wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharma quiz

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 3hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It has resistance to hydrolysis by gastric juice and its ability to produce uniform concentrations in blood

when administered orally.

a)

Oxacillin sodium

b)

Methicillin sodium

c)

Penicillin V

d)

Penicillin G

2.

Aka Benzylpenicillin

a)

Oxacillin sodium

b)

Methicillin sodium

c)

Penicillin V

d)

Penicillin G

3.

Not to be used in general therapy to avoid possible widespread development of organisms resistant to it.

a)

Oxacillin sodium

b)

Methicillin sodium

c)

Penicillin V

d)

Penicillin G

4.

Use is restricted to the tx of infections caused by staphylococci resistant to Pen G.

a)

Oxacillin sodium

b)

Methicillin sodium

c)

Cloxacillin sodium

d)

Dicloxacillin Sodium

5.

It has substituents in positions ortho to the point of attachment of the aromatic ring to the carboxamide

group of penicillin

a)

Nafcillin sodium

b)

Methicillin sodium

c)

Cloxacillin sodium

d)

Dicloxacillin Sodium

6.

Identify the structure

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Doxycycline

7.

What is the primary role of agents such as Tazobactam and Sulbactam in antibacterial therapy?

a)

Effective against most gram-negative aerobic bacteria

b)

Increase in the oral bioavavilability of the Penicillins

c)

Improve CNS penetrability of Penicillins

d)

Minimize destruction of the Penicillins by bacterial beta-lactamases

8.

Methicillin is chemically named as:

a)

2,6- dimethoxylphenylpenicillin

b)

5-methyl-3-(2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin

c)

5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazolyl-penicillin

d)

2-ethoxy-1-naphthalpenicillin

9.

Amoxicillin is:

a)

α-carboxy-3-thienylpenicillin

b)

α-(1- methanesulfonyl-2-oxo-imidazolidino

carbonyl-amino) benzylpenicillin

c)

D-α-amino-p-hydroxybenzyl penicillin

d)

2-ethoxy-1-naphthylpenicillin

10.

Structure of the penicillin molecule shows it to contain a fused ring system which is the:

a)

β-lactam penam structure

b)

β-lactam alkylamino ethyl ring

c)

β-lactam phenylpenicillin ring

d)

β-lactam thiazolidine structure

11.

Identify the structure

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Clarithromycin

c)

Ofloxacin

d)

Cefazolin

12.

Identify the structure

a)

Cefadroxil

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Amikacin

13.

The so-called Isoxazolyl penicillins are primarily indicated for the treatment of infection caused by

what organism?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus peumoniae

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Haemophilus influenzae

14.

This quinine derivative appears to disrupt mitochondrial electron transport in protozoa

a)

Halofantrine

b)

Lumefantrine

c)

Atovaquone

d)

Artemisinin

15.

Used in fixed combination with artemether for uncomplicated falciparum malaria in many countries

a)

Halofantrine

b)

Lumefantrine

c)

Atovaquone

d)

Artemisinin

16.

Which is not used for chemoprophylaxis because of its potential for quinidine-like cardiotoxicity (QT prolongation) and embryotoxicity

a)

Halofantrine

b)

Lumefantrine

c)

Atovaquone

d)

Artemisinin

17.

Which of the ff. is metabolized in the food vacuole of the parasite forming toxic free radicals and is the standard of care for all chloroquine- resistant malaria

a)

Halofantrine

b)

Lumefantrine

c)

Atovaquone

d)

Artemisinin

18.

Which of the ff. may cause cinchonism

a)

Halofantrine

b)

Lumefantrine

c)

Atovaquone

d)

Quinine

19.

Which of the ff is a blood schizonticide

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Sulfadoxine

d)

Primaquine

e)

Proguanil

20.

Which of the ff may cause folic acid deficiency when used in high doses?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Sulfadoxine

d)

Primaquine

e)

Proguanil

21.

Which of the ff is bioactivated to cycoguanil?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Sulfadoxine

d)

Primaquine

e)

Proguanil

22.

Which of the ff forms quinoline-quinone metabolites, which are electron-transferring redox compounds that act as cellular oxidants?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Sulfadoxine

d)

Primaquine

e)

Proguanil

23.

Which of the ff may cause GI distress, rash, headache, auditory dysfunction and retinal dysfunction at high doses?

a)

Chloroquine

b)

Pyrimethamine

c)

Sulfadoxine

d)

Primaquine

e)

Proguanil

24.

Which of the ff. is used topically in the treatment of burns?

a)

Nitrofurazone

b)

Furazolidone

c)

Nitrofurantoin

d)

Nifurtimox

25.

Imidazole antifungal

a)

Voriconazole

b)

Posaconazole

c)

Fluconazole

d)

Miconazole

26.

Agent of choice for the treatment of bacterial gastroenteritis caused by gram- negative bacilli.

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Nalidixic acid

c)

Sparfloxacin

d)

Ofloxacin

27.

Act as noncompetitive inhibitors of (1,3)-β-d-glucan synthase, enzyme complex that forms

stabilizing glucan polymers in fungal cell wall

a)

Natamycin

b)

Griseofulvin

c)

Micafungin

d)

Naftifine

28.

Acts as a tight-binding noncompetitive inhibitor of enzyme inositol phosphorylceramide synthase

which is an enzyme essential for fungal sphingolipid biosynthesis

a)

Anidulafungin

b)

Flucytosine

c)

Aureobasidin A

d)

Ciclopirox olamine

29.

Which of the ff. Is a urinary analgesic?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Phenazopyridine HCl

c)

Methenamine mandelate

d)

Naftifine

30.

Which of the ff. Is an inhibitor of squalene epoxidase?

a)

Terbinafine

b)

Naftifine

c)

Tolnaftate

d)

All of the above

31.

Which of the ff. concentrates at keratin precursor cells found in nails, skin & hair w/c are

gradually exfoliated & replaced by new tissues?

a)

Ketoconazole

b)

Amphotericin B

c)

Flucytosine

d)

Griseofulvin

32.

Which of the ff. causes leakage of both potassium ion & cell lysis at same concentration?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Nystatin

c)

Natamycin

d)

None of the above

33.

Which of the ff. Provides the best distribution of the currently marketed quinolones?

a)

Enoxacin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Lomefloxacin

d)

Levofloxacin

34.

Remains the standard to which the activity of most germicidal substances is compared

a)

Ethanol

b)

Phenol

c)

Benzoic acid

d)

Formalin

35.

Which of the ff. organic dyes has been used orally as an anthelmintic for strongyloidiasis and oxyuriasis?

a)

Gentian violet

b)

Basic fuchsin

c)

Methylene blue

d)

Methyl red

36.

Which of the ff. Is added to formalin to retard polymerization of formaldehyde?

a)

Sodium chloride

b)

Benzene

c)

Methanol

d)

Water

37.

Which of the ff. Is used in the treatment of acne?

a)

Benzalkonium chloride

b)

Carbamide peroxide

c)

Benzoyl peroxide

d)

Sodium propionate

38.

A process that kills nonsporulating microorganisms by hot water or steam at 65℃-100℃?

a)

Antisepsis

b)

Decontamination

c)

Sterilization

d)

Pasteurization

39.

Refers to ethanol treated with one or more substances so that its use may be permitted for a

specialized purpose.

a)

Absolute alcohol

b)

Denatured alcohol

c)

Completely denatured alcohol

d)

Specially denatured alcohol

40.

It has been used to sterilize temperature- sensitive medical equipment and certain pharmaceuticals

that cannot be heat sterilized in an autoclave.

a)

Glutaraldehyde Disinfectant solution

b)

Ethylene oxide

c)

Formalin

d)

Isopropyl alcohol

41.

Refers to application of an agent to living tissue for the purpose of preventing infection.

a)

Disinfection

b)

Antisepsis

c)

Sanitization

d)

Sterilization

42.

Which of the ff. Preservatives is used as a bacteriostatic agent in pharmaceuticals for

injection, ophthalmic use, and intranasal administration?

a)

Chlorobutanol

b)

Benzyl Alcohol

c)

Benzoic acid

d)

Phenylmercuric nitrate

43.

4-chloro-3-methylphenol

a)

Chlorocresol

b)

Thymol

c)

Eugenol

d)

Resorcinol

44.

Is expressed as the mass of solute per volume (g/L) or mass of solute per mass of solvent (g/g),

or as the moles of solute per volume (mol/L).

a)

Solubility

b)

Partition Coefficient

c)

Dissociation constant

d)

Molar refractivity

45.

Refers to compounds that are obtained by donating electrons to metal ion with the formation

of a ring structure.

a)

Chelates

b)

Ligands

c)

Surfactants

d)

Co- solvent

46.

Refers to compounds capable of forming a ring structure with a metal atom

a)

Chelates

b)

Ligands

c)

Surfactants

d)

Co- solvent

47.

Which of the ff. acts as antibacterial and antifungal agents by complexing with iron and copper.

a)

Cetylpyridinium chloride

b)

Penicillamine

c)

8- Hydroxyquinoline

d)

Dimercaprol

48.

Which of the ff. Is a weak base?

a)

Cocaine

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Pentobarbital

49.

The ff. polar groups can be added to increase solubilty of the molecule by increasing

hydrogen bonding and the interaction with water.

a)

Amines

b)

Ketones

c)

Carboxylic acids

d)

All of the above

50.

Refers to the ability of a drug to dissolve in a lipid phase when an aqueous phase is also present

a)

Solubility

b)

Partition Coefficient

c)

Dissociation constant

d)

Molar refractivity

51.

pKa refers to

a)

Solubility

b)

Partition Coefficient

c)

Dissociation constant

d)

Molar refractivity

52.

Which of the ff. Methods increases water solubilty of drugs

a)

Use of co- solvents

b)

Employing surfactants

c)

Complexation

d)

All of the above

53.

It is an effective antidote for organic arsenical, Lewisite, but can also be used for treatment

of poisoning due to antimony, gold and mercury

a)

Cetylpyridinium chloride

b)

Penicillamine

c)

Dimercaprol

54.

Major site of metabolism:

a)

Kidneys

b)

Liver

c)

Lungs

d)

Skin

e)

Stomach

55.

Which of the following functional groups of drugs is NOT susceptible to phase I metabolic reactions:

a)

GSH

b)

OH

c)

COOH