutrophils/ erythrocytes/

eosinophils/

platelets

c)

neutrophils/

eosinophils/

basophils /

erythrocytes

d)

the count/ percentage of all blood cells

8.

which of the following statements regarding genetic abnormalities are false

a)

cystic fibrosis is an example of a disease resulting from genetic mutation

b)

non -hereditary mutations are not passed down to offspring

c)

genetic mutations can be hereditary or non - hereditary

d)

hereditary mutations occur in the DNA of somatic cells

9.

define the term etiology

a)

development

b)

cause

c)

defintion

d)

outcome

10.

which statement best describes the term nosocomial

a)

predisposing factors

b)

being related to treatment received

c)

a bacterial infection

d)

hospital acquired

11.

define the term prognosis

a)

a short term condition

b)

the naming of a disease

c)

any change from normal

d)

the expected outcome

12.

what is the cause of an idiopathic disease

a)

an unknown cause

b)

a viral infection

c)

a parasitic infection

d)

a bacterial infection

13.

which of the following tests are included in a routine CBC

a)

blood cultures - leukocytes - creatine

b)

platelets - leukocytes - blood cultures

c)

leukocytes - platelets - hemoglobin

d)

hemoglobin - hemacrit -

creatine

14.

which statement best describes a CT scan

a)

give vertical front to back images of body organs

b)

magnetic field and radio waves are used to create an image

c)

uses radioactive substances to produce an x ray image

d)

creates cross-sectional images by the use of x ray technology and a computer

15.

define the term iatrogenic

a)

being related to treatment received

b)

a bacterial infection

c)

hospital acquired

d)

predisposing factors

16.

which statements best defines the manifestationss of a disease

a)

subjective feelings of a discomfort during a disease

b)

the signs and symptoms of a disease

c)

the prodomal period of an infection

d)

factors the precipitate an acute episode of a chronic disease

17.

which term best describes cancer?

a)

dysplasia

b)

neoplasia

c)

hyperplasia

d)

metaplasia

18.

define cachexia

a)

a thin, wasted appearance

b)

a lack of enzymes

c)

overconsumption

d)

poor nutrition

19.

a report comes back indicating that muscular atrophy has occurred. This involves a decrease in muscle cell

a)

number

b)

size

c)

lipids

d)

vacuoles

20.

a 20 year old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

leukocytes

d)

monocytes

21.

when planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, the cardiac cells will

a)

increase in size

b)

decrease in length

c)

increase in excitability

d)

increase in number

22.

a 65 year old male with a 25 year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaption is called:

a)

anaplasia

b)

hyperplasia

c)

metaplasia

d)

dysplasia

23.

a patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

a)

adaption

b)

apoptosis

c)

necrosis

d)

pathologic calcification

24.

when an aide asks the nurse what is a purpose of the inflammatory process, how should the nurse respond?

a)

to prevent infection of the injured tissue

b)

to provide specific responses toward antigens

c)

the lyse cell membranes of micro organisms

d)

to create immunity against subsequent tissue injury

25.

a 40 year old female is diagnosed with cervical cancer after a pap smear. Which of the following cellular changes would the nurse most likely see in the report?

a)

metaplasia

b)

atrophy

c)

dysplasia

d)

hypertrophy

26.

a child fell off the swing and scraped his right knee. The injured area becomes painful. What else might the nurse observe during assessment?

a)

pale skin at injured site

b)

edema at the injured site

c)

vasoconstriction at the injured site

d)

decreased RBC concentration at the injured site

27.

a nurse recalls the mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through the process of

a)

degranulation

b)

chemotaxis

c)

endocytosis

d)

opsonization

28.

which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk of opportunistic infection?

a)

24 year old who in immunocompromised.

b)

18 year old with diabetes

c)

70 year old with congestive heart failure

d)

30 year old with pneumonia

29.

the directional migration of leukocytes along a chemical gradient is termed

a)

margination

b)

chemotaxis

c)

endocytosis

d)

diapedesis

30.

a 85 year old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain us most likely due to a hypoxic injury secondary to:

a)

chemical toxicity

b)

malnutrition

c)

free radicals

d)

ischemia

31.

the classic activation pathway for the complement system is triggered by

a)

antigen - antibody comlexes

b)

histamine

c)

leukocytes

d)

prostaglandins

32.

the end product of the clotting system is

a)

plasmin

b)

factor X

c)

fibrin

d)

collagen

33.

a 35 year old is diagnosed with abcess in an abdominal wound. Which of the following exudates would be present in the highest concentration at the site of this inflammatory response?

a)

fibrinous

b)

hemmorrhagic

c)

serous

d)

purulent

34.

inflammation is not characterized by

a)

cyanosis

b)

heat

c)

swelling

d)

pain

35.

the nurse is reviewing the lab data of a newly admitted patient. The nurse notes that patient has an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) done, and the results are quite elevated. The nurse would know this is in response to which condition?

a)

inflammation

b)

anemia

c)

an electrolyte imbalance

d)

infection

36.

where are B cells originate from

a)

lymph nodes

b)

thymus

c)

gut lymphoid tussue

d)

bone marrow

37.

which of the following are false regarding defense mechanisms of the body?

a)

inflammation-non specific defence

b)

inflammation- innate immunity

c)

cell mediated immunity- non specific defense

d)

lympocytes - adaptive immunity

38.

which patient will develop active immunity

a)

recieves immunoglobins

b)

receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donor

c)

has a natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization

d)

has t cells that become b cells

39.

which of the following processes result in scar formation

a)

regeneration

b)

granulation

c)

remodeling

d)

fibrous connective tissue repair

40.

when the immunity crosses the placenta what type of immunity does the fetus receive?

a)

innate

b)

cell mediated

c)

active

d)

passive

41.

a scar is left after the healing process in a vital organ. Which outcome would you expect?

a)

it makes the organ larger than it originally was and increases function overall

b)

vital organs do not heal by scar tissue

c)

the presence of scar tissue causes pressure necrosis of the surrounding area

d)

it results in permanent loss of function of the involved area

42.

which of the following statements are false regarding secondary intention?

a)

usually the wounds that undergo secondary intention are infected

b)

secondary intention would take place for a severe burn

c)

wound with irregular margins would undergo secondary intention

d)

all are true

43.

which of the following statements regarding facultative miotic cells is true?

a)

continually divide throughtout life

b)

kidney cells are facultative mitotic cells

c)

replaced by firbous scarring after trauma

d)

divide when required

44.

which of the following is not an example of Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

glomerulonephritis

b)

hay fever

c)

eczema

d)

anaphylaxis

45.

which of the following tests would analyze cerebrospinal fluid

a)

IVP

b)

myelogram

c)

lumbar puncture

d)

BUN

46.

allergies fit into which category of disease?

a)

impaired immunity

b)

traumatic

c)

hyperplasia- neoplasms

d)

infection- inflammation

47.

healing by secondary intention wound occur in which of the following patients

a)

paper cut

b)

sutured surgical wound

c)

stage IV ulcer

d)

sunburn

48.

staging (classification of cancers is based on

a)

deep tissues

b)

involvment of lymphnodes, size and spread

c)

metastasis

d)

nosocomial infections

49.

little metastasis is seen with brain tumors because

a)

cancer cells hide in deep tissues

b)

cancer cells ramin dormant after they spread from the brain

c)

the patient dies before metastasis begins

d)

the cells do not spread through the bloodstream

50.

a spread of tumor cells to distant sites by way of the blood or lymoh is referred to as

a)

insidious

b)

idiopathic

c)

metastasis

d)

malignant

51.

which of the following would be most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?

a)

an unwanted effect of prescribed drug

b)

genetic disorder

c)

combination of specific etioogical factors

d)

prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in evironment

52.

the process in which the body maintains a stable internal environment is called

a)

homestatis

b)

osmotic balance

c)

pathophysiology

d)

inflammation

53.

signs are manisfestations of a disease or condition are

a)

subjective feelings such a pain

b)

objective indicators such a fever

c)

clincially verifiable indicators obly disgnosed by physian

d)

subjective preliminary indicators identifed by the patient only

54.

urine drawn for urinalysis with a dark color might typically indicate

a)

dietary problems, bacteria, excessive bile

b)

leukocytes, bacteria and medication

c)

hematuria, highly concentrated, excessive bilirubin

d)

very low pH, low protein levels, leukocytes

55.

swelling the an area of inflammation caused by accumulation of fluid in the intersitial space is called

a)

pyrexia

b)

edema

c)

infection

d)

rubor

56.

first-aid directives for injury related inflammation often recommends this four step approach:

a)

rest, ice, compression and

elevation

b)

excercise, elevation, iced followed by heat

c)

rest, heat, compression, drugs

d)

heat, elevation, drugs, excercise

57.

this test is primarily ordered for people with chest pain and to assess if a heart attack or other damage to the heart has occured

a)

CPK

b)

LDH

c)

SGOT

d)

Troponins

58.

this blood test is used to diagnose disorders of the pancreas. The near immediate rise of this test at the beginning of a pancreatitis attack, and it falls after about 2 days, helps to pinpoint this diagnosis.

a)

SGOT

b)

LDH

c)

amylase

d)

troponin

59.

the period of time between entry of the organism and appearance of clinical signs is called the:

a)

acute period

b)

incubation period

c)

prodomal period

d)

chronic period

60.

fungal infections in which a normally harmless resident fungus becomes a pathogen is called

a)

opportunistic infection

b)

insidious infection

c)

complementary infection

d)

secondary infection

61.

the period when an infectious disease develops fully and all clinical manifestations appear is called the

a)

acute period

b)

insidious period

c)

incubation period

d)

infection period

62.

a nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment indicates that the patient may be at risk for infection because a primary defense is impaired?

a)

skin is dry

b)

eyes appear moist

c)

hair can be seen in nostrils

d)

oral muscous membranes are pink

63.

any factor that has the capacity to create a significant change in the bodyies environment is referred to as a

a)

stressor

b)

incubator

c)

infection

d)

mood

64.

hyperventilation as a result of high anxeity or high fever may result in a pH imbalance referred to as a

a)

acute gastroentosis

b)

acute ottitis media

c)

respiratory alkalosis

d)

frebile seizure

65.

how many pairs of autosomes does a human body have

a)

22

b)

24

c)

23

d)

54

66.

disorders or defects that are present at birth and may be caused by genetic problems, environmental factors, infections are

a)

rubella

b)

congenital anomalies

c)

aminocentisis

d)

klinefelter syndrome

67.

typical causes of dehydration inclue vomiting, excessive sweating and use of concentrated supplements and :

a)

diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

low protein

c)

swelling

d)

gas

68.

an excess or very high volume of blood in the body is referred as

a)

hyperjaundice

b)

hyperbilirubin

c)

hyperalkosis

d)

hypervolemia