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VA3404 - Parasitology F

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Parasites that live within the body are known as:

a)

endoparasites.

b)

ectoparasites.

c)

exoparasites.

d)

gastrointestinal parasites.

2.

Which of the following may be seen in urine sediment?

a)

Capillaria plica

b)

Cystoisospora

c)

Toxoplasma

d)

Giardia

3.

Roundworms are of the phylum:

a)

Platyhelminthes.

b)

Nematoda.

c)

Acanthocephala.

d)

Arthropoda.

4.

How many intermediate hosts does Dipylidium canium have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

None

5.

Ascending tick paralysis is known to be caused by:

a)

Argasidae.

b)

Ixodidae.

c)

Biting midges.

d)

Malliphaga

6.

A patient that presents with intense pruritus and hair loss may have a parasitic infection caused by:

a)

S. scabiei.

b)

O. cynotis.

c)

Demodex spp.

d)

Cheyletiella.

7.

To confirm the diagnosis of ringworm (dermatophytosis), which type of specimen should you collect and submit to the diagnostic laboratory?

a)

Feces

b)

Stomach contents

c)

Blood sample

d)

Skin scrapings

8.

Fungi can be differentiated based on the structure of their hyphae and the presence of:

a)

mycelia

b)

spores

c)

chitin

d)

capsules

9.

Pathogenic bacteria exhibit ____ hemolysis on blood agar.

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

no

10.

The culture media most often used for growth of fungi and yeasts is:

a)

Sabouraud dextrose

b)

eosin-methylene blue

c)

trypticase soy agar

d)

McFarlane

11.

A bacterial culture used for endospore staining should be approximately ___ hours old.

a)

48

b)

24

c)

12

d)

8

12.

A useful stain in evaluation of fungal organisms is:

a)

endospore stain

b)

lactophenol cotton blue

c)

Gram stain

d)

Ziehl Nelson stain

13.

Culture and sensitivity tests are evaluated by measuring the:

a)

number of colonies produced

b)

size of colonies produced

c)

concentration of antimicrobials used

d)

zone of inhibition

14.

Which concentrated solution is used for recovering undistorted oocysts and nematode larvae from fecal samples?

a)

Sodium chloride

b)

Zinc sulfate

c)

Sodium nitrate

d)

All of the above

15.

The parasites whose life cycle involves a mollusk are:

a)

protozoa

b)

nematodes

c)

trematodes

d)

cestodes

16.

The infective stage of which parasite is an egg containing a larva, a free-living larva, or a larva within an intermediate host or transport host?

a)

Protozoa

b)

Nematodes

c)

Trematodes

d)

Cestodes

17.

To which group of parasites does Dirofilaria immitis belong?

a)

Protazoa

b)

Neatodes

c)

Trematodes

d)

Cestodes

18.

The infective stage of which parasite is the proglottid, which contains eggs with hexacanth embryos?

a)

Protazoa

b)

Nenatodes

c)

Trematodes

d)

Cestodes

19.

Which method is usually best for identifying fluke eggs?

a)

Direct Smear

b)

Flotation

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Baermann technique

20.

Diagnosing Otodectes cynotis infection is a simple matter of:

a)

examining a thin-film blood smear at 40× magnification

b)

combing the animal over black paper and watching for “moving dandruff”

c)

swabbing the external ear canal and examining the wax microscopically in mineral oil

d)

making an impression smear of the underside of a scab

21.

Eggs from the Trichuris sp. are distinguished by:

a)

the presence of symmetric bipolar plugs

b)

the presence of an operculum

c)

the characteristic hexacanth embryo contained in the egg

d)

their thick, dark, irregular shell

22.

Fleas can act as intermediate hosts for:

a)

Ctenocephalides canis

b)

Dipylidium caninum

c)

Ancylostoma sp.

d)

Demodex canis

23.

At low magnification, which feature most differentiates sucking from biting lice?

a)

Body size

b)

Body shape

c)

Shape of the head and mouthparts

d)

Color

24.

Cuterebra sp. (botflies) are:

a)

nematodes

b)

cestodes

c)

trematodes

d)

insects

25.

The burrowing mite that is considered normal skin fauna in most mammals is:

a)

Sarcoptes scabiei

b)

Demodex spp.

c)

Psoroptes spp.

d)

Cheyletiella spp.

26.

Which mite is also known as “walking dandruff”?

a)

Sarcoptes scabiei

b)

Demodex spp.

c)

Psoroptes spp.

d)

Cheyletiella spp.

27.

The burrowing mite that does not cause pruritus, even with heavy infestation, is:

a)

Sarcoptes scabiei

b)

Demodex spp.

c)

Psoroptes spp.

d)

Cheyletiella spp.

28.

Infection of a human with the common canine roundworm (Toxocara canis) causes a condition known as:

a)

cutaneous larva migrans

b)

visceral larva migrans

c)

ringworm

d)

toxoplasmosis

29.

Trematodes and cestodes are similar because they:

a)

are dorsoventrally flattened and have muscular suckers for attachment

b)

lack a digestive tract

c)

have direct life cycles

d)

have separate sexes

30.

Samples collected for parasitologic examinations should be:

a)

examined grossly for consistency, color, odor, blood, mucus, and foreign bodies

b)

examined 48 hours after collection

c)

collected off the ground to include grass and soil from the environment

d)

conducted using a direct smear only

31.

An organism that harbors the immature stage of a parasite is referred to as:

a)

definitive host

b)

intermediate host

c)

paratenic host

d)

symbiotic host

32.

An organism that harbors the adult stage of a parasite is referred to as:

a)

definitive host

b)

intermediate host

c)

paratenic host

d)

symbiotic host

33.

An organism that serves to transport a parasite is referred to as a:

a)

definitive host

b)

intermediate host

c)

paratenic host

d)

symbiotic host

34.

Infection of a human with the common canine hookworm (Ancylostoma caninum) causes a condition known as:

a)

cutaneous larva migrans

b)

visceral larva migrans

c)

ringworm

d)

toxoplasmosis

35.

Infection of a human with the larvae of Thelazia spp. causes a condition known as:

a)

cutaneous larva migrans

b)

visceral larva migrans

c)

hydatidosis

d)

verminous conjunctivitis

36.

The Baermann technique is used to diagnose infection with:

a)

Stephanofilaria stilesi

b)

Trichinella spiralis

c)

Strongyloides

d)

Oxyuris equi

37.

Fresh plucked hair and skin scrapings from the edges of lesions are needed in diagnosing which of the following?

a)

M. canis

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Histoplasma capsulatum

d)

Sporothrix schenckii

38.

Cellophane tape preparation is used to diagnose infection with:

a)

fleas

b)

mites

c)

hookworm

d)

tapeworm

39.

The causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is:

a)

Neorickettsia

b)

Rickettsia

c)

Anaplasma

d)

Trichuris

40.

Spirocerca lupi is commonly referred to as the ___worm of dogs.

a)

esophageal

b)

stomach

c)

lung

d)

bladder

41.

Capillaria plica is commonly referred to as the ___worm of dogs.

a)

esophageal

b)

stomach

c)

lung

d)

bladder

42.

Physaloptera sp. is commonly referred to as the ___worm of dogs.

a)

esophageal

b)

stomach

c)

lung

d)

bladder

43.

Infestation with lice is referred to as:

a)

myiasis

b)

sparganosis

c)

pediculosis

d)

cysticercosis

44.

Infestation with larval flies (maggots) is referred to as:

a)

myiasis

b)

sparganosis

c)

pediculosis

d)

cysticercosis

45.

The life cycle stage of lice bound to the hair or feather shaft of the host is referred to as:

a)

proglottid

b)

nit

c)

redia

d)

cysticercus

46.

Larval _____ species are usually found in swollen, cystlike subcutaneous sites, with a fistula communicating to the outside environment.

a)

Onchocerca

b)

Cuterebra

c)

Thelazia

d)

Sarcocystis

47.

List and define the 3 means of reproduction in the protozoa.

(a)  

48.

Define Trophozite:

(a)  

49.

What benefit to the parasite does the cyst stage provide?

(a)  

50.

Define Oocyst: 

(a)  

51.

Define Prepatent Period: 

(a)  

52.

 What is the difference between Temporary and Permanent Parasite?  

4 lines
53.

 List 2 different types of Hosts? Explain

4 lines
54.

List 4 requirements for parasites to survive. 

(a)  

55.

What is the difference between indirect or direct life cycle?  

4 lines
56.

 What are the three regions of the tapeworm?  

(a)  

57.

 Which of the above listed features in question 57 contain hooks?

(a)  

58.

Cestodes lack a digestive system

a)

True

b)

False

59.

 Cestodes absorb nutrients through the body wall

a)

True

b)

False

60.

   male and female organs are present in each tapeworm

a)

True

b)

False

61.

  Cestode eggs have a fully developed embryo

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The Tapeworm life cycle is direct and involves 2 intermediate hosts 

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Trematodes have a sucker at the mouth and ventrally near the middle of the body 

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Fluke worms have both sex organs in the same individual 

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The roundworm’s reproductive organs coil around the intestinal tract  

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Name 4 means of transmission that is evident with larval parasites

(a)  

67.

 Circle the Nematodes of Dogs and Cats  

a)

Toxocara spp. 

b)

 Toxascaris spp.

c)

 Ancylostoma spp. 

d)

Trichuris vulpis spp. 

e)

Heartworm

68.

 Dirofilaria caninum live in 

a)

he lungs

b)

the right ventricle  

c)

the pulmonary artery  

d)

 B & C  

69.

Female heartworm release _______ into the bloodstream and are ingested by        _____________. 

a)

Microfilaria; mosquitoes

b)

Oocysts; fleas 

c)

Larva; ticks

d)

Nymphs; mites

70.

Rickettsia Parasites are:  

a)

 intracellular, gram negative bacteria that replicate in cytoplasma of eukaryotic cells  

b)

intracellular, gram positive bacteria that replicate in cytoplasma of eukaryotic cells 

c)

extracellular gram negative bacteria that replicate in the extracellular spaces 

d)

extracellular gram positive bacteria that replicate in blood vessels

71.

What clues would a veterinarian find indicating a flea infestation on a dog? 

(a)  

72.

What are the two different types of lice?  List their characteristics. 

4 lines
73.

 What parasite flues nits to the fur of its host?   Why is this host is considered species specific? 

4 lines
74.

What is the difference between an oocyst and an egg?  

(a)