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VA2026 A

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Parvovirose

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

2.

Toxoplasmose

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

3.

Feline Leukemia

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

4.

Kennel Cough

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

5.

Distemper

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

6.

Rabies

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

7.

Lyme Disease

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

8.

Leptospirose

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

9.

Feline Immunodeficiency

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

10.

Coronavirus

a)

Virus

b)

Protozoa

c)

Bacteria

11.

The study of disease is known as:

a)

cytology

b)

serology

c)

pathology

d)

vaccinology

12.

Which of the following is a sign of inflammation?

a)

increased redness

b)

increased sweating

c)

increases heart rate

d)

increased joint function

13.

Which of the following tissue is a highly vascularized connective tissue that is produced after extensive tissue damage?

a)

epithelial

b)

cicatrix

c)

granulation

d)

cartilage

14.

One of the primary ways in which bacteria are classified is:

a)

on the basis of their DNA characteristics

b)

on the basis of their cell wall characteristics

c)

on the basis of their nucleus characteristics

d)

on the basis of their pathogenicity characteristics

15.

Which of the following are non living pathogens?

a)

viruses

b)

rickettsiae

c)

chalmydia

d)

mycoplasmas

16.

Which of the following is caused by a rhabdovirus?

a)

rabies

b)

transmissible gastroenteritis

c)

canine distemper

d)

feline leukemia

17.

Which of the following are associated with the humoral immune response?

a)

antibodies

b)

eosinophils

c)

b-lympocytes

d)

plasmacytes

18.

What is the most common antibody isotype found in the highest concentration in the blood?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgD

d)

IgA

19.

Which organization monitors foodstuffs for the presence of residues and is responsible for inspection of food?

a)

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

b)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

c)

U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)

d)

Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

20.

Which of the following is an example of a zoonotic disease?

a)

feline immunodeficiency virus

b)

equine viral arteritis

c)

leptospirosis

d)

canine distemper

21.

Tick control will help control which of the following diseases?

a)

Lyme disease

b)

Eastern equine encephalitis

c)

plague

d)

transmissible gastroenteritis

22.

Which of the following results in artificially acquired passive immunity?

a)

colostrum

b)

antivenin

c)

infection

d)

vaccination

23.

A vaccine that consists of a live, nonpathogenic virus into which the gene for a pathogen-related antigen has been inserted is which of the following?

a)

modified-live

b)

toxoid

c)

recombinant

d)

incactivated

24.

Vaccine against which of the following pathogens is considered noncore?

a)

canine distemper virus

b)

Borrelia burgdorferi

c)

canine parvovirus

d)

rabies virus

25.

Which species is vaccinated against Eastern and Western encephalomyelitis?

a)

horses

b)

cattle

c)

swine

d)

sheep

26.

Which of the following is true regarding antibody titers?

a)

titers measure only cell-mediated immunity

b)

there is inconsistency as to titer levels that constitute protection

c)

titers are relatively inexpensive

d)

titers are 100% reliable

27.

Obesity from overfeeding and lack of exercise is considered which type of disease factor?

a)

metabolic factor

b)

genetic factor

c)

environmental factor

d)

uncontrollable factor

28.

Which of the following is included in the complete blood count (CBC)?

a)

serum chemistry

b)

antibody titers

c)

hemoglobin concentration

d)

bleeding time

29.

Chest radiographs should routinely be performed on which of the following types of cats?

a)

cats that are not on heartworm prophylaxis

b)

diabetic cats

c)

cats with protein in their urine

d)

kittens

30.

What is the correct order of the four phases of wound healing?

a)

debridement, inflammatory, repair, maturation

b)

repair, inflammatory, debridement, maturation

c)

maturation, repair, inflammatory, debridement

d)

inflammatory, debridement, repair, maturation

31.

A road abrasion caused by an accident 8 hours earlier is an example of which type of wound?

a)

clean

b)

clean-contaminated

c)

contaminated

d)

dirty

32.

Antibacterials are generally used when:

a)

the surgery is less than 90 minutes and is an elective procedure

b)

an experienced surgeon is using an aseptic technique

c)

patients of good health have a short surgery time

d)

a patient has sustained severe systemic trauma

33.

During initial wound treatment the wound should be protected while preparing the areas around it by:

a)

instilling ophthalmic ointment

b)

sterile ointment

c)

careful clipping around the wound

d)

mineral oil

34.

The best method of lavage is use of:

a)

gravity flow

b)

bulb syringe

c)

35- to 60-ml syringe and needle

d)

turkey baster

35.

Which lavage solution is reserved for a one-time, initial irrigation of dirty wounds?

a)

lactated Ringer’s solution

b)

10% povidone-iodine scrub

c)

0.05% chlorhexidine

d)

3% hydrogen peroxide

36.

Debridement is considered complete when:

a)

the wound is free of bacteria

b)

the tissue takes on a water-logged appearance

c)

the wound bed consists of only healthy tissue

d)

the wound has been prepped for surgery

37.

Which type of dressing is best for open wounds with loose necrotic tissue or foreign material on the wound surface?

a)

nonadherent

b)

Robert Jones

c)

wet-to-dry

d)

wet-to-wet

38.

The secondary layer of a bandage:

a)

protects the wound

b)

provides absorbency and padding

c)

holds the other layers in place

d)

is not important and is not always used

39.

A nonadherent dressing is used:

a)

to avoid disruption of new tissue formation

b)

to debride a wound

c)

as a secondary layer in a bandage

d)

as a tertiary layer in a bandage

40.

Bandages should be removed with:

a)

a Stryker saw

b)

bandage scissors

c)

suture scissors

d)

bone cutters