WorksheetsRodak SQ PART 1 (chap 29-32)
Total questions: 41
Worksheet time: 21mins
Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders is caused by a mutation in the lamin B receptor?
a. Pelger-Huët anomaly
b. Chédiak-Higashi disease
c. Alder-Reilly anomaly
d. May-Hegglin anomaly
Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders is one of a group of disorders with mutations in nonmuscle myosin heavy-chain IIA?
a. Pelger-Huët anomaly
b. Chédiak-Higashi disease
c. Alder-Reilly anomaly
d. May-Hegglin anomaly
Which of the following inherited leukocyte disorders might be seen in Hurler syndrome?
a. Pelger-Huët anomaly
b. Chédiak-Higashi disease
c. Alder-Reilly anomaly
d. May-Hegglin anomaly
Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside?
a. Sanfilippo syndrome
b. Gaucher disease
c. Fabry disease
d. Niemann-Pick disease
The neutrophils in chronic granulomatous disease are incapable of producing:
a. Hydrogen peroxide
b. Hypochlorite
c. Superoxide
d. All of the above
Individuals with X-linked SCID have a mutation that affects their ability to synthesize:
a. Deaminase
b. Oxidase
c. IL-2 receptor
d. IL-8 receptor
An absolute lymphocytosis with reactive lymphocytes suggests which of the following conditions?
a. DiGeorge syndrome
b. Bacterial infection
c. Parasitic infection
d. Viral infection
What leukocyte cytoplasmic inclusion is composed of ribosomal RNA?
a. Primary granules
b. Toxic granules
c. Döhle bodies
d. Howell-Jolly bodies
The expected complete blood count (CBC) results for women in active labor would include:
a. High total white blood cell (WBC) count with increased lymphocytes
b. High total WBC count with a slight shift to the left in neutrophils
c. Normal WBC count with increased eosinophils
d. Low WBC count with increased monocytes
Which of the following is true of an absolute increase in lymphocytes with reactive morphology?
a. The population of lymphocytes appears morphologically homogeneous.
b. They are usually effector B cells
c. The reactive lymphocytes have increased cytoplasm with variable basophilia
d. They are most commonly seen in bacterial infections.
G-banding refers to the technique of staining chromosomes:
a. To isolate those in the G group (i.e., chromosomes 21 and 22)
b. In the G0 or resting stage
c. Using Giemsa stain
d. To emphasize areas high in guanine residues
Which of the following compounds is used to halt mitosis in metaphase for chromosome analyses?
a. Imatinib
b. Fluorescein
c. Trypsin
d. Colchicine
One arm of a chromosome has 30 bands. Which band would be nearest the centromere?
a. Band 1
b. Band 15
c. Band 30
Which of the following is not an advantage of the use of FISH?
a. It can be used on nondividing cells
b. It can be used on paraffin-embedded tissue
c. It can detect mutations that do not result in abnormal banding pattern
d. It must be performed on dividing cells.
Which of the following types of mutations would likely not be detectable with cytogenetic banding techniques?
a. Point mutation resulting in a single amino acid substitution
B. Transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to another
C . Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome
d. Duplication of a chromosome resulting in 3n of that genetic material
Which of the following describes a chromosomal deletion?
a. Point mutation resulting in a single amino acid substitution
b. Transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to another
C. Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome
D. Duplication of a chromosome resulting in 3n of that genetic material
* The chromosome analysis performed on a patient’s leukemic cells is reported as 47, XY,14,del(5)(q31)[20]. Answer questions 7 to 9 based on this description.
This patient’s cells have which of the following mutations?
a. Loss of the entire number 31 chromosome
b. Loss of the entire number 5 chromosome
c. Loss of a portion of the short arm of chromosome 4
d. Loss of a portion of the long arm of chromosome 5
What other mutation is present in this patient’s cells?
a. Polyploidy
b. Tetraploidy
c. An extra chromosome 4
d. Four copies of chromosome 5
This patient’s leukemic cells demonstrateS
a. Structural chromosomal defects only
b. Numeric chromosomal defects only
c. Both structural and numeric chromosomal defects
Aneuploidy describes the total chromosome number:
a. That is a multiple of the haploid number
b. That reflects a loss or gain of a single chromosome
c. That is diploid but has a balanced deletion and duplication of whole chromosomes
d. In gametes; diploid is the number in somatic cells
. If the DNA nucleotide sequence is 59-ATTAGC-39, then the mRNA sequence transcribed from this template is:
a. 59-GCUAAU-39
b. 59-AUUAGC-39
c. 59-TAATCG-39
d. 59-UAAUCG-39
Cells with damaged DNA and mutated or nonfunctioning cell cycle regulatory proteins:
a. Are arrested in G1 and the DNA is repaired
b. Continue to divide, which leads to tumor progression
c. Divide normally, producing identical daughter cells
d. Go through apoptosis
To start DNA replication, DNA polymerase requires an available 39 hydroxyl group found on the:
a. Leading strand
b. mRNA
c. Parent strand
d. Primer
Ligase joins Okazaki fragments of the:
a. 59-to-39 template strand
b. Lagging strand
c. Leading strand
d. Primer fragments
A 40-year-old patient enters the hospital with a rare form of cancer caused by faulty cell division regulation. This cancer localized in the patient’s spleen. An ambitious laboratory developed a molecular test to verify the type of cancer present. This molecular test would require patient samples taken from which two tissues?
a. Abnormal growths found on the skin and in the bone marrow
b. Normal splenic tissue and cancerous tissue
c. Cancerous tissue in spleen and bone marrow
d. Peripheral blood and cancerous tissue in the spleen
One main difference between PCR and reverse transcriptase PCR is that:
a. PCR requires primers
b. PCR uses reverse transcriptase to elongate the primers
C. Reverse transcriptase PCR forms millions of cDNA fragments
D. Reverse transcriptase PCR requires ligase to amplify the target DNA
. Which one of the following statements about gel electrophoresis is false?
a. The gel is oriented in the chamber with the wells at the positive terminal.
b. A buffer solution is required to maintain the electrical current.
c. The matrix of a polyacrylamide gel is tighter than that of an agarose gel.
d. The larger DNA fragments will be closest to the wells of the gel.
Autoradiography of DNA is the:
a. Detection of radioactive or chemoluminescent oligonucleotides
b. Exposure of the gel to UV light
c. Transfer of DNA to a nitrocellulose filter
d. Use of ethidium bromide to visualize the DNA banding pattern
One major difference between endpoint PCR and real-time PCR is that:
a. Endpoint PCR requires thermostable DNA polymerase, deoxynucleotides, and primers
b. Endpoint PCR requires a separate step to detect the amplicons formed in the reaction
c. Real-time PCR uses capillary gel electrophoresis to detect amplicons during PCR cycling
d. Real-time PCR detects and quantifies amplicons using cleavage-based signal amplification
. Which of the following statements about minimal residual disease is true?
a. Clinical remission of hematologic cancers is determined by molecular techniques such as PCR and flow cytometry
b. Real-time quantitative PCR–determined copy number of BCR/ABL1 transcripts will always be lower in molecular remission than in clinical remission.
c. Qualitative PCR that uses a known copy number of a target sequence is of use in determining minimal residual disease levels.
d. Minimal residual disease assessment can aid physicians in making treatment decisions but does not yet offer insights into prognosis.
What is the most common clinical application of flow cytometry?
a. Diagnosis of platelet disorders
b. Detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage
c. Diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas
d. Differentiation of anemias
Which of the following is true of CD45 antigen?
a. It is present on every cell subpopulation in the bone marrow
b. It is expressed on all hematopoietic cells, with the exception of megakaryocytes and late erythroid precursors.
c. It is not measured routinely in flow cytometry.
d. It may be present on nonhematopoietic cells.
Erythroid precursors are characterized by the expression of:
a. CD71
b. CD20
c. CD61
d. CD3
In Figure 32-2A, the cell population colored in aqua represents:
a. Monocytes
b. Nonhematopoietic cells
c. Granulocytes
d. Lymphocytes
Antigens expressed by B-LL include:
a. CD3, CD4, and CD8
b. CD19, CD34, and CD10
c. There are no antigens specific for B-LL.
d. Myeloperoxidase
Which of the following is true of flow cytometric gating?
a. It is best defined as selection of a target population for flow cytometric analysis.
b. It can be done only at the time of data acquisition.
c. It can be done only at the time of final analysis and interpretation of flow cytometric data.
d. It is accomplished by adjusting flow rate.
Collection of ungated events:
a. Facilitates comprehensive analysis of all cells
b. Does not help in detection of unexpected abnormal populations
c. Allows the collection of data on a large number of rare cells
d. Is used for leukemia diagnosis only
Mycosis fungoides is characterized by
a. Loss of certain antigens compared with the normal T cell population
b. Polyclonal T cell receptor
c. Immunophenotype indistinguishable from that of normal T cells
d. Expression of CD3 and CD8 antigens
Mature granulocytes show the expression of
a. CD15, CD33, and CD34
b. CD15, CD33, and CD41
c. CD15, CD33, and CD13
d. CD15, CD33, and CD7
During the initial evaluation of flow cytometric data, cell size, cytoplasmic complexity, and expression of CD45 antigen are used to define cell subpopulations. Which of the following parameters defines cytoplasmic complexity/ granularity?
a. SS
b. FS
c. CD45
d. HLA-DR
. The most important feature of the mature neoplastic B cell population is:
a. The presence of a specific immunophenotype with expression of CD19 antigen
b. A clonal light chain expression (i.e., exclusively k- or l-positive population)
c. A clonal T cell receptor expression
d. Aberrant expression of CD5 antigen on CD191 cells
